misc questions

Question 1

A disturbance of one’s thinking in which ideas and thought patterns become vague, fragmented, and lack any logical sequences is called? Its when a client’s responses lack logical sequence. They often do not relate to the interviewer’s questions, or one paragraph, sentence, or phrase is not logically connected to those that occur before or after.

Answer 1

Looseness of Association

Question 2

______is when a client believes one event happens as the result of another, with no plausible link for causation. For example: I ate Captain Crunch for breakfast, so it is going to storm today.

Answer 2

Magical thinking

Question 3

_____ are when a client believes coincidences have personal significance ( the idea that everything that happens directly relates to himself/herself). For example: A person thinks every person they pass on the street is talking about them.

Answer 3

Ideas of Reference

Question 4

should emotional abuse of children be reported?

Answer 4

yes! though this depends state to state so if the exam says something about state guidelines choose that one.

Question 5

Sustaining procedures

Answer 5

The Psychosocial Approach looks at an individual’s psychological development in and interaction with their social environment. Sustaining procedures are just anything we do to facilitate the relationship between the social worker and the client. Examples: eye contact, reflective listening, validating, unconditional positive regard, etc.

Question 6

A social worker is meeting with a 25-year-old client who has a cognitive disability. During the session, the client discloses that, during a recent doctor’s visit, she was touched inappropriately by the nurse. The social worker discusses the incident further with the client to obtain more details. What should the social worker do NEXT?
A. Investigate the veracity of the accusation.

B. Suggest the client contact her attorney.

C. Contact the appropriate authorities.

D. Contact the nurse in question to understand what happened.

Answer 6

C. Contact the appropriate authorities.

RATIONALE: C is correct, because it is necessary due to mandated reporting laws for dependent adults that the social worker contact the appropriate authorities to report the allegations. It is because the client has an intellectual disability that this needs to be reported.

Question 7

What is the most effective treatment for Seasonal Affective Disorder?
A. Anti-depressant medication

B. Light therapy

C. Cognitive therapy

D. Solution-focused therapy

Answer 7

light therapy

Question 8

Which medication is MOST likely to be used in treating Schizophrenia?
A. Lithium

B. Zoloft

C. Clozaril

Answer 8

Clozaril

Question 9

A social worker meets with a 23-year-old girl who recently found out she is pregnant. The client reports that she is considering having an abortion but wants to weigh her options. The social worker is against abortion. The social worker’s BEST course of action is to:

A. Use the countertransference to inform the therapy.

B. Disclose the conflict of interest and let the client decide if she wishes to continue therapy.

C. Refer the client to a therapist whose values are more in line with the client’s.

D. Help the client without bias.

Answer 9

RATIONALE: D is the best answer, because the social worker should not let her values interfere with her work with the client. A is not the best course of action as using countertransference in therapy is inappropriate. B would also be inappropriate to do, as we should not be sharing our values with our clients. C is unnecessary, because it shouldn’t matter if a client and social worker’s values are the same for therapy to be effective.

Question 10

call authorities to report abuse when it is happening to:

Answer 10

dependent adults, elders and children… or when someone says they have a plan to hurt someone

Question 11

True or false: we can terminate therapy if a client can no longer afford to pay us andif it is clear that the client is not a danger to self or others.

Answer 11

true

Question 12

physical punishment of children is reportable if:

Answer 12

physical punishment is reportable if it is done with anything other than an open hand OR if it leaves any mark

Question 13

is this an example of assimilation or accommodation: A child who was previously afraid of dogs likes dogs after having a good interaction with one.

Answer 13

accommodation

Question 14

self determination

Answer 14

is super important!!!

Question 15

Which of the following instruments is used to measure the intellectual capacity of a child?

A. MMPI

B. Beery VMI

C. TOWL-3

D. WISC-R

Answer 15

D. WISC-R

RATIONALE: This is a factual recall that requires knowledge of assessment tools. The MMPI is covered in the Psychological Tests quick study in step 3. The BEERY VMI (Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration), helps assess visual-motor skills in children and adults. The TOWL-3 (Test of Written Language) is a diagnostic test of written expression used with children ages 9-11. The WISC-R (Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children) is an intelligence test for children between the ages of 6 and 16.

Question 16

before filing with CPS…

Answer 16

you might want to gather more information if the question stem doesn’t make it super super clear that there is abuse

Question 17

A young mother meets with a social worker in a community agency for financial assistance. The client dropped out of high school to work at a bakery that closed six months ago, leaving the mother unemployed. Although she has been doing some temp work, the mother cannot find steady employment and is concerned that her family will be evicted and left without resources for food. The social worker should FIRST:
A. Determine if the children are being neglected.

B. Inquire as to the employability of the father.
g
C. Complete an eligibility assessment.

D. Enroll the mother in vocational training.

Answer 17

C complete an eligibility assessment
RATIONALE: The client is coming in to apply for financial assistance, and, while there are several issues presented in the question, eviction and food security are the most important. So our FIRST step needs to be completing an eligibility assessment to determine what supports they are eligible to receive. A is inappropriate, since there is no indication in the stem that the children are being neglected; B and D may be appropriate later, but only after the eligibility assessment is completed.

Question 18

When a client deliberately produces or falsifies symptoms of illness for the sole purpose of assuming the sick role, it can BEST be defined as:

A. Factitious Disorder.

B. Delusional Disorder.

C. Malingering.

D. Conversion Disorder.

Answer 18

FACTITIOUS DISORDER RATIONALE: This is a factual recall that requires knowledge of the definition of factitious disorder. Factitious Disorder is not for the purposes of personal gain, rather, the person has an ingrained and unreasonable attachment to the idea of being ill or acting as the caretaker of another ill person (for example, a person acts sick because they like the attention or pity they receive for being in the role of the patient). Delusional Disorder (B) and Conversion Disorder (D) would both be described differently. With malingering (C), the person is intentionally creating or exaggerating physical or psychological problems for personal gain, which we are not seeing in this question (for example, inmates may malinger mental illness to do “easier time”).

Question 19

A hospital social worker is part of a multidisciplinary team that includes medical doctors, nurses, and a psychiatrist. The FIRST task of a multidisciplinary team is to:

A. Identify the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

B. Deliberate, filter out, and commit to an overall objective.

C. Delineate ways in which duties will be carried out.

D. Discuss the methods of communication amongst the team members.

Answer 19

B
RATIONALE: Since a multidisciplinary team includes many different professionals, it’s important that an overall objective is created FIRST so that everyone is working towards a common goal (B). You need to know the objective you’re working towards FIRST before you can assign roles and responsibilities of each team member. The roles and responsibilities assigned will be for the purpose of working towards the identified objective, so you need to know the objective first in order to appropriately assign roles and responsibilities.

Question 20

A community problem was recently brought to the attention of a social worker. The social worker realizes that the general public and law makers have little awareness of this problem. What strategy can BEST facilitate the development of policies or programs to correct the problem?

A Distributing a written petition in the community

B. Working with various forms of media communication

C. Employing the use of client satisfaction surveys

Incorrect
D. Empowering the main players via a training

Answer 20

B

RATIONALE: It’s important to use many forms of media communication in order to create more awareness within the community (B). The question stem states that both the general public and law makers have little awareness about this problem. So using various forms of media communication is going to BEST and most directly bring awareness to the problem. A, C, and D may all play into the strategy, but are not the best options.

Question 21

Obey all the applicable jurisdictional regulations.

Answer 21

is a good answer to choose

Question 22

A social worker at a local prison is providing a treatment group for fathers who are substance abusers. The group is composed of 10 participants who are of various racial and ethnic backgrounds. After the second session, the social worker notices that very few of the inmates are willing to speak during the group. Which statement MOST likely explains the members’ reluctance to talk in the group?

A. It is often the case that prisoners carry an antagonistic view of people from the outside and such attitude can hinder disclosure.

B. Revealing information about oneself in the group goes against the values of the prison culture.

C. Friction amongst various ethnic populations hampers open interaction in a group setting.

Answer 22

B

RATIONALE: Self-disclosure is not a value among inmates and is generally looked down upon. Therefore, B is the MOST likely explanation for the inmates reluctance to talk in a group setting. B is a better answer than C because even if there were a group made up of prisoners who all share the same race and ethnicity, there still could be issues with opening up due to self-disclosure being looked down upon in prison culture.

Question 23

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the systems approach in social work?
A. Series of standards for family intervention

B. Method through which the client can change the client’s situation

C. A way of understanding the client’s issues

D. Relational structure amongst key players

Answer 23

C
RATIONALE: Systems approach can apply to family systems therapy, but is also a much broader concept than that. The systems approach observes and analyzes all of the systems that contribute to a person’s behavior and wellbeing and looks at the ways in which clients react to their environments. Thus, C is the best answer.

Question 23

What type of validity is a measure of how well a particular test correlates with a previously validated measure?

A. Content

B. External

C. Concurrent

Answer 23

C.
RATIONALE: This is a recall question. Concurrent validity is a measure of how well a particular test correlates with a previously validated measure.

Question 24

when the court or judge subpoena’s records these are the rules:

Answer 24

you cannot assert privilege when there is a subpoena from the court/judge
if you think the release could be damaging to your client you can advocate for a limited release/no release of the record
if they deny this then you have to provide everything
if there is no answer option about adovcating for client then provide information immediately
not a situation where you will first notify the client
either releasing the record or advocating on behalf of the client for limited release/confidentiality

Question 25

when you get a subpoena from a lawyer for records these are the rules:

Answer 25

FIRST/NEXT/INITIAL is contact the client to determine their wishes on how to respond to the subpoena
the answer is not contacting the client to warn them of the pending release— you need to be asking them what they want to do
if contacting client is not an option you can assert privilege on their behalf
can also consult with agency’s legal counsel

Question 26

when you get a Subpoena for testimony these are the rules

Answer 26

you cannot assert privilege here— FIRST/NEXT/INITIALLY obtain legal counsel since you cannot refuse request to appear in court
similar to court orders you do not notify the client
correct answer is to consult with legal counsel or show up in court

Question 27

WECHSLER ADULT INTELLIGENCE SCALE (WAIS-IV)

Answer 27

age 16+ intelligence scale, 90-120 minute, 10 core subtest and 5 supplemental subtests
Measures cognitive ability or intelligence reflected in verbal and performance abilities. Tetsts four compoments of intelligence: verbal, comprehension, percepetual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed.

Question 28

RORSCHACH INKBLOT TEST

Answer 28

presents ten abstract inkblot images and asks the subject what he or she sees along with any free association thoughts. Then in the inquiry phase the inkblots are shown again in a specific order where the subjet is asked to note what he or she orignally saw and what makes it look that way.
Measures asssesses personality characteristis and any underlying thought disorders for chidlren and adults

Question 29

THEMATIC APPERCEPTION TEST (TAT)

Answer 29

projective test given in two 60 minute sessions, one day apart, designed for ages 5 and over. Shows the subject a series of ambiguous human figure scenes and asks the subject to make up stories abotu what he or she sees
it measures assesses personality and analyzes the stories to gain insight into the subject’s view of the world and attitudes toward self and others

Question 30

MINNESOTA MULTIPHASIC PERSONALITY INTVENTORY 2RF (MMPI-2RF)

Answer 30

MMPI is 40-90 minute objective test only for adults. Subject answers around 550 true or false statements
it measures assesses psychopathology and personality characteristics. Scales include social introversion, hypocondriasis, depression, hysteria, psychopathic deviate or mesauring ones need for conrol and repsect for societys rules, masculine/feminien behaviors or interests, paranoia, psychasthenia or anxiety levels and tendencies, schizophrenia and hypomania

Question 31

MILLION CLINICAL MULTIAXIAL INVENTORY-IV
MCMI-IV

Answer 31

175 true or false question self report instrument
Assesses DSM 5 related disorders on 15 personality scales and 10 clinical syndrome scales

Question 32

BECK DEPRESSION INVENTORY

Answer 32

21 question self report inventory for adults 13 and older
measures severity of depression and is composed of items relating to symptoms of depression. Hopelessness, irrritability, feeling sof guilt or being punished, thoughts of suicide, phsyical symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain or loss, lack of interest in sex

Question 33

MINI MENTAL STATE EXAM (MMSE)

Answer 33

10 minute questionnaire, time and place, repeating list of words, arithmetic, language use and comprehension, basic motor skills
screens for cognitive impairments

Question 34

Program Development

Answer 34

conduct a needs assessment
Collaborate
collect date
determine key findings
share findings
establish planning team/create a task force
define goals adn objectives of program based on results of needs assessment
objectives are the measurable tasks
develop an action plan and timeline for implementation
implement the action plan/logic model

Question 35

Program Evaluation

Answer 35

identify the goals of the program
describe the characteristics of the organization
types of clients served, interventions and practice techniques, organizational structure
engage in process evaluation
examines how a program was carried out and whether program activities were implemented as intended
define outcomes to be measured
involve key program staff and others who were involved in setting the project’s goals
measure the outcomes of the program
outcomes can be measured with qualitative and quantitative data
report and disseminate findings
findings should be clear and concise and may include sugestions for changes/improvements
positive and negative feedback should both help proganizations improve their programs

Question 36

LOW RISK for harm

Answer 36

limited thoughts about harm
no plan or intent
few risk factors present
INTERVENTION
identify social supports
identify coping mechanisms
provide referrals for clinical contacts
reassess frequently

ACTION PLAN
if client is low to moderate risk
explore alternatives
engage supports
coping mechanisms
establish an event to look forward to (future linkage)
clinical referrals for outpatient services and a 24 hour crisis number

Question 37

MODERATE RISK for harm

Answer 37

ideation with limited plans and no intent (or vice versa)
some risk factors present
INTERVENTIONS
low risk interventions plus:
explore alternatives to violence
remove lethal means to harm self or others
decrease isolation
explore the option of medication

ACTION PLAN
if client is low to moderate risk
explore alternatives
engage supports
coping mechanisms
establish an event to look forward to (future linkage)
clinical referrals for outpatient services and a 24 hour crisis number
if client is high risk for suicide
if client is unable to engage in safety planning then hospitalization should occur
client should not be left alone and an ambulance should be called
if client is at high risk for homicide
ambulance or police called for involuntary hospitalization for violence if a person has a DSM 5 diagnosis (pdychosis, depression, dementia, mania)
clinician has a duty to warn intended victim and police

Question 38

HIGH RISK for harm

Answer 38

specific plan with intent
access to lethal means
many risk factors present
limited social support
impaired self control
INTERVENTION
client should not be left alone
if client cannot engage in safety planning hospitalization should occur
involuntary hospitalization for violence can occur if client is mentally ill
duty to warn

ACTION PLAN
if client is high risk for suicide
if client is unable to engage in safety planning then hospitalization should occur
client should not be left alone and an ambulance should be called
if client is at high risk for homicide
ambulance or police called for involuntary hospitalization for violence if a person has a DSM 5 diagnosis (pdychosis, depression, dementia, mania)
clinician has a duty to warn intended victim and police

Question 39

should SUSPECTED child abuse be reported?

Answer 39

yes!

Question 40

A nonprofit social service agency has a board of directors meeting once a month. When planning the agenda for the upcoming meeting, what is the MOST appropriate topic for the board to discuss?

A. Hiring a new person for a clinical director position

B. The latest workforce performance assessment

C. Recent negative feedback provided by a concerned citizen towards the agency

D. The endorsement of financial matters

Answer 40

D. The endorsement of financial matters

RATIONALE: Boards of directors are accountable for working on broad agency-wide governance issues, which includes financial matters (D). A, B, and C are tasks that would not likely be addressed within a board meeting and could be handled by others within the agency. Other topics that could be addressed by the board of directors include engaging in strategic planning, looking at progress towards broad agency goals (including tracking progress toward goals). If the Executive Director leaves, they would be responsible for hiring that person, but not necessarily clinical staff/a clinical director (the Executive Director generally speaking would be responsible for this).

Question 41

A graphical representation that shows all of the systems at play in an individual’s life can best be described as:

Answer 41

an ecomap

Question 42

When working with a traditional Native American/First Nation client, which of the following means of communication is MOST often misinterpreted by a non-Native/First Nation social worker?

A. Tone of voice

B. Body language

C. Eye contact

Answer 42

C. Eye contact

RATIONALE: This item requires basic knowledge of what literature suggests about traditional First Nation cultures and work in these communities.

Question 43

The main stages of group treatment are

Answer 43

Forming (Preaffiliation), Storming (Power and Control), Norming (Intimacy), Performing (Differentiation), and Adjourning (Separation).

Question 44

A social worker is working on a Native American reservation. Which of the following MUST the social worker follow:

A. State laws

B. Laws of the reservation

C. The social worker’s personal ethics

Answer 44

B. Laws of the reservation

RATIONALE: The correct answer is B. When working on a reservation, the laws of the reservation should be followed. This trumps state law.

Question 44

A social worker is meeting with a couple who has three children. The woman reports that they have been experiencing difficulties in their marriage after their last daughter left for college four months ago. Which of the following interventions BEST addresses the treatment of a family life cycle crisis?

A. Addressing the current crisis at the same time as helping the family get ready for upcoming changes.

B. Helping the couple rebuild appropriate family roles.

C. Talking about the history of the issues brought by the family.

D. Empowering members of the family to find solutions to current problems.

Answer 44

A RATIONALE: The question stem specifically asks about a family life cycle crisis. When treating a family life cycle crisis, you want to address the current crisis AND help the family get ready for upcoming Family Life Cycle changes. Prior to taking any other steps, the social worker needs to help the family address the current crisis (A). This step also helps the family prepare for future changes. B and C would not be taking place until after the current crisis is resolved. D addresses only the current situation and does not take into consideration ongoing changes. The stages of the family life cycle are independence, coupling or marriage, parenting (babies through adolescence), launching adult children, and retirement or senior years. When transitioning from one stage to another, crises can arise. The key thing to know about family life cycle crises is that you want to address the current crisis AND help the family get ready for upcoming family life cycle changes.