Misc Questions Flashcards

1
Q

ECH

What is the most important firefighting tactic that engine company firefighters perform?

A

Rapid and effective stretching of hoselines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ECH

What is the rating of the fire extinguisher?

A

2 1/2 Gallon 2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ECH

The “can” may be used on ______ fires that are in the incipient phase.

A

Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ECH

What is one key piece of information needed while responding to a fire for the nozzle firefighter?

A

Occupancy type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ECH

What

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECH

How long does the department have to report a workplace accident?

A

5 standard working days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ECH

What does the first digit of the hose identification (ID) number represent?

A

Diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ECH

Engine company with grass in their districts may choose to add this rear discharge line as an option during fire season?

A

100’ of 1 1/2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ECH

Who is responsible for ensuring that newly received hose undergoes the service test process?

A

Comnpany Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ECH

When testing a single length of hose (new or repaired), connect it to a discharge outlet away from engineer’s panel, attach a nozle to it and charge the hose to what pressure and for how long?

A

250 psi for 1 minute

(Keep personnel minimum of 25 feet away during test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECH

Who is reffered to as the eyes and ears of the nozzle team?

A

Company Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ECH

On arrival, the engineer on the first-arriving engine needs to do what?

A

Make every attempt to provide the company officer with three views of the building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ECH

What is the priority of the second-arriving engine nozzle firefighter?

A

To assess and ensure that the fire attack hose line is moving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ECH

Who has the important task to monitor and observe heat, smoke and fire conditions at the entrance doorway?

A

Back-up firefighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ECH

What side should the nozzle and lead lengths be placed for an outward swinging commericial door?

A

Knob side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ECH

Name the 4 essential factors that affect the safe and efficient extinguishment of fires using the direct method

A
  1. Sufficient flow GPM
  2. nozzle pattern that can penetrate the heat
  3. sufficient reach
  4. timely and adequate ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ECH

Civilians trapped inside a structure or exposed to heat and smoke are considered what?

A

The primary exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ECH

How many lengths of hose per three floors for exterior stretch or well-hole stretch?

A

1 length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ECH

What does ADULTS used for and what does each letter mean?

A

A- Advanced fire conditions on arrival
D- Defensive operations
U- Unable to determine seat or location of the fire
L- Large, uncompartmentalized area (supermarket, tilt-up, warehouse, etc.)

T- “Tons of water.” Any time you need to deliver 250 gpm or more.

S- Standpipe operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ECH

Where should the first hose line be placed?

A

Between the fire and any persons endangered by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ECH

In those situations where the first-arriving company or the incident commander (IC) recognizes the immediate need for mutiple hose lines, which hose line should be utilized as an additional attack line?

A

Second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ECH

Where is the 2 OUT line supposed to be stretched?

A

To or through the same entrance as the attack hose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ECH

During an attic fire, what is the minimum size hole that should be pulled in the ceiling?

A

4’ x 4’

(2-3 joist bays wide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ECH

What are the three types of exposures to be considered at fires?

A

Life

Interior

Exterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ECH

What is the key to quickly extinguishing an attic fire?

A

Locating the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ECH

What is the most important aspect of extinguishing an attic fire?

A

Getting the nozzle FF as far into the attic space as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ECH

At what point should the first hose lines at a fire be used solely for exposure protection?

A

After the decision is made to fight the fire defensively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ECH

Fire hydrants south of the American River within the City limits will have ______ open valves

A

Clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ECH

A 2 1/2” hydrant outlet will deliver approx. ___ percent of the flow of a four inch outlet.

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ECH

Fire hydrants north of the American river will have ________ open valves

A

Counterclockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pressure-reducing valves (PRV), which control water flowing and static conditions, must be installed on all outlets that exceed _______ pressure.

A

175 psi static pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ECH

Older buildings may have a multitide of different connections that each supply water to a specific area, stairwell, or system within the building is known as what type of system?

A

Non-looped system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ECH

In buildings where a single set of connections supplies water for all of the fire protection systems in the building is known as what type of system?

A

Looped system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ECH

Under no circumstances should a hookup be made to a standpipe that does not afford the nozzle team protection from what?

A

Heat and smoke, such as in a corridor or hallway on the fire floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ECH

Master streams flow in excess of ____ GPM

A

325 GPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ECH

What are two factors when selecting the tip size of a master stream?

A

Reach and Penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ECH

What is a Class “A” Pumper?

A

An engine with a pump discharge capacity of at least 500 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ECH

What is a Class “B” pumper?

A

An apparatus with a pump discharge capacity of under 500 gpm. The patrol unit is an example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ECH

The simultaneous ignition fo all of the combustible contents in a space is known as what? What is the average temperature?

A

A flashover

900o F to 1,200oF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HAZMAT Flow Chart

If a compressed tank of industrial gas larger than ____ gallons is compromised and cannot be contained, activate a Level __ Hazmatt.

A

150 gallons; II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MOU

Employees shall no later than ____ hours before the use of pool (UT) hours, notify the Fire Chief or his designated representative in wrting threof.

A

twenty four (24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MOU

No matter shall be considered as a grievance under this article unless it is presented in writing within __ calendar days after occurence of the events on which the grievance was based.

A

thirty (30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MOU

There shall be no City retiree insurance contribution for retirees with less than ___ full years of City service

A

ten (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MOU

Where possible and feasible, all training and work of a non-emergency nature will be performed between what hours?

A

8:00am - 5:00pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MOU

You can be requireed to work ___ hours or volunteer to work ____ hours without a break in service.

A

72 hours; 96 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MOU

Employees may trade twenty-four (24) hour shifts or incremental portions of ____ hours.

A

four (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MOU

Full time career suppression employees who are pregnant shall be eligible for up to _____ hours of continuos City-paid time off during the four (4) week pregnancy disability leave

A

two hundred twenty four (224)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

FBRPA

The firefighter under investigation shall be informed, prior to the interrogation, of the rank, name, and command of the officer or other person in charge of the interrogation, the interrogating officer and all other persons to be presetn during the interrogation. All questions directed to the firefighter under interrogation shall be asked by and through no more than ____ interrogators at one time.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

FBRPA

How long does the employing department or licensing or certifying agency, have to complete an invesitgation of the allegation?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

FBRPA

Who has initial jurisdiction over any proceeding brought by any FF against any employing department or licensing or certifying agency for alleged violations of this chapter (FPBRA)?

A

Superior Court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MOU

Informal Discussion - Within __ days, the immediate supervisor shall give their decision or response, subject to the approval of the Fire Chief or the Fire Chief’s designee.

A

14 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MOU

What are the 5 grievance procedures and at what level?

A

Informal Discussion (Immediate Supervisor)

Formal Grievance Step 1 (AC)

Formal Grievance Step 2 (Fire Chief)

Formal Grievance Step 3 (Labor Relations)

Formal Grievance Step 4 (Arbitration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MOU

A firefighter (paramedic) who has performed preceptor duties for two (2) consecutive internships, shall not be assigned to precept again without a break of a minimum of?

A

600 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MOU

If the employee is required to report for jury duty on the day following their assigned fire department duty shift, they shall be relased from duty when? If required to return to jury duty the next day, at what time shall the employee not have to return to their assigned duty station?

A

10 hours prior to the end of their assigned duty shift;

If released by the court after 4:30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Probie Packet PER CON

Each probatinary FF shall be rated when they work ____ or more hours.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Probie Packet PER CON

The Company officer shall complete the Per-Con (TD-5) ________.

A

Each Day/Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Probie Packet PER CON

Under Performance Rating Scale; Continual difficulty with composure under stress, should recieve a rating of?

A

Unsatisfactory (U)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Probie Packet PER CON

Under Performance Rating Scale; Can be careless at times, should recieve a rating of?

A

Improvement Needed (I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Probie Packet PER CON

If the Training Packet is lost or damaged beyond repair, notify the ____ immediately to discuss a solution.

A

Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Regional SOGs

What should the Captain do on the second arriving engine on the first alarm? (commercial)

A

Establish command when appropriate

Secure a water supply

Assist the first engine with hose advancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Regional SOGs

Incident Commander’s actions immediately following a “Mayday” should consist of what three actions?

A
  • Acknowledge the MAYDAY and gather a NULCAN
  • Initiate rescue operations
  • Announce the emergency procedure to all personnel on the fire ground
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Regional SOGs

What gas is odorless, colorless and slightly heavier than air?

A

Propane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Regional SOGs

When dealing with a flammable gas leak with fire impinging on storage tanks, rail cars or cargo tanks, what immediate actions must be taken?

A

Provide immediate cooling measures (at least 500 gpm) and evacuate if cooling measures cannot be implemented

Evacuate the area for up to 1 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Regional SOGs

What is the difference between water rescue response 1 and 2?

A

WR1 is victim reproted OUT of the water;

WR2 is victim reported IN the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Regional SOGs

IC should consider rescue vs recovery operations if victim or victims ahve been underwater in excess of _____?

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Regional SOGs

Full structural turnouts with SCBA are the required PPE for flammable gas incidents. IDLH for flammable gasses is ____% of the lower flammable limit.

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Regional SOGs

Out of county request for Initial Attack: May dispatch up to _____ IA strike teams.

A

Five (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Regional SOGs

Once a RIC has made contact with a down firefighter, they should complete a PAC assessment and communicate a ____ report to Command or RIC Group Supervisor.

A

CAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Regional SOGs

For flammable gas leaks outside, operational guidelines are as follows.

A

Isolate a minimum of 100’

Where feasible, control ignition source

Minimum of 1 3/4” line deployed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Regional SOGs

For a flammable gas leak inside the structure with a LEL reading above 10%, you need to?

A

Ventilate the structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Regional SOGs

Transfer of command should include? (4)

A

S - Situation Status

A - Action Taken

R - Resource Assignments

R - Resoucre Needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Regional SOGs

If a second alarm assignment to a seperate incident is dispatched while A11 or B11 are in use, channels ____ or ____ should be utilized

A

A12 / B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Regional SOGs

When are VHF frequencies utilized in place of 800 mhz frequencies?

A

Incident in SRA;

Outside Sac County and as needed to maintain common comms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ECH

At what psi do we test 3” hose?

A

400 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Sec I

Company and Station files shall not be available for public inspection. Permission must be authorized and/or granted by who?

A

Office of the Fire Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

SEC I

Who may request the Fire Chaplaincy?

A

The Incident Commander and/or a Chief Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

SEC I

Hair, styled or combed forward, will be no lower than what?

A

3/4 of an inch above the eyebrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

SEC I

Who does the IA/PSU directly work for?

A

Assistant Chief of HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MOU

If two (2) or more employees were assigned identical scores on the eligible list, the tie shall be broken by what?

A

a coin toss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

SEC I

Which form is designed to provide a record of progress and development on a day to day basis?

A

The Employee Performance Record (F-58)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

SEC I

How often will Batallion Commanders conduct Captains meetings with their Captains?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

SEC I

How many Supression members or personnel are included in the Fair Practices and Accountablilty Committee (FPAC)?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

SEC I

Smoke detectors shoud be installed in the hallways outside sleeping areas, on the ceiling or within ___ of the ceiling.

A

1 foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

SEC I

Supervising Chief Officers will conduct an inspection of the Class A Uniform when?

A

Second Quarter of each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

SEC I

PT clothing may be worn before the hours of ____ and after ____.

A

0900; 1900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

SEC I

If after the ___ day period, the employee has failed to successfully pass the annual physical performance standards test , the employee shall be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to Civil Service Board Rule 12.

A

120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

SEC I

_____ is any informal discussion with an employee designed to assist him/her to fully develop his/her skills and abilities

A

Counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

SEC I

A maximum of __ books may be checked out from the central library

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

SEC I

____ copies of each book placed in the central library will be available for use at the Division of Training at all times. (may not be checked out)

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

SEC I

The content of the Rules and Regulations prescirbe the general _____, _____ and _____ for the personnel of the SFD

A

Conduct

Personal Behavior

Expectations

91
Q

SEC I

_____ and/or _____ must approve any correspondence, other than Fire Service matters necessary to effieciently conduct business of the SFD

A

Fire Admin DC and/or AC

92
Q

SEC I

____ is the willful neglect or refusal of a member to conform to the Rules and Regulations of the Department, or with any lawful order from a ranking officer.

A

Insubordination

93
Q

SEC I

Hair will not touch the ___ while standing straight, head level

A

Collar

94
Q

SEC II

All personnel are mandated to contact the ________ _________ Chief through the chain of command to request permission to communicate with attorneys.

A

Human Resources

95
Q

SEC II

Supervising Chief Officers may grant temporary leaves of absence from duty for reasons of a personal nature or in instances of a personal emergency not to exceed _____ hours.

A

4

96
Q

SEC II

The 24 hour report submission requirements will be adhered to in all cases with the exception of___________, _________ and _________.

A

Saturdays, Sundays and Holidays

97
Q

SEC II

In all cases, the employee’s supervisor shall complete the Report of Industrial Injury Form (_______). The State of California mandates immediate notification (within _______ work days) of industrial accidents.

A

WC001; 5 standard

98
Q

SEC II

The Report of Industrial Injury Form (WC001) will be used to record information pertaining to ______ injuries, illnesses or exposures sustained by on-duty personnel.

A

All

99
Q

SEC II

WORKER’S COMPENSATION FORM DWC-1: The employee and the employee’s immediate supervisor shall complete it within ______ hours of the incident

A

24

100
Q

SEC II

EMPLOYEE NOTIFICATION OF PERSONAL PHYSICIAN (WC003): If you do not wish to pre-designate a treating physician, you must seek treatment at one of the City’s designated facilities for the first ___ days of your claim.

A

30

101
Q

SEC II

RETURN TO DUTY EVALUATION: INJURY, ILLNESS OR MEDICAL CONDITION: Suppression personnel, off line for ______ weeks or longer due to injury, illness or other medical condition, who are subsequently medically released and cleared for full duty will be required to complete in consecutive sequential order the SFD annual physical agility exam in less than 10 minutes.

A

8

102
Q

SEC II

RETURN TO SUPRESSION DUTY EVALATION: Suppression personnel who are off-line for ____ months or greater will be assigned to training division for skills check list.

A

6

103
Q

SEC II

INFORMATION DISSEMINATION AND RETENTION: Memorandums shall be retained for a period of ___ year (unless canceled or reissued) numbered consecutively and filed in a binder, Suppression Officers will use Station File #49.

A

1

104
Q

SEC II

OXYGEN BOTTLES: Do not allow oxygen bottles to become completely discharged. Return to Station 5 when pressure is below _____ psi.

A

500

105
Q

SEC II

CITIZEN’S COMPLAINTS: All complaints shall be investigated and concluded within _______ days.

A

10

106
Q

SEC II

CITIZENS COMPLAINT FILE 41, FORM F-41: It shall be completed in duplicate. The original will be forwarded to the appropriate Assistant Chief through the chain of command. The copy shall be retained by the ______ _______supervisor.

A

First line

107
Q

SEC II

SICK CALL – REPORTING IN: If unable to enter information on Telestaff by 0630 hrs or if entering the information after _____ hrs make contact with the Station Captain for the purpose of notifying the Roll Call Office.

A

0700

108
Q

SEC II

SECURITY – FIRE STATIONS: The Visitor Log shall be maintained. No visitors after ______ hours.

A

2200

109
Q

SEC II

OFFICE SECURITYCity employees do or do not need to sign the visitor report but must be escorted by the party they are requesting.

A

Do not

110
Q

SEC II

HOUSE AND MEAL FUNDS: No member shall be required to or excluded from participating in House Funds. If a member chooses not to participate, they ____ ____ excluded from the use or enjoyment of any item provided by the fund.

A

May be

111
Q

SEC II

MILITARY LEAVE : Personnel on Military Leave are or are not eligible for overtime, (1-1/2 time) duty?

A

Are not

112
Q

SEC II

PRIVATE VEHICLE CITY BUSINESS: In the case of an accident occurring while a private vehicle is being used on city time for city business, the employee’s liability insurance would ________ ______ to satisfy any judgment for losses incurred. If the judgment is in excess of the employee’s liability coverage, then the City’s insurance would be used to cover the excess.

A

First apply

113
Q

SEC II

VISITOR REPORT FORM F-16: A visitor is anyone who _____ ______ ______the business of the City of Sacramento.

A

Does not represent

114
Q

SEC II

The initial critical incident debriefing session will be requested by the ________ upon the recommendation of a Captain and/ or BC, through the DC.

A

AC

115
Q

SEC II

Name tags, insignia of rank, _________, American flag, _______ and the badge are the only authorized items to be displayed on the uniform.

A

Union Pin, EMT Pin

116
Q

SEC II

The following information and procedures will be followed when citizens are injured on city property. (Initial Action Steps)

A

Provide medical assistance

Notify SPD

Notify BC

117
Q

SEC II

(Cal-OSHA)This policy also applies to members of the fire department in case of a death or serious injury or illness while on duty with the additional notification of the ___________ via the City Operator

A

City Safety Office

118
Q

SEC II

________ personnel in quarters shall abide by and held accountable to the rules, policy, and procedures and practices of the department.

A

Off duty

119
Q

SEC II

Upon return from a multiple alarm fire or other unusual incident, the responding officers shall initiate a thorough descriptive report and forward it to the ________.

A

Shift AC

120
Q

SEC II

Captains going off duty shall brief on-coming Captains of: ________, __________, _________ and ________

A

New directives

Apparatus status

Station issues

121
Q

Select city policies

If leave is requested for the birth, adoption or foster care placement of a child of
the employee, leave must be concluded within ____ ____ of the birth or
placement of the child.

A

One year

122
Q

Select city policies

Employees are not required to use paid sick leave when leave is taken
due to the Serious Health Condition of a family member. Employees may use
up to ___ ___ of paid sick leave per year to care for a family member.

A

10 days

123
Q

SCP

Employees who use both Pregnancy Disability Leave and CFRA leave
within a twelve (12) month period in accordance with this policy will have
a right to combined medical pregnancy disability and family care
leaves of absence, including paid and unpaid, not to exceed ______
_____ ______(four calendar months plus twelve weeks) with the right to
return to the same department and classification.

A

Seven (7) months

124
Q

SCP

Conflict of interest form must be submitted within ____ days after the employee
obtains new position.

A

20

125
Q

SCP

Alcohol and drug testing: Covered employees shall not consume alcohol within
___ hours of and accident or until after post-alcohol test has been concluded.
Which ever comes first.

A

8

126
Q

SCP

EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM: How many sessions can an employee
self referral?

A

5 sessions

127
Q

SCP

The purpose of the referral is to prevent the developmentof post-
traumaticstress response by providing a critical incident “debriefing" session
with acounselor, ideally between __ and ___ hours after the incident.

A

8 and 72

128
Q

SCP

What does it cost an employee to use the EAP?

A

The number of free sessions each contract year (March through February)is five
for the employee, five for the employee’s spouse and five in the aggregate
for the employee's dependent children.

129
Q

SCP

Equal opperotunity act. How long does an employee have to report an elleged act.

A

60 days

130
Q

SCP

POLICY STATEMENT ON SEXUAL HARASSMENT: For the purpose of this
policy, sexual harassment is defined as ________ and ________sexual
advances, request for sexual favors, or verbal, visual or physical conduct of a
sexual nature by an employee, supervisor, or manager.
32. How long is a supplemental employment request form eligible for?

A

Unsolicited; Unwelcomed

131
Q

R&R

City manager: The City Manager is the head of the Fire Department and has the
authority to supervise, control, regulate and manage the Department. Such
powers are subject to the provisions of the ______ _______ and to such
ordinances of the City not in conflict with the grants of power made elsewhere
in the Charter to each department of the City government.

A

City Charter

132
Q

SCP

The city requires the use of this type of leave when using FMLA/CFRA?

A

Paid Leave

133
Q

SCP

Covered employees shall not report for duty or remain on duty with any alcohol concentration of?

A

0.02 or higher

134
Q

SCP

When can an employee be tested for a controlled substance during a work shift?

A

Any time

135
Q

SCP

Your role and responsibility as a supervisor include assisting employees to fully meet ________.

A

Job Performance Standards

136
Q

SCP

The ________ is the key to the success of the EAP.

A

Immediate Supervisor

137
Q

SCP

What are the 5 types of EAP referrals?

A

Self, informal, supervisory, formal, Critical Incident

138
Q

SCP

This type of EAP referral is significantly different from the rest because the employee is required to attend.

A

Critical Incident Refferals

139
Q

SCP

Supervisors are encouraged to use the ___________ as a corrective action when there is a work performance problem caused by health, behavioral or personal problems.

A

EAP

140
Q

SCP

Unexplained disappearances by the employee from the work assignment, reduction in efficiency and dependability may indicate an __________.

A

Alcohol abuse problem

141
Q

SCP

If the supervisor is reasonably suspicious that there is a job performance problem due to drugs or alcohol, the employee shall be?

A

Immediately relieved of duty

142
Q

SCP

The Chief and his Command Staff of Assistants the Senior Staff is made up of who?

A

DC of Ops, DC of Support Services, DC of Admin Services, Financial/Support Manager

143
Q

VI

Subject 4 In high rise incidents, the RIC should be located at _______

A

Staging (2 floors below fire floor)

144
Q

VI

Wheels will be _______ when apparatus is being pumped, aerials raised, platforms being operated, or while parked on an incline.

A

Chocked

145
Q

VI

___________ will be on when a vehicle is in motion.

A

Headlights

146
Q

VI

The injury and illness board shall consist of _____ members.

A

Seven (7)

147
Q

VI

The Safety bulletin shall be printed on white 8 1/2” X 11” paper with a _____ striped border

A

Green

148
Q

X

How many types of building collapses are there? And what is the most dangerous type of collapse?

A

4

Cantilever

149
Q

X

How many stages of search and rescue are there?

A

4

150
Q

X

All atmospheric readings shall be recorded on a technical rescue incident worksheet every __ minutes, or any significant change.

A

15

151
Q

EMS

Within __ hours of the incident, the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Coordinator shall, by law, forward the Suspected Child Abuse Report (SS8572) to CPS.

A

36 ??

152
Q

EMS

The Incident Commander (IC) shall designate someone as the _______ _________ ___________ as soon as it is determined there are five (5) or more injuries at an incident.

A

Patient Transport Supervisor

153
Q

EMS

Evidence of a hospice pt receiving care from a physician or RN, who is a member of a hospice care team, within ________ days before death does not require coroner notification.

A

20

154
Q

EMS

Initial triage should take _______or less per pt.

A

30 seconds

155
Q

EMS

In cases of child abuse by a family member, call?

A

CPS

156
Q

EMS

What is the first responsibility of the first arriving engine captain in a possible MCI incident?

A

Ensure that all Pt’s are indentified

157
Q

EMS

Contamination of clothing, equipment and/or unprotected intact skin is defined as what type of exposure?

A

Non-exposure Event 2

158
Q

EMS

Firefighters will not have any blood work drawn at any _______?

A

ER

159
Q

SEC III

What is phase 1 of the civil unrest response?

A

Pre-planning stage

160
Q

SEC III

What is phase 2 of the civil unrest response?

A

Implementation of developed tactical operation plan

161
Q

SEC III

What is phase 3 of the civil unrest response?

A

Commitment of resources

162
Q

SEC III

What is the second Battalion Chief’s assignment on a fire-related incident?

A

Division/Group

163
Q

SEC III

What is the Class A foam percentage used for fire attack?

A

0.2%-0.3%

164
Q

TCH

When positioning the aerial ladder for rescue the optimum approach is ______?

A

Upwind

165
Q

TCH

An angel ______ to the apparatus is the weakest aerial device extension position.

A

Perpendicular

166
Q

TCH

The ladders heavy duty construction allows it to be flown in wind gusts up to what?

A

50 mph

167
Q

TCH

What is the Pierce Velocity ground ladder complement?

A

(2) 35’ext, (2) 24’ext, 20’roof, 18’ roof, 16’ roof, 14’attic

168
Q

TCH

What is the best method to raise aerial to an objective?

A

Raise, rotate and extend

169
Q

TCH

When positioning aerial for rescue, what is the optimal approach and placement of apparatus?

A

Upwind and at the corner

170
Q

TCH

What is the Tap Method?

A

1=stop cut, set brake and look back,

2=start cutting,

3=stop cut and get off the roof

171
Q

TCH

What are the two lengths of hoses on the RIC Pack?

A

10’ low pressure, 5’ high pressue

172
Q

TCH

What are the sizes of the canvas and vinyl salvage covers?

A

12’x14’

173
Q

TCH

What are the three general classifications used for residential; buildings?

A

Balloon Frame,

Platform (Conventional)

and Lightweight

174
Q

TCH

Rafters resting on headers or top plates at lower roof line are a identifying characteristic of what type of roof construction?

A

Conventional

175
Q

TCH

Retro fits of rafter tie plates and concrete bond beams are required on buildings built before?

A

1933

176
Q

TCH

The most common constructed lightweight buildings are?

A

Wood frame,

metal beam

and lightweight concrete

177
Q

TCH

Sacramento Fire Department approaches apartment complexes as commercial occupancies due to what?

A

Size and occupancy load

178
Q

TCH

________ is a push reaction which occurs when the saw is buried in the cut and the cut closes,
pinching the chain along top rails and driving the saw into the operator.

A

LINEAR KICKBACK

179
Q

TCH

What is the max working pressure of the airbags?

A

118 PSI

180
Q

TCH

How long is the cable on the come along?

A

17 FEET

181
Q

TCH

The major difference between Balloon and Platform framing is the elimination of the ______ or
________.

A

RIBBON OR LEDGER

182
Q

TCH

Conventional roof construction pre 1950’s is identified as: _________, __________
or_________.

A

Bridge truss,

lamella truss,

arched truss (bow string and tied)

183
Q

TCH

The primary hazard with panelized roofing is the _____ lumber connected to the purlins and the
plywood decking.

A

2” X 4”

184
Q

TCH

Older high-rises possess unique fire problems what are they?

A

Open stairwells,

Unprotected elevators opening,

Not equipped with fire control systems.

185
Q

TCH

Lightweight construction is commonin buildings built within the last thirty years. Can often be identified by _________ _______ ____ under the eaves.

A

2”x4”rafter tails

186
Q

TCH

Butler buildings are lightweight structures built with ________m beam frames and finished with sheets of corrugated metal, fiberglass, or aluminum.

A

METAL

187
Q

TCH

Conventional flat roofs generally have large dimensional lumber laid out in grid form with ________ or larger rafters laid across joists, or butting into them and held in place by metal hangers. They may also be joined to large dimensional laminate beams.

A

2” X 6”

188
Q

TCH

Modern high-rise buildings rely on the use of steel framing, columns, girders, and ________ and weighs roughly _________ pounds/sq. ft.

A

Q-decking;

8-10 pounds/sq. ft.

189
Q

TCH

__________ is what marks a truck company’s ability to direct and control the fire and to assist interior crews in search for fire and victims.

A

Fire ground awarness

190
Q

TCH

Fire building _________type and ___________characteristics dictate whether a truck company splits.

A

Occupancy; Construction

191
Q

TCH

Factors to consider when taking an “all- in” tactical mode on residential fires include but are not limited to: ___________, ___________, and _________.

A

Number of stories

Basements

Additions

192
Q

TCH

What are the rare occasions in which splitting may be necessary and appropriate in a commercial occupancy?

A

A compartmentalized, multi-story apartment building with fire on the top floor.

193
Q

TCH

Buildings larger than _______ square feet may be considered a commercial building

A

4,000

194
Q

TCH

When going ALL-IN the captain and the tools firefighter should focus their operations on the same floor as the_______.

A

engine company

195
Q

TCH

Regarding commercial response, what three pieces of specific information must the first due truck officer obtain in order to make informed decisions for successful fire ground operations?

A

Extent of forcible entry necessary, location of the fire, and determine whether fire overhead is impinging on roof structures

196
Q

TCH

All-out truck operations on high rise may include what type of operations?

A

Elevated waterways,

master stream,

or exterior rescue operations

197
Q

TCH

Who is responsible for ensuring that blowers are working properly on the ground floor?

A

RAT 1

198
Q

TCH

Where does RAT1 place their blower?

A

Fire attack stairwell three floors below the fire

199
Q

TCH

How often should extensions ladders be serviced?

A

6 months

200
Q

____ heat sensors are present on each ladder section and are located on the inside of the beams.

A

4

201
Q

TCH

Roof operations require a minimum of how many ladders?

A

2 ground ladders

202
Q

TCH

When can you reposition or move a previously placed and unused ground ladder?

A

Impending rescues

203
Q

TCH

Place ladders at ______ (_____) away from _______(_______).

A

Corners (strong areas);

Fire location (Cold side)

204
Q

TCH

What method is ideal for rapid room entry, fire conditions permitting?

A

Head in

205
Q

TCH

Typical LWP Construction has five main components:

A

Beams, Purlins, Rafters, Sheathing, Covering

206
Q

TCH

Ladders should be placed with at least _____ rungs above roof line; more rungs
above is preferable in smoky conditions

A

3

207
Q

TCH

What does “The Rules of Three” consist of?

A

3 door features to size up (frame/door/locking mechanisms), 3 steps for forcing a door
(Gap/Set/Force), Have 3 forcible entry techniques for every one forcible entry challenge

208
Q

TCH

As a rule of thumb, when forcing outward swinging doors begin with the _____ and when
forcing inward swinging doors use the _____.

A

ADZ, Forks

209
Q

TCH

Rope Deployment Person (Anchor)–calls out rings and knots.Shall be
responsible for knowing how deep into the structure the crew is and for keeping
rope taut and at least _____ feet above the floor surface and 10’ outside the
point of entry.

A

2

210
Q

TCH

Rate of inflation on airbags?

A

Over 200mph

211
Q

TCH

What is the advantage of using the spreaders over the ram for dash displacement

A

Technique minimizes obstructing of patient access.

212
Q

TCH

During an auto extrication who is responsible for scene control and safety?

A

Engine company

213
Q

TCH

What two steps are involved with internal stabilization?

A

Place in gear and parking brake

214
Q

TCH

What is the first extrication priority?

A

Patient Care

215
Q

TCH

During the dashboard lift process, what must be done to get maximum lift?

A

Crib under the “A” post

216
Q

TCH

Why do we not cut below or into rocker panel/door sill?

A

It may compromise battery or airbag wiring, fuel lines and brake lines

217
Q

TCH

The regulator flat circular device called a "regulator" that reduces medium gas pressure
(up to 60 psi) to a relatively low level of approximately ___psi.

A

1/3

218
Q

TCH

What PSI is a high pressure natural gas line considered?

A

300 psi

219
Q

TCH

What is the voltage of “low” and “extremely high” voltage?

A

600 and below is low and above 60,000 is high

220
Q

TCH

What is the flammable range and ignition point of natural gas?

A

4-15% in air

990-1100 degrees F

221
Q

WH

Fire hose shall be removed from the apparatus and be inspected, cleaned, and reloaded at least
once every ____________ per the Manual of Operations, Section IV, Subject 4.1, Hose Change
Procedures.

A

3 months

222
Q

WH

Three main differences between the “Patrol” and “Type 6” engines ?

A

2wd vs 4wd,

300gal vs 400gal,

aux pump 130gpm vs 150gpm

223
Q

WH

On a large scale fire the expectation of the host agencies (usually Cal Fire and the USFS)
is have __% of the total number of personnel assigned to the incident be trainees.

A

10