Mixture Flashcards

1
Q

Occlusion of which cerebral artery would cause personality changes

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Symtpoms of MCA stroke

A

Aphasiaheadachehemiplegiaweakness+others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DEXA scan results for osteoporosis

A

Normal >-1Osteopenia -1-2.5osteoporosis < -2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Polypharmacy definition

A

the concurrent use of multiple medications by a patient (~5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is overflow incontinence

A

Inability to completely empty bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

rf for overactive bladder

A

high caffeinealcoholsome medicines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a total anterior circulation stroke

A

affects parts of brain supplied by anterior and middle cerebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Presentation of total anterior circulation stroke

A

unilateral weakness of face arm and leghigh cerebral dysfunctionhomonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Horner’s syndrome presentation

A

unilateral anhidrosis (abscnece of sweating on face)enophthalmos (inset eye)miosis (constricted pupil)and ptosisAlways remember lung apical (Pancoast) tumour compressing the sympathetic chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is mydriasis

A

dilated pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the medication for MND

A

riluzole (only one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the first-line drug for Alzheimers

A

donezepil (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) or rivastigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the drug of choice for severe ALzheimers

A

memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine(else - lamotrigine, gabapentin, phenytoin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

triggers of migraine

A

ChocolateHangoverOrgasmCheeseOral contraceptieLie insAlcoholTumultExerciseOthers: periods, injury, bright lights/boises, huger, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

First line prevention of migraine

A

topiramate OR propranolollook for contraindications in stemtopiramate = teratogenicpropranolol = x asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What s corticobasal degenereation

A

Parkinson plus syndromeHas alien hand syndrome (limbs moving on own)+apraxia +aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is progressive supranuclear palsy

A

Parkinson plus syndromesupranucear opthalmoplegia (initially cant look down, then cant look left and right)neck dystonia, balance issues and cognitive impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Action of ropinirole

A

Activates dopamine receptors to mimic the action of dopamine (alternative to L-dopa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can be used for meningitis close contact prophylaxis

A

oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Criteria for orthostatic hypotension

A

A drop in blood pressure of at least 20 systolic or 10 diastolic within 3 minutes of standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

aortic dissection presentation

A

10/10 pain in centre of chest or back, radiating to neck/jaw and spreading caudally. Receding pain. Sweaty, weak left sided pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Features of PE o ECG

A

ST depression or sinus tachycaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of PE on CXR

A

Fleischner sign (dilated central pulmonary vessel)Westermark sign (collapse of vasculature distal to PE)Hampton’s hump (wedge shaped infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Treatment for pericarditis
NSAIDs first linecolchicine
26
What is the mechanism of action of N-acetylcysteine in the treatment of paracetamol overdose
Replenishes stores of glutathione in hepatocytes. This binds to NAPQI which is the toxic product from paracetamol
27
What can be used to reverse heparin
protamine
28
what can be used to reverse warfarin
beriplexvitamin k
29
What drugs should be given to MI patients on arrival to hospital
bisoprolol, clopidogrel and LMWH
30
which crystals are seen in gout
negatively birefringent needles
31
which crystals are seen in pseudogout
positively birefringent crystals
32
what is aspirin
cox 1 inhibitor
33
what is clopidogrel
p2y12 inhibitor
34
What is tamsulosin and what are its side effects
an alpha blocker used for benign prostatic hyperplasia. common side effects are dizziness and sexual dysfunction
35
What should be done in HELLP syndrome
deliver baby!
36
what can small cell carcinoma of the lung secrete
ADH or ACTH
37
what can squamous cell carcinoma of the lung secrete
PTH and hence cause hypercalcaemia
38
what is Conn's syndrome
primary hyperaldosteronism
39
features and treatment of Conn's syndrome
Hypernatraemia and hypokalaemiatreatment is potassium sparing diuretic - spironolactone
40
treatment of h.pylori infection
PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole
41
Stages of CKD
1. >902. 60-893A. 45-593B. 30-444. 15-29
42
should you treat a second seizure
yes if there hasnt been sufficient time to recover, administer a benxodiazepine
43
what is the first medical treatment for COPD
1. SABA or SAMA2. LABA + LAMA3. +ICS
44
aki stage 1
creatinine <2x baseline/ urine output <0.5ml/kf for >6 consecutive hours
45
aki stage 2
creatinine 2-3x baseline/urine output <0.5ml/kg for >12 consecutive hours
46
aki stage 3
creatinine >3x baseline/urine output <0.5ml/kg >24 hours
47
some drugs that cause aki
NSAIDACEiARBsCCBsa-blockersb-blockersopiodsdiureticsacyclovirtrimethoprimlithium
48
what is a static risk factor
one that cant be changed
49
what is error of inheriting thinking
when a working diagnosis is handed over and accepted without consideration
50
what is error of ignorance
unconscious incompetence
51
Which nerve lesion spares the forehead
UMN lesion! think stroke
52
which nerve involves the forehead
LMN! remember a LMN should be ipsilateral as it is after the decussation
53
What is the treatment of temporal arteritis
prednisolone high dose!risk of amaurosis fugax
54
What is diagnostic of temporal arteritis
temporal artery biopsy
55
what else are those with temporal arteritis at risk of
AAA so would want to do a CT abdomen
56
Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome presentation
encephalopathyophthalmoplegiaataxiaamnesiaconfabulation
57
first line treatment for guillain barre
IV immunoglobulins
58
treatment of kawasaki disease
aspirin and IVIG!
59
What does temporal arteritis have a strong association with
polymyalgia rheumatica ~50%
60
what causes a convergent squint (esotropia)
hypermetropia (long sightedness) causes image to focus behind the retina.myopia = short sightedness
61
What receptors do beta agonists act on
G protein-coupled receptors - cause smooth muscle relaxation and hence bronchodilation
62
how might gastric cancer resent
palpable mass, ascites, dysphagia
63
what might you see on the xray of someone with heart failure
A- alveolar oedema (bat wing opacities)B - Kerley B linesC - cardiomegalyD - dilated upper lobe veinsE - pleural effusion
64
what is measured to assess managment of heart failure
serum natriuretic peptide-pro BNP
65
when to do an audit score
to establish history of drinking problems, do this first if insufficient info in the stem!
66
treatment of cluster headache
high flow oxygen and sumatriptan (unless contraindicated by IHD)
67
prophylaxis of cluster headaches
verapamil
68
what mass can myasthenia gravis present with
thyoma in 15% shown as a large anterior mediastinal mass on CT
69
how can myasthenia gravis be diagnosed
ice test or Tensilon test
70
Symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus
urinary incontinencedementiagait disturbance
71
what might a myoclonic seizure encompass
brief, involuntary jerking movements in limbs or facial muscles, without loss of consciousness
72
what is a common cause of isolated seizures
head trauma
73
what connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle
foramen of monro
74
what connects the third and fourth ventricles
cerebral aqueduct
75
what is the temperature phenomenon in MS called
Uhthoff's phenomenon
76
presentation of primary biliary cholangitis
fatiguejaundicepruritis
77
associations of PBC
Anti-mitochondrial antibodies!!!!!also look for associated autoimmune conditions
78
signs of nephrotic syndrome
pitting oedemaheavy preoteinuriahyperlipidaemia
79
complications of nephrotic syndrome
DVT (hypercoaguable state)pleural effusionsincreased risk of infection (loss of IG in urine)
80
thyrotoxicosis signs
very fast heart beatirregularly irregular pulseweight lossstressfine tremor
81
what organism causes syphillis
Treponema Pallidum - spirochaete.Think painless sore presentation
82
what organism is candida
pseudohyphae
83
what blood markers indicate PCOS
Low FSH raised LHmay also have raised testosteronecheck for impaired glucose tolerance!!!!
84
management for those with primary adrenal insufficiency with febrile illness/broken bone/diarrhoea or cold
must double the dose orf corticosteroid!!!(hydrocortisone)dont need to double e.g. fludrocortisone
85
risk factors for SAH
Elhers Danlossmokingalcoholcocainepolycystic kidneyscoarctation of the aorta
86
SAH on CT
white star shape
87
where might biliary colic pain refer to
between the scapulae
88
what is charcots triad
fever, RUQ, jaundice
89
what is charcots triad indicative of
cholangitis
90
Signs of basal skull fracture
panda eyesBattle's sign (bruising behind ear)CSF from noseURGENT CT needed
91
How to tell if chronic subdural haematoma
commonly in elderly or alcoholicsold blood is DARK on a CT
92
how to tell acute subdural haematoma
blood will be lighter than brain tissue = acute bleed
93
Treatment of frontotemporal dementia
DO NOT OFFER memantine or acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors.SSRIs may provide symptomatic relief, other than that no treatment!!!!
94
what antibodies are present in guillain barre syndrome
anti-gangliside
95
what would temporal arteritis show on a temporal artery biopsy
granulomatous inflammation(note has skip lesions so a negative biopsy does not exclude)
96
What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome
caused when singles occurs in the facial nerve.Associated with a painful herpetic rash in the ear canal
97
How is Ramsay Hunt syndrome managed
oral aciclovir or corticosteroidsto manage the pain give pregabalin as it is neuropathic pain
98
Test results for Myasthenia Gravis
Anti-MuSK antibodies in serumincreased jitter with single-fibre EMG
99
triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus
dementiaataxiaurinary incontinence
100
what is the definitive treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus
ventriculoperitoneal shunt
101
acute management of cluster headache
high flow O2 and subcutaneous sumatriptan
102
What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
condition caused by neuroendocrine small cell lung cancer (paraneoplastic - a condition that arrises from cancer elsewhere in body).auto-immune antibodies against sodium voltage-gated ion channels
103
symptoms of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
muscle weakness which improves with usehyporeflexiahistory of smoking/lung cancer risk
104
extradural haemorrhage on CT
biconvex (lemon shape) collection of blood that does not cross the suture lines
105
how would NPH present on CT
dilated ventricles
106
how would subdural haematoma present on CT
crescent shape that crosses the suture linesdark = old bloodlight = new
107
complication of SAH
blood in basal cisterns can lead to vasospasm as there is blood surrounding the cerebral arteries
108
how can vasospasm be prevented in SAH
nimodipine (CCB)
109
presentation of posterior inferior cerebellar artery stroke PICA
ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature on the faceipsilateral Horner'scontralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the body
110
Presentation of anterior inferior cerebellar artery AICA stroke
Same as PICA+ ipsilateral facial paralysis and hearing loss
111
presentation of progressive bulbar palsy
quiet nasal speech, flaccid, fasciculating tongue, absent gag reflex
112
presentation of pseudobulbar palsy
spastic tongue, hot-potato speech and drisk jaw jerk
113
B12 deficiency neurological presentation
can cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord:loss of vibration and proprioceptionspasticityataxia
114
what is internuclear ophthalmoplegia
impaired adduction of eye on SAME side as lesionhorizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the contralateral side
115
cause of internuclear ophthalmoplegia
lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (controls horizontal eye movements by interconnecting the III, IV and VI CN)located in the midbrain/ponsCAUSES:Multiple sclerosisvascular
116
what is syringomyelia
collection of csf within the spinal cord
117
presentation of syringomyelia
cape-like loss of sensation to temperature but preservation of other sensories.Classic example is patient who burns their hands and doesnt realisealso spastic weakness, paraesthesia, neuropathic pain, bowel and bladder dysfunction
118
investigation and management of syringomyelia
full spine MRIbrain MRI as STRONGLY ASSOCIATED WITH ARNOLD CHIARI MALFORMATIONtreatment - shunt/treat cause
119
what is arnold chiari malformation
downward displacement of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum. congenital/traumaFeatures:non-communicating hydrocephalusheadachesyringomyelia
120
what is used in acute MS relapse
methylprednisolone IV or oral to shorten lengthBaclofen for MS spasms
121
common cause of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
hospitalisation of someone and not giving them parkinson meds
122
difference between bacteria, tb and fungi on LP
bacteria = high lymphocytesfungi and tb low lymphocytestb cloudy with fibrin web appearancefungi/bacteria cloudy
123
how long until someone can drive withdrawing/changing epilepsy medication
6 months when AEDs withdrawn/changed
124
when can you drive a car with epilepsy
1 year seizure free
125
when can you drive a car after having a single seizure
6 months
126
how long until can drive a bus/lorry with one off seizure
5 years
127
how long until drive bus or lorry with multiple seizure
10 years
128
presentation of acoustic neuroma (scwanomma)
gradual onset unilateral hearing loss +/- vertigo.neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with bilateral schwanommas
129
how to take alendronic acid
once a week on the same day, firsth thing in the morning. Stand upright for the first 30 minutes and don't eat anything for 30 minutes
130
how to take vitamin D when on alendronic acid
take same time everyday but not within 4 hours of alendronic acid
131
features of Huntington's disease
develop after 35 years if age (but shows anticipation)choreapersonality change (irritable, apathy, depression)intellectual impairmentdystoniasaccadic eye movements (jerky)typically live for 20 years after development
132
osgood schlatter disease
seen in sporty teenagerspain, tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle (knee)supportive management
133
osteochondritis dissecans
pain after exerciseintermittend swelling and locking