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CBE 3 > MICROPARA > Flashcards

MICROPARA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which type of bacteria can perform photosynthesis?
    A. Clostridium
    B. Cyanobacteria
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Staphylococcus
A

B. Cyanobacteria

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2
Q
  1. Antibiotics are effective against which of the following?
    A. Bacteria
    B. Fungi
    C. Protists
    D. Viruses
A

A. Bacteria

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is mismatched?
    A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek – microscopy
    B. Rudolf Virchow – abiogenesis
    C. Louis Pasteur – pasteurization
    D. Robert Koch – Germ theory of disease
A

B. Rudolf Virchow – abiogenesis

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following are even smaller than viruses?
    A. Chlamydias
    B. Rickettsias
    C. Cyanobacteria
    D. Prions and viroids
A

D. Prions and viroids

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following microbes are considered obligate intracellular pathogens?
    A. M. leprae and T. pallidum
    B. M. tuberculosis and viruses
    C. Rickettsias, chlamydias and viruses
    D. Chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae and T. pallidum
A

C. Rickettsias, chlamydias and viruses

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6
Q
  1. Which type of bacteria is characterized by having a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides?
    A. Gram-positive bacteria
    B. Gram-negative bacteria
    C. Mycoplasma
    D. Archaebacteria
A

B. Gram-negative bacteria

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7
Q
  1. One way in which an archaean would differ from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no ______.
    A. DNA in its chromosomes
    B. peptidoglycan in its cell walls
    C. ribosomes in its cytoplasm
A

B. peptidoglycan in its cell walls

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8
Q
  1. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive, and others stain Gram-negative as a result of the differences in the structure of their ____.
    A. cell wall
    B. capsule
    C. cell membrane
    D. ribosomes
A

A. cell wall

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9
Q
  1. The three-domain system of classification is based on the differences in which of the following molecules?
    A. mRNA
    B. peptidoglycan
    C. rRNA
    D. tRNA
A

C. rRNA

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about bacterial reproduction is TRUE?
    A. bacteria reproduce exclusively through sexual reproduction
    B. binary fission results in genetically identical daughter cells
    C. bacteria can only reproduce under aerobic conditions
    D. conjugation is a form of asexual reproduction.
A

B. binary fission results in genetically identical daughter cells

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A. Pili – reproduction
    B. Glycocalyx – adherence
    C. Membrane – DNA synthesis
    D. Cell wall – protection
A

C. Membrane – DNA synthesis

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12
Q
  1. A prominent difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the
    A. larger size of prokaryotes
    B. lack of pigmentation in eukaryotes
    C. presence of a nucleus in eukaryotes
    D. presence of a cell wall in eukaryotes
A

C. presence of a nucleus in eukaryotes

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13
Q
  1. Some bacteria form a thick-walled ____ in response to poor nutrient conditions.
    A. Endospore
    B. Capsule
    C. Pilus
    D. Sheath
A

A. Endospore

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14
Q
  1. What term best describes bacteria that require oxygen for growth and survival?
    A. Anaerobes
    B. facultative anaerobes
    C. obligate aerobes
    D. microaerophiles
A

C. obligate aerobes

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15
Q
  1. Which phase of the bacterial growth curve is characterized by a period of slow growth as bacteria adapt to their new environment?
    A. log phase
    B. lag phase
    C. stationary phase
    D. death phase
A

B. lag phase

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16
Q
  1. Organisms that live in and around hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are
    A. acidophilic, psychrophilic, and halophilic
    B. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic
    C. halophilic, psychrophilic, and piezophilic
    D. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophilic
A

D. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophilic

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17
Q
  1. The process of bacteria taking up foreign DNA from their environment is called ______.
    A. Transduction
    B. Conjugation
    C. Transformation
    D. binary fission
A

C. Transformation

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18
Q
  1. What do bacteria and archaea have in common?
    A. They have a nucleus
    B. They are single-celled
    C. Their ribosomes are very similar
    D. They have a cell wall with peptidoglycan
A

B. They are single-celled

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19
Q
  1. In which phase do the number of dying cells begin to exceed the number of new cells being produced?
    A. Lag phase
    B. Log phase
    C. Stationary phase
    D. Death phase
A

D. Death phase

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20
Q
  1. The bacteria that cause tetanus can be killed by prolonged heating at temperatures considerably above boiling. This suggests that these bacteria
    A. are autotrophic
    B. produce endospores
    C. secrete endospores
    D. have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
A

B. produce endospores

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21
Q
  1. What typically triggers the transition from the log phase to the stationary phase in bacterial growth?
    A. optimal temperature
    B. nutrient depletion
    C. increase in temperature
    D. Oxygen availability
A

B. nutrient depletion

22
Q
  1. Sterilization can be accomplished by the use of
    A. an autoclave
    B. antiseptics
    C. medical aseptic technique
    D. pasteurization
A

A. an autoclave

23
Q
  1. Pasteurization is
    A. The use of heat to sterilize food products
    B. The use of heat to reduce the number of pathogenic/spoilage bacteria in a food item to a safe level
    C. A process that uses intense cold to kill microorganisms on food
    D. A process that uses short bursts of radiation to kill microorganisms on foods.
A

B. The use of heat to reduce the number of pathogenic/spoilage bacteria in a food item to a safe level

24
Q
  1. Typhoid fever is caused by species of _____.
    A. Campylobacter
    B. Escherichia
    C. Salmonella
    D. Shigella
A

C. Salmonella

25
Q
  1. Which of the following associations is INCORRECT?
    A. Ehrlichiosis - tick
    B. Malaria - mosquito
    C. Plague - flea
    D. Spotted fever rickettsiosis – mite
A

D. Spotted fever rickettsiosis – mite

26
Q
  1. A chemical component that is found in all viruses is ____.
    A. protein
    B. lipid
    C. DNA
    D. RNA
A

A. protein

27
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the viral capsid?
    A. to facilitate viral entry into the host cell
    B. to protect the viral genetic material
    C. to replicate the viral genome
    D. to produce viral proteins
A

B. to protect the viral genetic material

28
Q
  1. The following are the properties of viruses EXCEPT
    A. Most viruses possess either DNA or RMA
    B. They divide by binary fission, mitosis, or meiosis
    C. They lack the genes and enzymes necessary for energy production
    D. They depend on the ribosomes and metabolites of the host cell for protein and nucleic acid production
A

B. They divide by binary fission, mitosis, or meiosis

29
Q
  1. Viruses outside their host cell survive as
    A. virions
    B. algae
    C. protozoa
    D. bacteria
A

A. virions

30
Q
  1. Which of the following phase determines the specificity of the virus?
    A. uncoating
    B. release
    C. attachment
    D. penetration
A

C. attachment

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about viral envelopes?
    A. They are derived from the host cell membrane
    B. They are present in all viruses
    C. They contain viral genetic material
    D. They are synthesized by the viral genome
A

A. They are derived from the host cell membrane

32
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses is known for its ability to cause latent infections?
    A. influenza virus
    B. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    C. herpes simplex virus (HSV)
    D. hepatitis A virus (HAV)
A

C. herpes simplex virus (HSV)

33
Q
  1. What distinguishes a lytic cycle from a lysogenic cycle in bacteriophages?
    A. The lytic cycle results in the destruction of the host cell
    B. The lysogenic cycle involves immediate replication of the virus
    C. The lytic cycle integrates viral DNA into the host genome
    D. The lysogenic cycle produces new virions immediately
A

A. The lytic cycle results in the destruction of the host cell

34
Q
  1. A lichen usually represents a symbiotic relationship between which of the following pairs?
    A. a fungus and an amoeba
    B. an alga and a fungus
    C. a yeast and an amoeba
    D. an alga and a cyanobacteria
A

B. an alga and a fungus

35
Q
  1. What is the main component of fungal cell walls?
    A. cellulose
    B. chitin
    C. peptidoglycan
    D. lignin
A

B. chitin

36
Q
  1. What is the primary role of mycorrhizal fungi in plant roots?
    A. Nitrogen fixation
    B. Photosynthesis
    C. Enhancing water and nutrient absorption
    D. Producing antibiotics
A

C. Enhancing water and nutrient absorption

37
Q
  1. Which structure is involved in sexual reproduction in Ascomycota?
    A. Sporangium
    B. Basidium
    C. Ascocarp
    D. Conidiophore
A

C. Ascocarp

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of diatoms?
    A. Silica cell walls
    B. flagella
    C. cellulose cell walls
    D. chloroplasts
A

A. Silica cell walls

39
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites is known for its complex life cycle involving both sexual and asexual reproduction?
    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Plasmodium vivax
    C. Trichomonas vaginalis
    D. Enterbius vermicularis
A

B. Plasmodium vivax

40
Q
  1. How does the parasite Plasmodium falcifarum cause infection in humans?
    A. by forming cysts in the liver
    B. by invading red blood cells
    C. by attaching to the intestinal wall
    D. by releasing toxins in the bloodstream
A

B. by invading red blood cells

41
Q
  1. What is the primary mode of transmission for Gardia lamblia?
    A. sexual contact
    B. ingestion of contaminated water
    C. inhalation of spores
    D. skin penetration
A

B. ingestion of contaminated water

42
Q
  1. Which stage of the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is infectious to humans?
    A. tachyzoite
    B. bradyzoite
    C. sporozoite
    D. oocyst
A

D. oocyst

43
Q
  1. What is the common name for Enterobius vermicularis?
    A. Hookworm
    B. Pinworm
    C. Tapeworm
    D. Roundworm
A

B. Pinworm

44
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites is transmitted by the tsetse fly?
    A. Leishmania donovani
    B. Trypanosoma brucei
    C. Plasmodium vivax
    D. Schistosoma mansoni
A

B. Trypanosoma brucei

45
Q
  1. Which parasite causes Chagas disease?
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Leishmania tropica
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
A

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

46
Q
  1. The causative agent of amoebiasis is
    A. Cryptosporidium parvum
    B. Balantidium coli
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Giardia lamblia
A

C. Entamoeba histolytica

47
Q
  1. The following are examples of ectoparasites EXCEPT:
    A. helminths
    B. mites
    C. lice
    D. ticks
A

A. helminths

48
Q
  1. The motile, feeding, and dividing stage in the protozoal life cycle is the
    A. cyst
    B. oocyst
    C. spore
    D. trophozoite
A

D. trophozoite

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of Ascaris lumbricoides?
    A. It is a protozoan
    B. It is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
    C. It causes malaria
    D. It is transmitted by mosquito bites
A

B. It is transmitted by ingestion of eggs

50
Q
  1. Humans develop malaria after the injection of Plasmodium ______ into the bloodstream by an infected female Anopheles mosquito when it takes a bloody meal.
    A. male and female gametocytes
    B. schizonts
    C. sporozoites
    D. trophozoite
A

C. sporozoites

CBE 3 (9 decks)

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