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CBE 3 > GENETICS > Flashcards

GENETICS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the term for a chromosomal abnormality where a segment of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to another organism?
    A. Inversion
    B. Duplication
    C. Translocation
    D. Deletion
A

C. Translocation

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2
Q
  1. Which syndrome is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 18?
    A. Turner syndrome
    B. Edwards syndrome
    C. Down syndrome
    D. Patau syndrome
A

B. Edwards syndrome

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3
Q
  1. Which chromosomal disorder is characterized by a single X chromosome in females?
    A. Turner syndrome
    B. Klinefelter syndrome
    C. Down syndrome
    D. Patau syndrome
A

A. Turner syndrome

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4
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
    A. To replicate DNA
    B. To condense chromatin into chromosomes
    C. To attach to kinetochores and pull sister chromatids apart
    D. D. To reform the nuclear envelope
A

C. To attach to kinetochores and pull sister chromatids apart

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5
Q
  1. What is the role of the enzyme helicase in DNA replication?
    A. Adds nucleotide to the growing DNA strand
    B. Unwinds the DNA double helix
    C. Seals nick between Okazaki fragments
    D. Synthesizes RNA primers
A

B. Unwinds the DNA double helix

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6
Q
  1. Which amino acid is specified by the start codon in mRNA translation?
    A. Glycine
    B. Methionine
    C. Leusine
    D. Serine
A

B. Methionine

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7
Q
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing the RNA primer during DNA replication?
    A. DNA polymerase I
    B. DNA polymerase III
    C. Primase
    D. Ligase
A

C. Primase

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8
Q
  1. Which molecular technique allows amplification of specific DNA sequences?
    A. Gel electrophoresis
    B. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
    C. Southern blotting
    D. Northern blotting
A

B. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

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9
Q
  1. What is the role of restriction enzymes in molecular biology?
    A. Unwinding DNA
    B. Synthesizing RNA primers
    C. Cutting DNA at specific sequences
    D. Sealing nicks in the DNA backbone
A

C. Cutting DNA at specific sequences

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10
Q
  1. Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments based on size?
    A. PCR
    B. Gel electrophoresis
    C. Western blotting
    D. DNA sequencing
A

B. Gel electrophoresis

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11
Q
  1. What does the term “epigenetics” refer to?
    A. Changes in the DNA sequence
    B. Changes in gene expression without altering the DNA sequence
    C. Inheritance of traits through RNA
    D. Mutations in mitochondrial DNA
A

B. Changes in gene expression without altering the DNA sequence

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12
Q
  1. Which RNA molecule is involved in the initiation of translation by binding to the ribosome and mRNA?
    A. mRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. rRNA
    D. miRNA
A

B. tRNA

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13
Q
  1. In Mendelian genetics, what does the term “segregation” refer to?
    A. The separation of alleles during gamete formation
    B. The combination of alleles during fertilization
    C. The inheritance of traits in pairs
    D. The dominance of one allele over another
A

A. The separation of alleles during gamete formation

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a dihybrid cross?
    A. A cross between two individuals that are homozygous for a single trait
    B. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for a single trait
    C. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits
    D. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits
A

C. A cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits

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15
Q
  1. In Mendelian genetics, what is expected phenotypic ratio for a monohybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals?
    A. 1:1
    B. 3:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:2:1
A

B. 3:1

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16
Q
  1. What is the principle of independent assortment?
    A. Genes for different traits assort independently of each other during gamete formation
    B. Alleles segregate during the formation of gametes
    C. Each organism has two alleles for each trait
    D. One allele is dominant over the other
A

A. Genes for different traits assort independently of each other during gamete formation

17
Q
  1. In a dihybrid cross, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 3:1
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:1
A

C. 9:3:3:1

18
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a test cross?
    A. Crossing two homozygous individuals
    B. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual
    C. Crossing two heterozygous individuals
    D. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous dominant individual
A

B. Crossing an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual

19
Q
  1. What does it mean if an allele is dominant?
    A. It is more common in the population
    B. It masks the expression of a recessive allele in a heterozygous individual
    C. It is expressed only in homozygous individuals
    D. It is located on the X chromosome
A

B. It masks the expression of a recessive allele in a heterozygous individual

20
Q
  1. In a cross between two individuals heterozygous for a single trait, what proportion of the offspring is expected to be homozygous recessive?
    A. 1/4
    B. 1/2
    C. 3/4
    D. 1/3
A

A. 1/4

21
Q
  1. What is the expected genotypic ratio of the F2 generation in a monohybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals?
    A. 1:1
    B. 3:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:2:1
A

D. 1:2:1

22
Q
  1. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygote:
    A. resembles the dominant homozygote
    B. resembles the recessive homozygote
    C. is intermediate between the two homozygotes
    D. is a blend of the two homozygotes
A

C. is intermediate between the two homozygotes

23
Q
  1. What is the term when both alleles in a heterozygous organism are fully expressed, as in human blood type AB?
    A. Codominance
    B. Incomplete dominance
    C. Epistasis
    D. Polygenic inheritance
A

A. Codominance

24
Q
  1. In which type of genetic interaction does the expression of one gene mask the effect of another gene at different locus?
    A. Codominance
    B. Incomplete dominance
    C. Epistasis
    D. Polygenic inheritance
A

C. Epistasis

25
Q
  1. Which pattern of inheritance is characterized by a continuous range of phenotypes such as skin color?
    A. Codominance
    B. Incomplete dominance
    C. Polygenic inheritance
    D. Epistasis
A

C. Polygenic inheritance

26
Q
  1. What term describes the inheritance pattern of traits controlled by genes on the sex chromosome?
    A. Autosomal dominant
    B. Autosomal recessive
    C. Sex-linked
    D. Polygenic
A

C. Sex-linked

27
Q
  1. In rabbits, the gene coat color has four alleles: C (full color), cch (chinchilla), ch (Himalayan), and c (albino). The dominance hierarchy is C > cch > ch > c. If a rabbit with genotype Ccch is crossed with a rabbit with genotype cchch, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 4 Full colors
    B. 2 Full colors: 2 Chinchilla
    C. 2 Chinchilla: 1 Himalayan: 1 Albino
    D. 4 Chinchilla
A

B. 2 Full colors: 2 Chinchilla

28
Q
  1. In a population of birds, feather color is controlled by three alleles: B (blue), bw (white), and b (black). The dominance hierarchy is B > b > bw. If two birds with genotype Bbw are crossed, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 1 Blue: 2 Black: 1 White
    B. 2 Blue: 1 Black: 1 White
    C. 3 Blue: 1 White
    D. 1 Blue: 1 Black: 2 White
A

C. 3 Blue: 1 White

29
Q
  1. In mice, coat color is determined by two genes: Gene A and Gene B. The A allele produces black fur, while the a allele produces brown fur. Gene B, when present in the homozygous recessive form (bb), causes albinism regardless of the alleles at gene A. If two heterozygous mice (AaBb) are crossed, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
    A. 9 Black: 3 Brown: 4 Albino
    B. 9 Black: 4 Brown: 3 Albino
    C. 9 Albino: 3 Black: 4 Brown
    D. 9 Brown: 3 Black: 4 Albino
A

A. 9 Black: 3 Brown: 4 Albino

30
Q
  1. In a population genetics context, what does inbreeding generally lead to:
    A. Increased genetic diversity
    B. Reduced genetic diversity
    C. Increased frequency of heterozygotes
    D. Increased mutation rate
A

B. Reduced genetic diversity

31
Q
  1. Which of the following equations represents the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a population with two alleles?
    A. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
    B. p + q = 1
    C. p2 + q2 = 1
    D. 2p + 2q = 1
A

A. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

32
Q
  1. If the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.3 in a large, randomly mating population, what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
    A. 0.09
    B. 0.21
    C. 0.42
    D. 0.49
A

C. 0.42

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
    A. It is evolving rapidly.
    B. Allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation.
    C. It is experiencing strong natural selection.
    D. There is a high rate of mutation.
A

B. Allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation.

34
Q
  1. In a population of 1000 individuals, the frequency of allele A is 0.6 and allele a is 0.4. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would be expected to be homozygous dominant?
    A. 240
    B. 360
    C. 160
    D. 600
A

B. 360

35
Q
  1. Which of the following processes is most likely to increase the fixation of beneficial alleles in a population?
    A. Genetic drift
    B. Gene flow
    C. Mutation
    D. Natural selection
A

D. Natural selection

CBE 3 (9 decks)

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