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CBE 3 > MIDTERMS > Flashcards

MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Based on animal evolution, which came first?
    A. Bird
    B. Fish
    C. Mammal
    D. Reptile
A

B. Fish

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2
Q
  1. What evolutionary animal is the link between birds and mammals?
    A. Archaeopteryx
    B. Axolotl
    C. Crocodile
    D. Platypus
A

D. Platypus

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3
Q
  1. Which does not belong to the group?
    A. Ascaris
    B. Earthworm
    C. Leech
    D. Sandworm
A

A. Ascaris

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4
Q
  1. What phylum is characterized by bilateral symmetry, hooks and suckers in the head region, flat body, and mostly parasitic?
    A. Annelida
    B. Nematoda
    C. Platyhelminthes
    D. Porifera
A

C. Platyhelminthes

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5
Q
  1. What phylum possesses tentacles with stinging cnidocysts?
    A. Arthropoda
    B. Cnidaria
    C. Echinodermata
    D. Porifera
A

B. Cnidaria

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6
Q
  1. What phylum is described to have radial symmetry, spiny skin, and tube feet?
    A. Arthropoda
    B. Echinodermata
    C. Mollusca
    D. Porifera
A

B. Echinodermata

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7
Q
  1. What class of chordates are called true bony fishes?
    A. Agnatha
    B. Aves
    C. Chondrichthyes
    D. Osteichthyes
A

D. Osteichthyes

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8
Q
  1. What class do seahorses belong to?
    A. Agnatha
    B. Chondrichthyes
    C. Osteichthyes
    D. Mammalia
A

C. Osteichthyes

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9
Q
  1. What compound constitutes the exoskeleton of arthropods?
    A. CaO
    B. CaCO₃
    C. Ca(OH)₂
    D. CaPO₄
A

B. CaCO₃

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10
Q
  1. Which among the following representative species of mollusk does NOT possess a shell?
    A. Clam
    B. Nautilus
    C. Snail
    D. Squid
A

D. Squid

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11
Q
  1. What phylum of plants possesses false roots, false stems, and false leaves?
    A. Bryophyta
    B. Lycophyta
    C. Pterophyta
    D. Sphenophyta
A

A. Bryophyta

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12
Q
  1. Which does NOT belong to the group?
    A. Fern
    B. Hornwort
    C. Liverwort
    D. Moss
A

A. Fern

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13
Q
  1. Based on plant evolution, which came first?
    A. Conifer
    B. Fern
    C. Ginkgo
    D. Mango
A

B. Fern

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14
Q
  1. An unidentified plant has flowers with seven petals. How do you describe it?
    A. Cone-bearing
    B. Dicot
    C. Monocot
    D. Spore-bearing
A

C. Monocot

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15
Q
  1. The following statements are correct about dicot plants EXCEPT:
    A. They have two cotyledons.
    B. They have even numbers of petals.
    C. They possess a fibrous root system.
    D. They have scattered venation patterns.
A

C. They possess a fibrous root system.

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16
Q
  1. What vascular tissue in plants carries water all throughout the plant?
    A. Phloem
    B. Root
    C. Stem
    D. Xylem
A

D. Xylem

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17
Q
  1. What do you call the female reproductive part of a flower?
    A. Anther
    B. Ovary
    C. Pistil
    D. Stamen
A

C. Pistil

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18
Q
  1. Plants were allowed to evolve taller because:
    A. They grew vascular tissues.
    B. They grew woody stems.
    C. They have a tap root system.
    D. They photosynthesize.
A

B. They grew woody stems.

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19
Q
  1. What protects leaves from desiccation?
    A. Cuticle
    B. Hair
    C. Stomata
    D. Wax
A

D. Wax

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20
Q
  1. Lycophytes do not have seeds for reproduction but instead they have:
    A. Basidia
    B. Conifers
    C. Spines
    D. Spores
A

D. Spores

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21
Q
  1. What is the function of the cell membrane?
    A. Acts as a semi-permeable barrier to the outside of the cell. Allows flow of certain molecules in and out as needed.
    B. Only plants have cell membranes, so they are not important for human cells.
    C. Converts glucose to usable energy for the cell.
    D. Brain of the cell.
A

A. Acts as a semi-permeable barrier to the outside of the cell. Allows flow of certain molecules in and out as needed.

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22
Q
  1. Theodore Schwann did which of the following?
    A. He said that plants are not made of cells.
    B. Said that animals aren’t made of cells.
    C. Stated that all plants have cells.
    D. Stated that all animals have cells.
A

D. Stated that all animals have cells.

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23
Q
  1. Rudolph Virchow’s observations helped to disprove what common belief of the time?
    A. Evolution.
    B. Atomic models.
    C. Spontaneous generation.
    D. The existence of molecules.
A

C. Spontaneous generation.

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24
Q
  1. In what way are all cells similar?
    A. They function in a similar way.
    B. They have similar structures.
    C. They make similar products.
    D. They are used by similar organisms.
A

A. They function in a similar way.

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25
Q
  1. What characteristics do all eukaryotic cells share? Select all correct answers.
    A. Cell wall.
    B. Nucleus surrounded by its own membrane.
    C. Chloroplasts.
    D. Other internal membranes.
A

B. Nucleus surrounded by its own membrane

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26
Q
  1. Plant cells are different from animal cells. Select the name of the structures found in plant cells but not in animal cells.
    A. Nucleus.
    B. Plasma membrane.
    C. Endoplasmic reticulum.
    D. Cell wall.
A

D. Cell wall.

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27
Q
  1. Which kingdom is characterized as either autotrophic or heterotrophic?
    A. Animalia.
    B. Fungi.
    C. Plantae.
    D. Protista.
A

D. Protista.

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following terms best differentiates a plant from an animal?
    A. Photosynthetic.
    B. Eukaryotic.
    C. Multicellular.
    D. Reproductive.
A

C. Multicellular.

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following organelle and function pair is mismatched?
    A. Endoplasmic reticulum: molecule trafficking.
    B. Golgi body: molecule packaging.
    C. Lysosome: molecule sorting.
    D. Vacuole: storage.
A

C. Lysosome: molecule sorting.

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30
Q
  1. What structure makes the rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesize proteins?
    A. Nucleolus.
    B. Centriole.
    C. Cytosol.
    D. Ribosome.
A

D. Ribosome.

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31
Q
  1. Which among the following organs would have the least number of smooth endoplasmic reticulum in its cells?
    A. Heart.
    B. Kidney.
    C. Liver.
    D. Spleen.
A

A. Heart.

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32
Q
  1. Which among the following structures is NOT considered an organelle?
    A. Cytoplasm.
    B. Endoplasmic reticulum.
    C. Lysosome.
    D. Vacuole.
A

A. Cytoplasm.

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33
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true about lysosome formation?
    A. It is formed from the Golgi body.
    B. Its formation starts with a vesicle.
    C. It may contain excess lipids.
    D. It produces digestive juices after transforming into a lysosome.
A

C. It may contain excess lipids.

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34
Q
  1. Which best describes why plant cells have bigger vacuoles than animal cells?
    A. Animals can easily move to look for water.
    B. Plants sometimes have limited access to water.
    C. Plants need more water than animals.
    D. Plants have a cell wall.
A

B. Plants sometimes have limited access to water.

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35
Q
  1. What organelle causes autophagy?
    A. Endoplasmic reticulum.
    B. Golgi body.
    C. Lysosome.
    D. Peroxisome.
A

C. Lysosome.

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36
Q
  1. What are the reactants for the chemical reaction of cellular respiration?
    A. Carbon dioxide and water.
    B. Glucose and oxygen.
    C. Oxygen and lactic acid.
    D. Water and glucose.
A

B. Glucose and oxygen.

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37
Q
  1. How many ATP molecules does glycolysis provide a cell?
    A. 2 ATP molecules.
    B. 4 ATP molecules.
    C. 16 ATP molecules.
    D. 32 ATP molecules.
A

A. 2 ATP molecules.

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38
Q
  1. Which is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis?
    A. Carbon.
    B. Carbon dioxide.
    C. Oxygen.
    D. Water.
A

C. Oxygen.

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39
Q
  1. Which best describes light-dependent reactions?
    A. Uses carbon dioxide to synthesize proteins.
    B. First stage of photosynthesis.
    C. Utilizes ATP and NADPH.
    D. Creates ATP and NADPH.
A

C. Utilizes ATP and NADPH.

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40
Q
  1. Why do we perceive chlorophyll as green?
    A. Because it combines blue and yellow light.
    B. Because it reflects green light.
    C. Because it absorbs green light.
    D. Because it refracts green light.
A

B. Because it reflects green light.

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41
Q
  1. Which type of bacteria is characterized by having a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides?
    A. Gram-positive bacteria
    B. Gram-negative bacteria
    C. Mycoplasma
    D. Archaebacteria
A

B. Gram-negative bacteria

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following is mismatched?
    A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek - microscopy
    B. Rudolf Virchow - abiogenesis
    C. Louis Pasteur - pasteurization
    D. Robert Koch - Germ theory of disease
A

B. Rudolf Virchow - abiogenesis

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43
Q
  1. Which of the following microbes are considered as obligate intracellular pathogens?
    A. M. leprae and T. pallidum
    B. M. tuberculosis and viruses
    C. Rickettsias, chlamydias and viruses
    D. Chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae and T. pallidum
A

C. Rickettsias, chlamydias and viruses

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44
Q
  1. One way in which an archaean would differ from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no
    A. DNA in its chromosomes
    B. peptidoglycan in its cell walls
    C. ribosomes in its cytoplasm
    D. RNA in its ribosomes
A

B. peptidoglycan in its cell walls

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45
Q
  1. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain Gram-negative as a result of the differences in the structure of their
    A. Cell wall
    B. Capsule
    C. Cell membrane
    D. Ribosomes
A

A. Cell wall

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about bacterial reproduction is TRUE?
    A. Bacteria reproduce exclusively through sexual reproduction
    B. Binary fission results in genetically identical daughter cells
    C. Bacteria can only reproduce under aerobic conditions
    D. Conjugation is a form of asexual reproduction
A

B. Binary fission results in genetically identical daughter cells

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A. Membrane - DNA synthesis
    B. Pili - reproduction
    C. Glycocalyx - adherence
    D. Cell wall - protection
A

C. Glycocalyx - adherence

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48
Q
  1. A prominent difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the
    A. larger size of prokaryotes
    B. lack of pigmentation in eukaryotes
    C. presence of a nucleus in eukaryotes
    D. presence of cell wall in eukaryotes
A

C. presence of a nucleus in eukaryotes

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49
Q
  1. Which phase of bacterial growth curve is characterized by a period of slow growth as bacteria adapt to their new environment?
    A. Log phase
    B. Lag phase
    C. Stationary phase
    D. Death phase
A

B. Lag phase

50
Q
  1. What distinguishes a lytic cycle from a lysogenic cycle in bacteriophages?
    A. The lytic cycle results in the destruction of the host cell
    B. The lysogenic cycle involves immediate replication of the virus
    C. The lytic cycle integrates viral DNA into the host genome
    D. The lysogenic cycle produces new virions immediately
A

A. The lytic cycle results in the destruction of the host cell

51
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites is known for its complex life cycle involving both sexual and asexual reproduction?
    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Plasmodium vivax
    C. Trichomonas vaginalis
    D. Enterobius vermicularis
A

B. Plasmodium vivax

52
Q
  1. How does Plasmodium falciparum cause infection in humans?
    A. by forming cysts in the liver
    B. by invading red blood cells
    C. by attaching to the intestinal wall
    D. by releasing toxins in the bloodstream
A

B. by invading red blood cells

53
Q
  1. Which stage of the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is infectious to humans?
    A. tachyzoite
    B. bradyzoite
    C. sporozoite
    D. oocyst
A

D. oocyst

54
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites is transmitted by the tsetse fly?
    A. Leishmania donovani
    B. Trypanosoma brucei
    C. Plasmodium vivax
    D. Schistosoma mansoni
A

B. Trypanosoma brucei

55
Q
  1. The following are examples of ectoparasites except
    A. helminths
    B. lice
    C. mites
    D. ticks
A

A. helminths

56
Q
  1. The causative agent of amoebiasis is
    A. Cryptosporidium parvum
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Balantidium coli
    D. Giardia lamblia
A

C. Balantidium coli

57
Q
  1. The motile, feeding, and dividing stage in the protozoal life cycle is the
    A. cyst
    B. oocyst
    C. spore
    D. trophozoite
A

D. trophozoite

58
Q
  1. What is the common name for Enterobius vermicularis?
    A. Hookworm
    B. Pinworm
    C. Roundworm
    D. Tapeworm
A

B. Pinworm

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of Ascaris lumbricoides?
    A. It is a protozoan
    B. It is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
    C. It causes malaria
    D. It is transmitted by mosquito bites
A

B. It is transmitted by ingestion of eggs

60
Q
  1. Humans develop malaria after the injection of Plasmodium sporozoites into the bloodstream by an infected female Anopheles mosquito when it takes a bloody meal.
    A. Sporozoites
    B. Male and female gametocytes
    C. Schizonts
    D. Trophozoites
A

C. Schizonts

61
Q
  1. What is the main function of telomeres at the ends of chromosomes?
    A. To facilitate chromosomal crossing over during meiosis
    B. To encode genes for protein synthesis
    C. To prevent chromosome degradation and fusion
    D. To initiate DNA replication
A

A. To facilitate chromosomal crossing over during meiosis

62
Q
  1. Which chromosomal disorder is characterized by a single X chromosome in females?
    A. Klinefelter syndrome
    B. Down syndrome
    C. Turner syndrome
    D. Patau syndrome
A

A. Klinefelter syndrome

63
Q
  1. What function does the enzyme helicase serve during the DNA replication process?
    A. Adds nucleotide to the growing DNA strand
    B. Unwinds the DNA double helix
    C. Seals nick between Okazaki fragments
    D. Synthesizes RNA primers
A

B. Unwinds the DNA double helix

64
Q
  1. Which amino acid is specified by the start codon in mRNA translation?
    A. Glycine
    B. Methionine
    C. Leucine
    D. Serine
A

B. Methionine

65
Q
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the RNA primer during DNA replication?
    A. DNA polymerase I
    B. DNA polymerase III
    C. Primase
    D. Ligase
A

C. Primase

66
Q
  1. Which RNA molecule is involved in the initiation of translation by binding to the ribosomes and mRNA?
    A. mRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. rRNA
    D. miRNA
A

B. tRNA

67
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a dihybrid cross?
    A. A cross between two individuals that are homozygous for a single trait
    B. A cross between two individuals that are homozygous for two traits
    C. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for a single trait
    D. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits
A

D. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits

68
Q
  1. In Mendelian genetics, what is the expected phenotypic ratio for a monohybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals?
    A. 1:1
    B. 3:1
    C. 1:2:1
    D. 9:3:3:1
A

B. 3:1

69
Q
  1. What is the principle of independent assortment?
    A. Genes for different traits assort independently of each other during gamete formation
    B. Alleles segregate during the formation of gametes
    C. Each organism has two alleles for each trait
    D. One allele is dominant over the other
A

A. Genes for different traits assort independently of each other during gamete formation

70
Q
  1. Which of the following represent a test cross?
    A. Crossing two homozygous individuals
    B. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual
    C. Crossing two heterozygous individuals
    D. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous dominant individual
A

B. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual

71
Q
  1. What does it mean if an allele is dominant?
    A. It is more common in the population
    B. It masks the expression of a recessive allele in a heterozygous individual
    C. It is expressed only in homozygous individuals
    D. It is located on the X chromosome
A

B. It masks the expression of a recessive allele in a heterozygous individual

72
Q
  1. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygote:
    A. Resembles the dominant homozygote
    B. Resembles the recessive homozygote
    C. Is intermediate between the two homozygotes
    D. Is a blend of the two homozygotes
A

C. Is intermediate between the two homozygotes

73
Q
  1. What is the term when both alleles in a heterozygous organism are fully expressed as in human blood type AB?
    A. Codominance
    B. Incomplete dominance
    C. Epistasis
    D. Polygenic inheritance
A

A. Codominance

74
Q
  1. In rabbits, the gene coat color has four alleles: C (full color), ch (chinchilla), c* (Himalayan), and c (albino). The dominance hierarchy is C > ch > c* > c. If a rabbit with genotype Cch is crossed with a rabbit with genotype cc*, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 4 Full color
    B. 2 Full color: 2 Chinchilla
    C. 2 Chinchilla: 1 Himalayan: 1 Albino
    D. 4 Chinchilla
A

B. 2 Full color: 2 Chinchilla

75
Q
  1. In mice, coat color is determined by two genes: Gene A and Gene B. The A allele produces black fur, while the a allele produces brown fur. Gene B, when present in the homozygous recessive form (bb), causes albinism regardless of the alleles at gene A. If two heterozygous mice (AaBb) are crossed, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 9 Black: 3 Brown: 4 Albino
    B. 9 Black: 4 Brown: 4 Albino
    C. 9 Albino: 3 Black: 4 Brown
    D. 9 Brown: 3 Black: 4 Albino
A

A. 9 Black: 3 Brown: 4 Albino

76
Q
  1. Which of the following equations represents the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a population with two alleles?
    A. p + q = 1
    B. p² + q² = 1
    C. 2p + 2q = 1
    D. p² + 2pq + q² = 1
A

D. p² + 2pq + q² = 1

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
    A. It is evolving rapidly
    B. It is experiencing strong natural selection
    C. There is a high rate of mutation
    D. Allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation
A

D. Allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation

78
Q
  1. If the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.3 in a large, randomly mating population, what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
    A. 0.09
    B. 0.21
    C. 0.42
    D. 0.49
A

C. 0.42

79
Q
  1. In a population of 1000 individuals, the frequency of allele A is 0.6 and allele a is 0.4. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would be expected to be homozygous dominant?
    A. 160
    B. 240
    C. 360
    D. 600
A

C. 360

80
Q
  1. Which of the following phenomena can introduce new genetic variation into a population?
    A. Mutation
    B. Genetic drift
    C. Natural selection
    D. Inbreeding
A

A. Mutation

81
Q
  1. Which of the following terms describes the body’s ability to maintain its normal state?
    A. Homeostasis
    B. Catabolism
    C. Tolerance
    D. Anabolism
A

A. Homeostasis

82
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the human body’s defense mechanism against environmental bacteria?
    A. Saliva
    B. Hair in the nose
    C. Mucous membranes
    D. Tears
A

C. Mucous membranes

83
Q
  1. Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?
    A. Basophil
    B. Lymphocyte
    C. Monocyte
    D. Erythrocyte
A

D. Erythrocyte

84
Q
  1. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
    A. Adipose
    B. Cartilage
    C. Epithelial
    D. Muscle
A

B. Cartilage

85
Q
  1. Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs?
    A. Aorta
    B. Esophagus
    C. Heart
    D. Trachea
A

D. Trachea

86
Q
  1. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?
    A. Abdominal
    B. Cranial
    C. Pleural
    D. Spinal
A

B. Cranial

87
Q
  1. Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?
    A. Alveoli
    B. Epiglottis
    C. Larynx
    D. Uvula
A

B. Epiglottis

88
Q
  1. Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?
    A. Appendix
    B. Gallbladder
    C. Pancreas
    D. Spleen
A

D. Spleen

89
Q
  1. Which of the following anatomical regions of the abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?
    A. Epigastric
    B. Hypochondriac
    C. Lumbar
    D. Umbilical
A

B. Hypochondriac

90
Q
  1. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?
    A. Abdominal and pelvic
    B. Dorsal and ventral
    C. Pericardial and pleural
    D. Thoracic and abdominal
A

D. Thoracic and abdominal

91
Q
  1. Which of the following substances would you expect to have the highest melting point based on its intermolecular forces?
    A. Water (H₂O)
    B. Ammonia (NH₃)
    C. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
    D. Methane (CH₄)
A

A. Water (H₂O)

92
Q
  1. A solution of acetic acid in water conducts electricity poorly. What does this imply about the acetic acid molecules?
    A. They are polar.
    B. They completely dissociate in water.
    C. They only partially dissociate in water.
    D. They are nonpolar.
A

C. They only partially dissociate in water.

93
Q
  1. Two liquids, ethanol and hexane, are mixed. They separate into layers rather than forming a solution. What is the most likely reason?
    A. Ethanol and hexane both have strong hydrogen bonds.
    B. Ethanol is polar and hexane is nonpolar.
    C. Ethanol and hexane have similar molecular weights.
    D. Hexane has a higher boiling point than ethanol.
A

B. Ethanol is polar and hexane is nonpolar.

94
Q
  1. A scientist needs to separate a mixture of oil and water. Which of the following methods would work best?
    A. Decantation
    B. Filtration
    C. Chromatography
    D. Distillation
A

A. Decantation

95
Q
  1. A molecule of hydrogen chloride (HCl) forms a dipole moment due to:
    A. Its ionic bond.
    B. Equal sharing of electrons.
    C. A difference in electronegativity between H and Cl.
    D. The hydrogen bond within the molecule.
A

C. A difference in electronegativity between H and Cl.

96
Q
  1. Which of the following would have the strongest London dispersion forces?
    A. Methane (CH₄)
    B. Propane (C₃H₈)
    C. Ethane (C₂H₆)
    D. Octane (C₈H₁₈)
A

D. Octane (C₈H₁₈)

97
Q
  1. You are given two substances: one has a high boiling point, and the other has a low boiling point. Which type of intermolecular forces would be stronger in the high-boiling-point substance?
    A. Hydrogen bonds
    B. London dispersion forces
    C. Ionic bonds
    D. Dipole-dipole interactions
A

A. Hydrogen bonds

98
Q
  1. A chemist observes that compound X easily vaporizes and is soluble in water. Which of the following is most likely true about the bonding in compound X?
    A. It has polar covalent bonding.
    B. It has ionic bonding.
    C. It has metallic bonding.
    D. It has nonpolar covalent bonding.
A

A. It has polar covalent bonding.

99
Q
  1. When heating a substance, you notice it melts at a very high temperature. This characteristic most likely indicates which type of bonding?
    A. Hydrogen bonding
    B. Covalent bonding
    C. Metallic bonding
    D. Ionic bonding
A

D. Ionic bonding

100
Q
  1. A certain molecule, when placed in water, forms an electrolyte solution. This molecule likely contains:
    A. Ionic bonds
    B. Polar covalent bonds
    C. Metallic bonds
    D. Nonpolar covalent bonds
A

A. Ionic bonds

101
Q
  1. Which of the following is generally true about the solubility of organic compounds?
    A. Most are highly soluble in water.
    B. Nonpolar organic compounds are soluble in polar solvents.
    C. Nonpolar organic compounds are soluble in nonpolar solvents.
    D. All organic compounds are insoluble in water.
A

C. Nonpolar organic compounds are soluble in nonpolar solvents.

102
Q
  1. Why do organic compounds generally have lower melting and boiling points compared to inorganic compounds?
    A. They have ionic bonds.
    B. They are covalent and have weaker intermolecular forces.
    C. They are composed of heavier atoms.
    D. They have metallic bonds.
A

B. They are covalent and have weaker intermolecular forces.

103
Q
  1. As the carbon chain length in alkanes increases, how does the boiling point change?
    A. It decreases.
    B. It remains the same.
    C. It increases.
    D. It fluctuates randomly.
A

C. It increases.

104
Q
  1. Among the following, which has the highest melting point?
    A. Propane (C₃H₈)
    B. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH)
    C. Octane (C₈H₁₈)
    D. Acetone (C₃H₆O)
A

B. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH)

105
Q
  1. Why do alcohols generally have higher boiling points than alkanes with similar molecular weights?
    A. Alcohols have hydrogen bonding.
    B. Alkanes are heavier.
    C. Alcohols have ionic bonds.
    D. Alkanes have hydrogen bonding.
A

A. Alcohols have hydrogen bonding.

106
Q
  1. A carboxylic acid with a long carbon chain has a higher boiling point compared to a carboxylic acid with a short chain due to:
    A. More hydrogen bonding.
    B. Increased London dispersion forces.
    C. Decreased dipole-dipole interactions.
    D. Fewer hydrogen bonds.
A

B. Increased London dispersion forces.

107
Q
  1. In the combustion of an organic compound, the primary products are usually:
    A. Carbon monoxide and water.
    B. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
    C. Carbon dioxide and water.
    D. Methane and oxygen.
A

C. Carbon dioxide and water.

108
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions is typical for alkanes?
    A. Substitution
    B. Elimination
    C. Addition
    D. Condensation
A

A. Substitution

109
Q
  1. When an alkene reacts with bromine (Br₂), the solution changes color. What type of reaction has occurred?
    A. Addition
    B. Substitution
    C. Elimination
    D. Oxidation
A

B. Substitution

110
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions is typical for alkenes and alkynes?
    A. Substitution
    B. Elimination
    C. Addition
    D. Condensation
A

C. Addition

111
Q
  1. All of the following monosaccharides are aldohexoses EXCEPT:
    A. Altrose
    B, Idose
    C. Talose
    D. Sorbose
A

D. Sorbose

112
Q
  1. D-allose is an aldohexose with the structure at the right side. Which of the following aldohexose is an epimer of D-allose at the fourth carbon (C4)?
    A. D-glucose
    B. D-galactose
    C. D-gulose
A

A. D-glucose

113
Q
  1. How many stereoisomers can be created with 6 carbons with four chiral carbons?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 16
A

D. 16

114
Q
  1. D-glucose is a simple sugar needed by the biological pathway called glycolysis. The chain structure of D-glucose is given at the side. Which among the given Haworth model can be created based on its chain structure?
    A.
    B.
    C.
    D.
A

C.

115
Q
  1. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY explains why monosaccharides are extremely soluble in water despite their high molecular weights?
    A. Long chain of carbons are unsaturated, making monosaccharides hydrophilic.
    B. Presence of large numbers of hydroxyl group (-OH) group enables hydrogen bonding to occur.
    C. The carbonyl group has a carbonyl group (-C=O) in both aldose and ketose that can be hydrolyzed.
    D. The aldehyde and ketone group attached to the carbon can accept and donate electrons to CH₂OH and from the water molecule.
A

B. Presence of large numbers of hydroxyl group (-OH) group enables hydrogen bonding to occur.

116
Q
  1. Given at the right side is the structure of D-fructose. Which of the following is its enantiomer?
    A.
    B.
    C.
A

C.

117
Q
  1. Evaluate the given disaccharide structures labeled 1 and 2. Which between the two is the CORRECT structure of maltose?
    A. Sugar 1; because the monomeric carbons are both glucose bonded by β(1-4) glycosidic bond.
    B. Sugar 2; because the monomeric carbons are both glucose bonded by β(1-4) glycosidic bond.
    C. Sugar 1; because the monomeric carbons are both glucose bonded by α(1-4) glycosidic bond.
    D. Sugar 2; because the monomeric carbons are both glucose bonded by α(1-4) glycosidic bond.
A

C. Sugar 1; because the monomeric carbons are both glucose bonded by α(1-4) glycosidic bond.

118
Q
  1. Which statement explains the formation of polysaccharides?
    A. Formation of peptide bonds is employed to attach monosaccharide units.
    B. Hydrolysis of monosaccharide units is carried out to create hydrogen bonds.
    C. Monosaccharide units undergo hydrolysis process in order to form glycosidic bonds.
    D. Glycosidic bonds are formed between monosaccharide units after dehydration reaction.
A

B. Hydrolysis of monosaccharide units is carried out to create hydrogen bonds.

119
Q
  1. Cellular respiration is a biological pathway carried out in order to oxidize glucose in the production of ATP. Which function of carbohydrates is carried out by glucose?
    A. Energy storage
    B. Energy production
    C. Building macromolecules
    D. Lipid Metabolism Assistance
A

B. Energy production

120
Q
  1. Excess glucose is deposited in the muscle and liver to support body functions. Which function is represented in this situation?
    A. Energy storage
    B. Energy production
    C. Building macromolecules
    D. Lipid Metabolism Assistance
A

A. Energy storage

CBE 3 (9 decks)

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