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CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What are the reactants for the chemical reaction of cellular respiration?
    A. Carbon dioxide and water
    B. Glucose and oxygen
    C. Oxygen and lactic acid
    D. Water and glucose
A

B. Glucose and oxygen

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2
Q
  1. How many ATP molecules does glycolysis provides a cell?
    A. 2 ATP molecules
    B. 4 ATP molecules
    C. 16 ATP molecules
    D. 32 ATP molecules
A

A. 2 ATP molecules

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3
Q
  1. Which is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis?
    A. Carbon
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Oxygen
    D. Water
A

C. Oxygen

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4
Q
  1. Which best describes light-dependent reaction?
    A. Uses carbon dioxide to synthesize proteins
    B. First stage of photosynthesis
    C. Creates ATP and NADPH
    D. Utilizes ATP and NADPH
A

C. Creates ATP and NADPH

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5
Q
  1. Why do we perceive chlorophyll as green?
    A. Because it combines blue and yellow light
    B. Because it absorbs green light
    C. Because it reflects green light
    D. Because it refracts green light
A

C. Because it reflects green light

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6
Q
  1. What is the starting molecule for glycolysis?
    A. ADP
    B. Citric acid
    C. Glucose
    D. Pyruvic acid
A

C. Glucose

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7
Q
  1. Where does lactic acid fermentation occurs?
    A. Beer
    B. Bread dough
    C. Muscle cells
    D. Wine
A

C. Muscle cells

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8
Q
  1. What is produced as electrons pass through the electron transport chain?
    A. Alcohol
    B. ATP
    C. Citric acid
    D. Lactic acid
A

B. ATP

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9
Q
  1. Which of these statements is true about the relationship of photosynthesis (P) and cellular respiration (CP)?
    A. Products of (P) inhibits (CP)
    B. Products of (P) are also the products of (CP)
    C. Reactants of (P) are also the reactants of (CP)
    D. Products of (P) are the reactants of (CP)
A

D. Products of (P) are the reactants of (CP)

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10
Q
  1. What is the main difference between aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration?
    A. Aerobic uses sugar, anaerobic does not
    B. Aerobic uses oxygen, anaerobic does not
    C. Anaerobic uses oxygen, aerobic does not
    D. Aerobic makes 2 ATP, anaerobic makes 36 ATP
A

B. Aerobic uses oxygen, anaerobic does not

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11
Q
  1. Photosynthesis uses sun light to convert water and carbon dioxide into _____________________.
    A. Glucose
    B. Oxygen
    C. ATP and oxygen
    D. Oxygen and glucose
A

D. Oxygen and glucose

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12
Q
  1. What does the chloroplast do?
    A. Stone water
    B. Control cellular activities
    C. Transport through the cell
    D. Moves the energy into the cell
A

D. Moves the energy into the cell

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13
Q
  1. What is found in plant cell but not in animal cell?
    A. Cell membrane
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Cytoplasm
    D. Golgi apparatus
A

B. Chloroplast

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14
Q
  1. What are products of photosynthesis and are reactants of cellular respiration?
    A. Hormones
    B. ATP and ADP
    C. Glucose and oxygen
    D. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
A

C. Glucose and oxygen

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15
Q
  1. Photosynthesis is to chloroplast as cellular respiration is to ____________________.
    A. Cell membrane
    B. Cytoplasm
    C. Mitochondrion
    D. Nucleus
A

C. Mitochondrion

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a stage of aerobic cellular respiration?
    A. Electron transport system
    B. Fermentation
    C. Glycolysis
    D. Krebs cycle
A

B. Fermentation

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17
Q
  1. Which or the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in cellular respiration?
    A. Glycolysis > fermentation > Krebs cycle
    B. Krebs cycle > electron transport > glycolysis
    C. Krebs cycle > glycolysis > electron transport
    D. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > electron transport
A

D. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > electron transport

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18
Q
  1. Which of these processes take place in the cytoplasm of a cell?
    A. Electron transport
    B. Glycolysis
    C. Krebs cycle
    D. All of the above
A

B. Glycolysis

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19
Q
  1. Where is the chlorophyll found?
    A. Cytosol
    B. Matrix
    C. Stroma
    D. Thylakoids
A

D. Thylakoids

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20
Q
  1. What are the reactants during Calvin cycle?
    A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
    B. Carbon dioxide and water
    C. ATP and carbon dioxide
    D. ATP and glucose
A

C. ATP and carbon dioxide

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21
Q
  1. What refers to the regulation of the body of an organism establishing equilibrium or balance?
    A. Growth
    B. Homeostasis
    C. Organization
    D. Sensitivity
A

B. Homeostasis

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22
Q
  1. Which among the following is the smallest unit in the organization of living things?
    A. Cell
    B. Organ
    C. Organ system
    D. Tissue
A

A. Cell

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23
Q
  1. What characteristics of life is shown when a cell undergoes phagocytosis?
    A. Growth
    B. Metabolism
    C. Organization
    D. Responsiveness
A

B. Metabolism

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24
Q
  1. All of the following are parts of a prokaryotic cell, EXCEPT:
    A. Cell wall
    B. Endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Plasma membrane
    D. Ribosome
A

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

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25
Q
  1. Which structure is common to plant ang animal cells?
    A. Cell wall
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Mitochondrion
    D. Vacuole
A

C. Mitochondrion

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26
Q
  1. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
    A. Golgi body
    B. Mitochondrion
    C. Nucleus
    D. Vacuole
A

B. Mitochondrion

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27
Q
  1. What will happen to a cell when water moves from outside and in to the cell?
    A. Nothing
    B. Pinocytosis
    C. Shrink
    D. Swell
A

D. Swell

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28
Q
  1. What will happen to a cell when the concentration is higher outside of the cell?
    A. Burst
    B. Nothing
    C. Shrink
    D. Swell
A

C. Shrink

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29
Q
  1. What solution is a cell submerged when red blood cells are soaked in pure distilled water?
    A. Hypertonic
    B. Hypotonic
    C. Isotonic
    D. Saline
A

B. Hypotonic

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30
Q
  1. Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
    A. Bacteria and Archaea
    B. Bacteria and Eukarya
    C. Bacteria and Fungi
    D. Bacteria and Protist
A

A. Bacteria and Archaea

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31
Q
  1. Which statement best describes why plasma membrane is said to be selectively permeable or differentially permeable
    A. Permeable to glucose only
    B. Allows certain liquids and gases to pass
    C. Permeable to certain kinds of molecules
    D. Both B and C
A

C. Permeable to certain kinds of molecules

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32
Q
  1. Which activity relates to passive transport?
    A. Sodium-potassium pump
    B. Addition or salt to cure meat
    C. Low concentration of substances outside the cell
    D. Movement of molecules where energy is exerted by the cell
A

D. Movement of molecules where energy is exerted by the cell

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33
Q
  1. Microorganisms include the following organisms EXCEPT:
    A. Bacteria
    B. Cnidaria
    C. Fungi
    D. Protist
A

B. Cnidaria

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34
Q
  1. The term spirillum refers to what shape of bacteria?
    A. Rod
    B. Sphere
    C. Spiral
    D. Triangular
A

C. Spiral

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35
Q
  1. Which organelle or structure is ABSENT in plant cells?
    A. Flagella
    B. Golgi body
    C. Mitochondria
    D. Nuclear membrane
A

A. Flagella

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36
Q
  1. All are eukaryotic microorganisms EXCEPT:
    A. Algae
    B. Fungi
    C. Mycoplasma
    D. Protist
A

C. Mycoplasma

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37
Q
  1. Microorganisms uses the following parts for locomotion EXCEPT:
    A. Cilia
    B. Cnidocyst
    C. Flagellum
    D. Pseudopod
A

B. Cnidocyst

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38
Q
  1. What monosaccharide is formed after photosynthesis?
    A. Galactose
    B. Glucose
    C. Maltose
    D. Sucrose
A

B. Glucose

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39
Q
  1. What is the total magnification of a Paramecium viewed under OIO using an ocular with a magnification of 20x??
    A. 200x
    B. 800x
    C. 1000x
    D. 2000x
A

D. 2000x

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40
Q
  1. What chemical reaction is involved in ATP synthesis in mitochondrion?
    A. Chemosynthesis
    B. Combustion
    C. Oxidation
    D. Photosynthesis
A

C. Oxidation

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41
Q
  1. Which pair of parts and function of a compound microscope is mismatched?
    A. Base: supports the whole microscope
    B. Mirror: reflects light
    C. Objective: adjust the body tube
    D. Stage: where specimen is placed
A

C. Objective: adjust the body tube

42
Q
  1. Who said that cells came from pre-existing cells?
    A. Matthias Schleiden
    B. Robert Hooke
    C. Robert Schwann
    D. Rudolf Virchow
A

D. Rudolf Virchow

43
Q
  1. What kind of cell transport is pinocytosis?
    A. Diffusion
    B. Endocytosis
    C. Exocytosis
    D. Osmosis
A

B. Endocytosis

44
Q
  1. How many ATP are produced when 5 glucose units entered a bacterial cell found in the gut and undergone cellular respiration?
    A. 10 ATP
    B. 20 ATP
    C. 180 ATP
    D. 360 ATP
45
Q
  1. What objective is used to view a cell with a total magnification of 400x using a 10x ocular?
    A. High power objective
    B. Low power objective
    C. Oil immersion objective
    D. Power objective
A

A. High power objective

46
Q
  1. How many ATP are produced when 8 glucose units undergone aerobic cellular respiration?
    A. 16 ATP
    B. 32 ATP
    C. 144 ATP
    D. 288 ATP
A

D. 288 ATP

47
Q
  1. Which part of a compound microscope makes you choose what objective to use?
    A. Draw tube
    B. Inclination joint
    C. Fine adjustment knob
    D. Revolving nosepiece
A

D. Revolving nosepiece

48
Q
  1. What best describes an organelle?
    A. It is a cell part
    B. It is membrane bound
    C. It distinguishes a structure
    D. It can be only seen in eukaryotes
A

B. It is membrane bound

49
Q
  1. When are viruses sometimes considered as living?
    A. When they have a host
    B. When they replicate
    C. When they cause sickness
    D. When they are contagious
A

A. When they have a host

50
Q
  1. What category do humans belong when described to be made up of many and different kinds of cells?
    A. Eukaryotic
    B. Multicellular
    C. Prokaryotic
    D. Unicellular
A

B. Multicellular

51
Q

Why does autophagy or cell suicide occur?
A. To fight cancer cells
B. To eliminate old cells
C. To avoid mutation of cells
D. To prevent abnormal cells

A

B. To eliminate old cells

52
Q

What does the smooth endoplasmic
reticulum synthesizes?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid
C. Nucleotide
D. Protein

53
Q

Which structure does NOT possess a
sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A. Colon
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Stomach

54
Q

Which structures are involved in eliminating
waste out of the cell?
I. Cell membrane
II. Golgi body
III. Lysosome
IV. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
V. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
VI. Vacuole

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and V
D. IV, V and VI

A

B. I, II and IV

55
Q

Which is NOT an element of the cytoplasm?
A. Cell inclusions
B. Cell wall
C. Centriole
D. Cytosol

A

B. Cell wall

56
Q

Which organelle helps in drug
detoxification?
A. Lysosome
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Vacuole

A

C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

57
Q

Which organelle is considered as the
digestive plant of the cell?
A. Golgi body
B. Nucleus
C. Lysosome
D. Vacuole

A

C. Lysosome

58
Q

Which statement does NOT describe the
cytoplasm correctly?
A. It is the jelly like substance inside the
cell
B. It is where metabolic processes occur
C. It has three elements
D. It has two regions

A

A. It is the jelly like substance inside the
cell

59
Q

Where do ribosomes came from?
A. Golgi body
B. Nucleus
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Vacuole

A

B. Nucleus

60
Q

Vacuoles may only store water.
A. True
B. False

61
Q

A golgi body may form a vesicle that can
cause autophagy.
A. True
B. False

62
Q

The ectoplasm refers to the jelly like
substance outside of the cell.
A. True
B. False

63
Q

Different organelles have double lipid layers.
A. True
B. False

64
Q

How many filamentous structures comprise a
cytoskeleton?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

65
Q

What protein polymer composes a
microtubule?
A. Actin
B. Clathrin
C. Keratin
D. Tubulin

A

D. Tubulin

66
Q

Microtubules form the spindle fibers in a
dividing cell.
A. True
B. False

67
Q

What filament is composed of protein actin?
A. Intermediate filament
B. Macrofilament
C. Microfilament
D. Microtubule

A

C. Microfilament

68
Q

What makes cilia and flagella move?
A. Intermediate filament
B. Macrofilament
C. Microfilament
D. Microtubule

A

D. Microtubule

69
Q

Which among the filaments is the thickest?
A. Intermediate filament
B. Macrofilament
C. Microfilament
D. Microtubule

A

D. Microtubule

70
Q

What organisms possess cilia?
A. Euglena
B. Human
C. Paramecium
D. Volvox

A

C. Paramecium

71
Q

Which best differentiates cilia and flagella?
A. Their location in the cell
B. Their size and function
C. Their components
D. Their movement

A

B. Their size and function

72
Q

Why is a primary cilium non-motile?
A. It has a 9+0 axoneme
B. It has nine microtubule doublets
C. It is shorter than the motile cilium
D. It has two microtubules in the center

A

A. It has a 9+0 axoneme

73
Q

In humans, only the males have a
flagellated cell.
A. True
B. False

74
Q

In microorganisms, cilia can be found in
hundreds while flagella are found to be few
(max of 8).
A. True
B. False

75
Q

Cilia and flagella move in a wave like
motion.
A. True
B. False

76
Q

What is the process of copying a gene’s
DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA?
A. DNA repair
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Replication

A

B. Transcription

77
Q

Which among the following is the
transcribing enzyme?
A. Amino-acyl transferase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. RNA polymerase

A

D. RNA polymerase

78
Q

What molecules contain the genetic code?
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. Trna

79
Q

What is the base pair of uracil?
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Thymine

A

A. Adenine

80
Q

What bases does RNA have?
A. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine,
uracil
B. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine
C. Adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine
D. Cytosine, guanine, thymine, uracil

A

C. Adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine

81
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding introns?
A. Human genes have fewer introns
compared to other organisms
B. Introns are the parts of the mRNA that
are translated
C. Introns may be involved in exon
shuffling
D. Introns have no function

A

D. Introns have no function

82
Q

Which mode of information transfer DOES
NOT occur in a cell?
A. DNA to DNA
B. DNA to RNA
C. DNA to protein
D. All occur in a cell

A

D. All occur in a cell

83
Q

Jneiss, a geneticist, isolated a corresponding
mRNA and found to be containing 1,000
fewer bases than the original DNA. Did she
isolate the wrong DNA?
A. Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA
template and should be of the same
length as the gene sequence
B. Yes, the mRNA should contain more
bases than the DNA sequence
C. No, the final mRNA only contains
exons, the introns were remove
D. No, the mRNA was partially
degraded when it was transcribed

A

C. No, the final mRNA only contains
exons, the introns were remove

84
Q

A DNA strand with the sequence
AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the
sequence of the mRNA molecule
synthesized?
A. AACGTAACG
B. UUGCAUUGC
C. AACGUAACG
D. TTGCATTGC

A

B. UUGCAUUGC

85
Q

What word describes DNA replication?
A. Conservative
B. Conservative
C. Semi-conservative
D. None of the abovementioned

A

C. Semi-conservative

86
Q

Which Is TRUE about DNA polymerase?
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’
direction
B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’
direction
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’
direction
D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’
direction

A

A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’
direction

87
Q

Which enzyme unwinds a DNA?
A. Helicase
B. Hexonuclease
C. Ligase
D. Topoisomerase

A

A. Helicase

88
Q

Which enzyme joins bits of DNA?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Exonuclease
D. Primase

A

A. DNA ligase

89
Q

Which mechanism will remove uracil in a
DNA and replace it with the correct base?
A. Base excision repair
B. Direct repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Nucleotide repair

A

A. Base excision repair

90
Q

Which of the following has self-repairing
mechanisms?
A. DNA and RNA
B. DNA and mRNA
C. DNA, RNA and proteins
D. DNA only

A

D. DNA only

91
Q

Which is not present in an animal cell?
A. Cell plate
B. Centriole
C. Centromere
D. Cytoplasm

A

A. Cell plate

92
Q

What period of growth is most spent in the
life of any cell?
A. Anaphase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Interphase
D. Prophase

A

C. Interphase

93
Q

Which is NOT a process of cell cycle?
A. Death
B. Development
C. Division
D. Growth

94
Q

Which stage of mitosis are spindle fibers
produced?
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase

A

C. Prophase

95
Q

Which stage of meiosis, do homologous
chromosomes form?
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Prophase II

A

C. Prophase I

96
Q

What stage of mitosis does a cleavage
furrow form in a cell?
A. Cytokinesis
B. Interphase
C. Meiosis
D. Mitosis

A

D. Mitosis

97
Q

How many chromosomes does a somatic
cell of an organism have if its gametes have
28 chromosomes?
A. 14
B. 28
C. 56
D. 112

98
Q

How many daughter cells will be produced
when 3 sperm cells undergo cell division?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

99
Q

Which statement is FALSE about meiosis?
A. It produces gametes
B. It produces diploid cells
C. It produces four daughter cells
D. It undergoes two rounds of cell
division

A

B. It produces diploid cells

100
Q

Which structure is present during
prophase?
A. DNA
B. Chromatids
C. Homologous chromosomes
D. Sister chromatids

A

D. Sister chromatids

CBE 3 (9 decks)

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