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Histology > Midterms > Flashcards

Midterms Flashcards

1
Q
  • Aggregated polyhedral cells
  • small amount
  • Lining of surface or body cavities; glandular secretion
A

epithelial

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2
Q
  • Several types of fixed and wandering cells
  • Abundant amount
  • Support and protection of tissues/organs
A

connective

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3
Q
  • Elongated contractile cells
  • Moderate amount
  • Strong contraction; body movements
A

muscle

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4
Q
  • Elongated cells with extremely fine processes
  • Very small amount
  • Transmission of nerve impulses
A

nervous

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5
Q
  • Occludins, claudins, ZO proteins
  • Actin filaments
  • Seals adjacent cells to one another, controlling passage of molecules between them; separates apical and basolateral membrane domains
  • Defects in occludins may compromise
    the fetal blood–brain barrier, leading to severe neurologic disorders
A

tight junction

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6
Q
  • E-cadherin, catenin complexes
  • Actin filaments
  • Provides points linking the cytoskeletons
    of adjacent cells; strengthens and stabilizes nearby tight junctions
  • Loss of E-cadherin in epithelial cell tumors (carcinomas) promotes tumor invasion and the shift to malignancy
A

adherens junction

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7
Q
  • Cadherin family proteins (desmogleins, desmocollin)
  • Intermediate filaments (keratins)
  • Provides points of strong intermediate filament coupling between adjacent cells, strengthening the tissue
  • Autoimmunity against desmoglein I leads to dyshesive skin disorders characterized by reduced cohesion of epidermal cells
A

desmosome

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8
Q
  • Integrins
  • Intermediate filaments
  • Anchors cytoskeleton to the basal lamina
  • Mutations in the integrin-β4 gene are linked to some types of epidermolysis bullosa, a skin blistering disorder
A

hemidesmosome

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9
Q
  • Connexin
  • Allows direct transfer of small molecules and ions from one cell to another
A

gap junction

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10
Q
  • Lining of vessels (endothelium); Serous lining of cavities: pericardium, pleura, peritoneum (mesothelium)
  • Facilitates the movement of the viscera (mesothelium), active transport by pinocytosis (mesothelium and endothelium), secretion of biologically active molecules (mesothelium)
A

simple squamous

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11
Q
  • Covering the ovary, thyroid
  • Covering, secretion
A

simple cuboidal

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12
Q
  • Lining of intestine, gallbladder
  • Protection, lubrication, absorption, secretion
A

simple columnar

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13
Q
  • Epidermis
  • Protection; prevents water loss
A

stratified squamous keratinized

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14
Q
  • Mouth, esophagus, larynx, vagina, anal canal
  • Protection, secretion; prevents water loss
A

statified squamous nonkeratinized

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15
Q
  • Sweat glands, developing ovarian follicles
  • Protection, secretion
A

stratified cuboidal

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16
Q
  • bladder, ureters, renal calyces
  • Protection, distensibility
A

stratified transitional

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17
Q
  • conjunctiva
  • protection
A

stratified columnar

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18
Q
  • Lining of trachea, bronchi, nasal cavity
  • Protection, secretion; cilia-mediated transport of particles trapped in mucus out of the air passages
A

pseudostratified

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19
Q
  • Elongated secretory portion; duct usually short or absent
  • Mucous glands of colon; intestinal glands or crypts (of Lieberkühn)
A

simple tubular

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20
Q
  • several long secretory parts joining to drain into 1 duct
  • Glands in the uterus and stomach
A

branched tubular

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21
Q
  • secretory portion is very long and coiled
  • sweat glands
A

coiled tubular

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22
Q
  • Rounded, saclike secretory portion
  • Small mucous glands along the urethra
A

acinar

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23
Q
  • Multiple saclike secretory parts entering the same duct
  • Sebaceous glands of the skin
A

branched acinar

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24
Q
  • Several elongated coiled secretory units and their ducts converge to form larger ducts
  • Submucosal mucous glands (of Brunner) in the duodenum
A

tubular

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25
Q
  • ducts converge to form larger ducts
    Several saclike secretory units with small ducts converge at a larger duct
  • exocrine pancreas
A

acinar

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26
Q
  • Ducts of both tubular and acinar secretory units converge at larger ducts
  • Salivary glands
A

tubuloacinar

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27
Q

cells are bound tightly together structurally and functionally to form a sheetlike or tubular structure with little extracellular material between the cells.

A

epithelium

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28
Q

facing the sheet’s free surface

A

apical

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29
Q

facing a basement membrane and under- lying connective tissue

A

basal

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30
Q

Epithelia are often specialized for absorption

A

transcytosis

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31
Q

thin extracellular layer of specialized proteins, usually having two parts: a basal lamina and a more fibrous reticular lamina

A

basement membrane

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32
Q

thin meshwork of type IV collagen and laminin produced by the epithelial cells

A

basal lamina

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33
Q

contains type III collagen and anchoring fibrils of VII collagen, all secreted by cells of the immediately adjacent connective tissue.

A

reticular lamina

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34
Q

formed by interacting trans- membrane proteins such as claudin and occludin; linear arrangements of these linked proteins surround the apical ends of the cells and prevent paracellular passage of substances

A

tight junction

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35
Q

formed by interacting proteins of the cadherin family, are points of strong attachment holding together cells of the epithelium.

A

adherent junction

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36
Q

encircle epithelial cells just below their tight junctions or scattered, spot-like attachment sites called desmosomes or maculae adherens, both of which are attached to cytoplasmic keratins.

A

zonula adherens

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37
Q

composed of transmembrane integrins attach cells to proteins of the basal lamina.

A

hemidesmosomes

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38
Q

points of cell contact where both plasma membranes have numerous hexameric complexes of transmembrane connexons, each forming a channel allowing passage of small molecules from one cell to the other.

A

gap junction

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39
Q

small membrane projections with cores of actin filaments that generally function to increase epithelial cells’ apical surface area for absorption

A

microvilli

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40
Q

long microvilli with specialized mechanosensory function in cells of the inner ear and for absorption in tissues of the male reproductive tract.

A

stereocilia

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41
Q

larger projecting structures with a well-organized core of microtubules

A

cilia

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42
Q

epithelium in which the basement membrane has one cell layer is

A

simple

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43
Q

Epithelia with two or more layers of cells are

A

stratified

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44
Q
  • move gradually from the basal to the surface layers, changing shape and becoming filled with keratin intermediate filaments.
  • cover the body surface, protecting underlying tissues from excess water loss (dehydration) and microbial invasion.
A

statified squamous

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45
Q

thick and appear to have several cell layers; all cells attach to the basal lamina but not all extend to the free epithelial surface.

A

pseudostratified epithelia

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46
Q

found only in the lining of the urinary system, is stratified, with large rounded surface cells protective against urine.

A

transitional

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47
Q

have epithelial ducts carrying secretions to specific sites

A

exocrine glands

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48
Q

unbranched

A

simple glands

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49
Q

branched

A

compound glands

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50
Q

The secretory portions of exocrine glands may form round, saclike ___ or elongated ___

A

acini; tubules

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51
Q

lack ducts

A

endocrine glands

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52
Q

three basic secretory mechanisms

A

merocine, holocrine, apocrine

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53
Q

uses exocytosis

A

merocrine

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54
Q

terminally differentiated cells filled with lipid product are release

A

holocrine

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55
Q

apical, product-filled areas of cells are extruded.

A

apocrine

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56
Q

Exocrine glands producing mucus, or similar individual cells called goblet cells, are called

A

mucous glands

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57
Q

Exocrine glands producing largely enzymes (proteins) are called ___ and stain darkly with H&E due to the cells’ content of RER and secretory granules.

A

serous glands

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58
Q

Extracellular fibers and ground substance

A

fibroblast

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59
Q

Antibodies

A

Plasma cells

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60
Q

Various immune/defense functions

A

Eosinophilic leukocytes

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61
Q

Phagocytosis of bacteria

A

Neutrophilic leukocytes

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62
Q

Phagocytosis of ECM components and debris; antigen processing and presentation
to immune cells; secretion of growth factors, cytokines, and other agents

A

Macrophages

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63
Q

Pharmacologically active molecules (eg, histamine)

A

Mast cells and basophilic leukocytes

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64
Q

storage of neutral fats

A

Adipocytes

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65
Q
  • Blood
  • Precursor of macrophages
A

monocyte

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66
Q
  • Connective tissue, lymphoid organs, lungs, bone marrow, pleural and peritoneal cavities
  • lungs, bone marrow, pleural and peritoneal cavities
    Production of cytokines, chemotactic factors, and several other molecules that participate in inflammation (defense), antigen processing, and presentation
A

macrophage

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67
Q
  • Liver (perisinusoidal)
  • Same as macrophages
A

kupffer cell

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68
Q
  • Central nervous system
  • Same as macrophages
A

microglial cell

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69
Q
  • Epidermis of skin
  • Antigen processing and presentation
A

langerhans cell

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70
Q
  • Lymph nodes, spleen
  • Antigen processing and presentation
A

dendritic

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71
Q
  • Bone
  • Localized digestion of bone matrix
A

osteoclast

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72
Q
  • in connective tissue under various pathological conditions
  • Segregation and digestion of foreign bodies
A

multinuclear giant cell

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73
Q

Resistance to tension

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens I

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74
Q

Resistance to tension

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens I

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75
Q

Resistance to pressure

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens II

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76
Q

structural maintenance in expansible organs

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens III

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77
Q

Participates in type I collagen function

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens V

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78
Q

Participates in type II collagen function

A

Fibril-Forming Collagens XI

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79
Q

Support of epithelial cells; filtration

A

Network-Forming Collagens IV

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80
Q
A

Network-Forming Collagens IV

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81
Q

increases density of the matrix

A

Network-Forming Collagens X

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82
Q

Anchors basal laminae to underlying reticular lamina

A

Linking/Anchoring Collagens VII

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83
Q

Binds various proteoglycans; associated with type II collagen

A

Linking/Anchoring Collagens IX

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84
Q

Interacts with type I collagen

A

Linking/Anchoring Collagens XII

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85
Q

Binds type I collagen fibrils, with types V and XII, strengthening fiber formation

A

Linking/Anchoring Collagens XIV

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86
Q
  • Faulty transcription or translation of collagen type III
  • Aortic and/or intestinal rupture
A

ehlers-danlos type IV

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87
Q
  • Faulty lysine hydroxylation
  • Increased skin elasticity, rupture of eyeball
A

ehlers-danlos type VI

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88
Q
  • Decrease in procollagen peptidase activity
  • Increased articular mobility, frequent luxation
A

ehlers-danlos type VII

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89
Q
  • Lack of vitamin C, a required cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase
  • Ulceration of gums, hemorrhages
A

scurvy

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90
Q
  • Change of 1 nucleotide in genes for collagen type I
  • Spontaneous fractures, cardiac insufficiency
A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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91
Q
  • Much ground substance; many cells and little collagen, randomly distributed
  • Supports microvasculature, nerves, and immune defense cells
  • Lamina propria beneath epithelial lining of digestive tract
A

loose connective tissue

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92
Q
  • Little ground substance; few cells (mostly fibroblasts); much collagen in randomly arranged fibers
  • Protects and supports organs; resists tearing
  • Dermis of skin, organ capsules, submucosa layer of digestive tract
A

dense irregular connective tissue

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93
Q
  • Almost completely filled with parallel bundles of collagen; few fibroblasts, aligned with collagen
  • Provide strong connections within musculoskeletal system; strong resistance to force
  • Ligaments, tendons, aponeuroses, corneal stroma
A

dense regular connective tissue

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94
Q
  • Sparse, undifferentiated cells, uniformly distributed in matrix with sparse collagen fibers
  • Contains stem/progenitor cells for all adult connective tissue cells
  • Mesodermal layer of early embryo
A

mesencyhme

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95
Q
  • Random fibroblasts and collagen fibers in viscous matrix
  • Supports and cushions large blood vessels
  • Matrix of the fetal umbilical cord
A

mucoid connective tissue

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96
Q
  • Delicate network of reticulin/ collagen III with attached fibroblasts (reticular cells)
  • Supports blood-forming cells, many secretory cells, and lymphocytes in most lymphoid organs
  • Bone marrow, liver, pancreas, adrenal glands, all lymphoid organs except the thymus
A

reticular connective tissue

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97
Q

Connective tissue is specialized to physically ___ and ___ other tissues and maintain the water required for metabolite diffusion to and from cells.

A

support ; connect

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98
Q

Connective tissues all consist primarily of ___ material rather than cells.

A

extracellular

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99
Q

Within most organs connective tissue proper forms the supportive

A

stroma

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100
Q

supports the organ’s unique functional components

A

parenchyma

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101
Q

consists of both large protein fibers and nonfibrous areas of unstained ground substance rich in various GAGs and water.

A

ECM

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102
Q

All adult connective tissues are derived from an embryonic form of connective tissue called ___, which contains uniformly undifferentiated cells scattered in a gel-like matrix.

A

mesenchyme

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103
Q

major cells of connective tissue proper, are elongated, irregularly shaped cells with oval nuclei that synthesize and secrete most components of the ECM.

A

fibroblasts

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104
Q

large cells specialized for storage of triglycerides

A

adipocytes

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105
Q

predominate in a specialized form of connective tissue

A

adipose tissue

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106
Q

short-lived cells that differentiate in connective tissue from precursor cells called monocytes circulating in the blood; they function in ECM turnover, phagocytosis of dead cells and debris, and antigen presentation to lymphocytes.

A

macrophages

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107
Q

originate from blood cell precursors and are filled with granules for the release of various vasoactive agents and other substances during inflammatory and allergic reactions.

A

mast cells

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108
Q

short-lived cells that differentiate from B lymphocytes and are specialized for the abundant secretion of specific anti- bodies (immunoglobulins).

A

plasma cells

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109
Q

wander through all types of connective tissue proper, providing surveillance against bacterial invaders and stimulating tissue repair.

A

leukocytes

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110
Q

most important and abundant fibers of connective tissue are composed of the protein

A

collagen

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111
Q

Upon exocytosis, the non helical ends of the procollagen subunits are removed, forming trimeric

A

collagen molecules

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112
Q

that aggregate and become covalently bound together in large

A

collagen fibrils

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113
Q

highly regular assembly of collagens in the fibrils produces a characteristic pattern of

A

crossbanding

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114
Q

Fibrils of type I collagen are bundled together by other forms of non- fibrillar, linking collagens to produce large

A

collagen bundles

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115
Q

Collagen fibrils are degraded by collagenase enzymes classified as

A

MMP

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116
Q

Type III collagen produces a network of delicate ___,
which stain very dark with silver stains and are abundant in immune
and lymphoid tissues.

A

reticular fibers

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117
Q

composed of the proteins elastin and fibrillin, which exist in a stretchable conformation that provides elastic properties to connective tissues rich in this material.

A

elastic lamellae

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118
Q
  • watery, largely unstained extracellular material
  • rich in hydrated GAGs, proteoglycans, and multiadhesive glycoproteins.
A

ground substance

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119
Q
  • The major types of GAGs
  • very long polymer of the disaccharide glucosamine glucuronate,
A

hyaluronan

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120
Q
  • shorter chains
  • composed of other disaccharide polymers.
A

sulfated GAG

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121
Q

chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate have various sizes and compositions, but they are all bound to the core proteins of ___ and are produced in the Golgi apparatus before secretion.

A

proteoglycans

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122
Q

Proteoglycans attach to polymers of HA via ___ to form huge complexes in ground substance

A

linker proteins

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123
Q

allowing temporary attachments between cells and the ECM required for cell migration and positioning.

A

multiadhesive glycoproteins

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124
Q

loose or dense according to the amount of collagen and ground substance present.

A

connective tissue proper

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125
Q

(or areolar tissue) has relatively more ground substance than collagen, and it typically surrounds small

A

loose connective tissue

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126
Q

filled primarily with randomly distributed bundles of type I collagen, with some elastic fibers, providing resistance to tearing from all directions as well as some elasticity.

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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127
Q

prominent in tendons and ligaments, features bundles of essentially parallel type I collagen, providing great strength (but little stretch) in binding together components of the musculoskeletal system.

A

dense regular connective tissue

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128
Q

delicate network soft type III collagen and is most abundant in certain lymphoid organs

A

reticular tissue

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129
Q

gel-like connective tissue

A

mucoid tissue

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130
Q
  • dietary fats pack-aged
  • intestine
A

chylomicrons

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131
Q
  • defining cells of adipose tissue (fat)
A

adipocytes

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132
Q
  • triglycerides produced in the liver and circulating
  • from fatty acids synthe- sized locally
A

VLDL

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133
Q

mobilized from adipocytes by hormone-sensitive lipase activated by norepinephrine released from the adrenal gland and various peptide hormones.

A

lipids

134
Q
  • found in many organs
  • 20% of the body weight in adults.
  • very large cells
A

white adipose tissue

135
Q

Fatty acids are released from white adipocytes by ___ activity when nutrients are needed and carried throughout the body on plasma proteins such as ___

A

lipase; albumin

136
Q

polypeptide hormone with target cells in the hypothalamus that is released from white adipocytes and helps regulate eating behavior.

A

leptin

137
Q

comprises up to 5% of the newborn body weight but smaller amounts in adults.

A

brown fat

138
Q

Fatty acids released in adipocytes of brown fat are metabolized in mitochondria of these cells for

A

thermogenesis

139
Q
  • Homogeneous, with type II collagen and aggrecan
  • Chondrocytes, chondroblasts
  • Isolated or in small isogenous groups
  • Many components of upper respiratory tract; articular ends and epiphyseal plates of long bones; fetal skeleton
  • Provides smooth, low-friction surfaces in joints; structural support for respiratory tract
  • Presence of perichondrium
A

hyaline cartilage

140
Q
  • Type II collagen, aggrecan, and darker elastic fibers
  • Chondrocytes, chondroblasts
  • Usually in small isogenous groups
  • External ear, external acoustic meatus, auditory tube; epiglottis and certain other laryngeal cartilages
  • Provides flexible shape and support of soft tissues
  • Presence of perichondrium
A

elastic cartilage

141
Q
  • Type II collagen and large areas of dense connective tissue with type I collagen
  • Chondrocytes, fibroblasts
  • isolated or in isogenous groups arranged axially
  • Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, meniscus, and certain other joints; insertions of tendons
  • Provides cushioning, tensile strength, and resistance to tearing and compression
A

fibrocartilage

142
Q

tough, resilient type of connective tissue that structurally supports certain soft tissues, notably in the respiratory tract, and provides cushioned, low-friction surfaces in joints.

A

cartilage

143
Q
  • Cells of cartilage, ___, make up a small percentage of the tissue’s mass, which is mainly a flexible mass of extracellular matrix (ECM)
  • embedded within lacunae surrounded by the ECM
A

chondrocytes

144
Q

includes collagen as well as abundant proteoglycans, notably aggrecan, which bind a large amount of water.

A

cartilage ECM

145
Q
  • Cartilage always lacks blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves, but it is usually surrounded by a dense connective tissue ___
  • vascularized
A

perichondrium

146
Q

three major forms of cartilage:

A

hyaline cartilage,
(2) elastic cartilage, and
(3) fibrocartilage.

147
Q

ECM of hyaline cartilage is ___, rich in fibrils of type II collagen and aggrecan complexes with bound water.

A

homogenous and glassy

148
Q

less collagen and more proteoglycan immediately around the lacunae, producing slight staining differences in this territorial matrix.

A

ECM

149
Q

occur singly or in small, mitotically derived isogenous groups.

A

chondrocytes

150
Q

present, but not at the hyaline cartilage of articular surfaces or the epiphyses of growing long bones.

A

perichondrium

151
Q
  • resembles hyaline cartilage in its chondrocytes and major ECM components, but its matrix includes abundant elastic fibers, visible with special stains, which increase the tissue’s flexibility.
  • provides flexible support for the external ear as well as certain structures of the middle ear and larynx; it is always surrounded by perichondrium.
A

elastic cartilage

152
Q
  • contains varying combinations of hyaline cartilage in small amounts of dense connective tissue
  • consists of small chondrocytes
  • layered with larger areas of bundled type I collagen with scattered fibroblasts.
  • provides very tough, strong support at tendon insertions and in intervertebral discs and certain other joints.
A

fibrocartilage

153
Q

All forms of cartilage form from embryonic

A

mesenchyme

154
Q

grow by mitosis of existing chondroblasts in lacunae

A

intenstital growth

155
Q

formation of new chondroblasts peripherally from progenitor cells in the perichondrium

A

appositional growth

156
Q

Repair or replacement of injured cartilage is very slow and ineffective, due in part to the tissue’s

A

avascularity and low metabolic rate

157
Q
  • Irregular and random arrangement of cells and collagen; lightly calcified
  • Developing and growing bones; hard callus of bone fractures
    Synonyms
  • Immature bone; primary bone; bundle bone
A

woven bone

158
Q
  • Parallel bundles of collagen in thin layers (lamellae), with regularly spaced cells between; heavily calcified
  • All normal regions of adult bone
  • Mature bone; secondary bone
A

lamellar bone

159
Q
  • Parallel lamellae or densely packed osteons, with interstitial lamellae
  • Thick, outer region (beneath periosteum) of bones
  • Cortical bone
A

compact bone

160
Q
  • Interconnected thin spicules or trabeculae covered by endosteum
  • Inner region of bones, adjacent to marrow cavities
  • Spongy bone; trabecular bone; medullary bone
A

cancellous bone

161
Q

type of connective tissue with a calcified extracellular matrix (ECM), specialized to support the body, protect many internal organs, and act as the body’s Ca2+ reservoir.

A

bone

162
Q

differentiate from (stem) osteoprogenitor cells and secrete components of the initial matrix, called osteoid

A

osteoblasts

163
Q

allow matrix mineralization to occur.

A

osteoid

164
Q

type I collagen, the protein ___, which binds Ca2+ and matrix vesicles with enzymes generating PO4−.

A

osteocalcin

165
Q

High concentrations of Ca2+ and PO4− ions cause formation of ___ crystals, whose growth gradually calcifies the entire matrix.

A

hydroxyapatite

166
Q

differentiate further from osteoblasts when they become enclosed within matrix lacunae and act to maintain the matrix and detect mechanical stresses on bone.

A

osteocytes

167
Q

Osteocytes maintain communication with adjacent cells via a network of long

A

dendritic process

168
Q

very large cells, formed by fusion of several blood monocytes, which locally erode bone matrix during osteogenesis and bone remodeling.

A

osteoclasts

169
Q

layer of dense connective tissue on the outer surface of bone, bound to bone matrix by bundles of type I collagen called perforating (or Sharpey) fibers.

A

periosteum

170
Q

Regions of periosteum adjacent to bone are rich in ___ cells and ___ that mediate much bone growth and remodeling.

A

osteoprogenitor; osteoblasts

171
Q

thin layer of active and inactive osteoblasts, which lines all the internal surfaces within bone; osteoblasts here are also required for bone growth.

A

endosteum

172
Q

Dense bone immediately beneath the periosteum is called ___; deep to the compact bone are small bony trabeculae or spicules of cancellous (or spongy) bone.

A

com- pact bone

173
Q

occur in both the knobby, bulbous ends,

A

epiphyses

174
Q

two types of mature bone tissue

A

epiphyses; diaphysis

175
Q

intervening shaft

A

diaphysis

176
Q

Immature bone, called ___, is formed during osteogenesis or repair and has a calcified matrix with randomly arranged collagen fibers.

A

woven bone

177
Q
  • By the action of osteoclasts and osteoblasts, woven bone undergoes rapid turnover and is remodeled into
  • both compact and cancellous bone
A

lamellar bone

178
Q

Most lamellar bone consists of lamellae organized concentrically around small central canals containing blood vessels and nerves; this organization is called

A

osteon or haversian system

179
Q

allow all cells to communicate with the central canal.

A

canaliculi

180
Q

Bones of the skull and jaws form initially by

A

intramembranous ossification

181
Q

osteoprogenitor cells surround and then invade hyaline cartilage models of the skeletal elements in the embryo.

A

endochondral ossification

182
Q

diaphyses of fetal long bones form when chondrocytes die after enclosure of the cartilage within a collar of woven bone, creating an initial cavity that is entered by periosteal osteoblasts and vasculature.

A

primary ossification centers

183
Q

with cartilage of the epiphyseal growth plate between the primary and secondary ossification sites.

A

secondary ossification centers

184
Q

growth plates are the key to ___ during childhood and are organized as an interrelated series of developing zones.

A

bone elongation

185
Q

chondrocytes undergo mitosis and appear stacked within elongated lacunae.

A

zone of proliferation

186
Q

The most mature chondrocytes in the lacunae swell up, compress the matrix, and undergo apoptosis

A

zone of hypertrophy

187
Q
  • Spaces created in the matrix
  • invaded by osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and vasculature from the primary center.
A

one of cartilage calcification

188
Q

woven bone is laid down initially by osteoblasts and remodeled into lamellae bone.

A

zone of ossification

189
Q

increases the circumference of a bone by osteoblast activity at the periosteum and is accompanied by enlargement of the medullary marrow cavity.

A

appositional bone growth

190
Q

occurs throughout life, with cells and matrix turning over continuously through activities of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

A

growth of bones

191
Q

Lamellae and osteons are temporary structures and are replaced and rebuilt continuously in a process of ___ by which bones change size and shape according to changes in mechanical stress.

A

bone remodeling

192
Q

fracture or other injury involves the activation of periosteal fibroblasts to produce an initial soft callus of fibrocartilage-like tissue.

A

bone repair

193
Q

soft callus is gradually replaced by a ___ that is soon remodeled to produce stronger lamellar bone.

A

hard callus of woven bone

194
Q

key ion for all cells, is stored in bone when dietary calcium is adequate and mobilized from bone when dietary calcium is deficient.

A

calcium

195
Q

activity of all three major bone cells and is largely regulated by subtle paracrine interaction among these and other cells.

A

blood calcium levels

196
Q

indirectly stimulates osteoclasts to elevate lev- els of calcium in blood,

A

PTH

197
Q

inhibit osteoclast activity, lowering blood calcium levels

A

calcitonin

198
Q

places where bones meet, orarticulate, allowing at least the potential for bending or movement in that portion of the skeleton.

A

joints

199
Q

joints with very limited or no movement

A

synarthoroses

200
Q

freely mobile joints

A

diarthroses

201
Q

synarthroses in the vertebral column that
cushion adjacent vertebrae.

A

intervertebral discs

202
Q

consists of a thick outer layer of fibrocartilage forming a tough annulus fibrosus and a shock-absorbing inner,
gel-like core, the

A

nucleus pulposus.

203
Q

ave a joint cavity filled with lubricant synovial fluid,
enclosed within a tough, fibrous articular capsule; ends of the bones involved are covered with hyaline articular cartilage.

A

Diarthroses

204
Q

specialized connective tissue of the ___ lines the capsule,

A

synovial membrane

205
Q

remove wear-and-tear debris from synovial fluid.

A

macrophage like synovial cells

206
Q

synthesize hyaluronan that moves into the synovial fluid with water from local capillaries to lubricate and nourish the articular cartilage.

A

fibroblast like synovial cells

207
Q

Chemical structure significantly different from that of other neurotransmitters; active in CNS and in both somatic and autonomic parts of PNS; binds to ACh receptors (cholinergic receptors) in PNS to open ion channels in postsynaptic membrane and stimulate muscle contraction

A

acetylcholine ACh

208
Q

Excites activity in neurons to promote cognitive function in the brain (learning and memory); most common neurotransmitter in the brain; opens Na+ channels

A

glutamate

209
Q

Synthesized from glutamate; primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain; also influences muscle tone; opens or closes various ion channels

A

gamma-aminobutryic acid (GABA)

210
Q

Inhibits activity between neurons in the CNS, including retina; opens Cl– channels

A

Glycine

211
Q

Molecules with both carboxyl (—COOH) and amine (—NH2) groups and various R groups; act as important transmitters in the CNS

A

amino acids

212
Q

Molecules synthesized from an amino acid by removing the carboxyl group and retaining the single amine group; also called biogenic amines

A

monoamines

213
Q

Has various functions in the brain related to sleep, appetite, cognition (learning, memory), and mood; modulates actions of other neurotransmitters

A

Serotonin or 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)

214
Q

A distinct group of monoamines

A

Catecholamines

215
Q

Produces inhibitory activity in the brain; important roles in cognition (learning, memory), motivation, behavior, and mood; opens K+ channels, closes Ca2+ channels

A

Dopamine

216
Q

Neurotransmitter of PNS (sympathetic division of autonomic nervous system) and specific CNS regions

A

Norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

217
Q

Has various effects in the CNS, especially the spinal cord, thalamus, and hypothalamus

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

218
Q

Small polypeptides act as signals to assist in and modulate communication among neurons in the CNS

A

neuropeptides

219
Q

Helps regulate response to noxious and potentially harmful stimuli

A

Enkephalin

220
Q

Involved in memory regulation and energy balance (increased food intake and decreased physical activity)

A

Neuropeptide Y

221
Q

Inhibits activities of neurons in specific brain areas

A

Somatostatin

222
Q

Assists with pain information transmission into the brain

A

Substance P

223
Q

timulates neurons in the brain to help mediate satiation (fullness) and repress hunger

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

224
Q

Prevents release of pain signals from neurons and fosters a feeling of well-being

A

Beta-endorphin

225
Q

Helps control and moderate the effects of dopamine

A

Neurotensin

226
Q

Also part of a nucleotide, inhibits activities in certain CNS neurons

A

adenosine

227
Q

Involved in learning and memory; relaxes muscle in the digestive tract; important for relaxation of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasodilation)

A

nitric oxide

228
Q
  • Neural tube
  • CNS
  • Myelin production, electrical insulation
A

Oligodendrocyte

229
Q
  • Neural tube
  • CNS
  • Structural and metabolic support of neurons, especially at synapses; repair processes
A

Astrocyte

230
Q
  • Neural tube
  • Line ventricles and central canal of CNS
  • Aid production and movement of CSF
A

ependymal cell

231
Q
  • Bone marrow (monocytes)
  • CNS
  • Defense and immune-related activities
A

microglia

232
Q
  • Neural crest
  • Peripheral nerves
  • Myelin production, electrical insulation
A

schwann cell

233
Q
  • Neural crest
  • Peripheral ganglia
  • structural and metabolic support for neuronal cell bodies
A

satellite cells

234
Q

Nervous tissue develops in the early embryo when the dorsal ectoderm ___ folds lengthwise to form the neural tube

A

neural plate

235
Q

precursor of the CNS,

A

neural tube

236
Q

precursors for much of the PNS.

A

neural crest cells

237
Q

There are many kinds of neurons, but all consist of a

A

cell body (perikaryon)

238
Q

long cytoplasmic extension

A

axon

239
Q

one or more shorter processes

A

dendrites

240
Q

eurons use the common cell property of excitability to produce and move an ___ along the axon to excite another neuron or other effector cell.

A

action potential (nerve impulse)

241
Q

such nerve communication is transmitted to another neuron or effector cell via

A

synapse

242
Q

released at the presynaptic membrane and binds receptors on the postsynaptic cell, initiating a new action potential there

A

neurotransmitter

243
Q

required to support neurons in many ways, consist of six major types:

A

glial cells

244
Q

wrap processes around portions of axons in
the CNS, forming myelin sheath

A

oligodendrocytes

245
Q

insulate the axons and
facilitate nerve impulse

A

myelin sheaths

246
Q

most numerous cell of the CNS, all produce hundreds of processes to cover and provide regulated microenvironments for neuronal perikarya, synapses, and capillaries.

A

astrocytes

247
Q

epithelial-like cells, lacking basement membranes, which line the fluid-filled cerebral ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord.

A

ependymal cells

248
Q

mediate immune defense activity within the CNS.

A

microglia

249
Q

enclose all axons in nerves of the PNS, producing myelin sheaths around large-diameter axons, whose impulse conductivity is augmented at the nodes of Ranvier between successive Schwann cells.

A

schwann cells

250
Q
  • located within PNS ganglia
  • enclose each perikaryon and regulate its microenvironment.
A

satellite

251
Q

regions rich in neuronal perikarya and astrocytes comprise the

A

gray matter

252
Q

regions containing tracts of myelinated axons comprise

A

white matter

253
Q

large, unique ___ characterize the cortex of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje neurons

254
Q

ayers of small ___ form the cerebral cortex.

A

pyramidal neurons

255
Q

the tough external

A

dura natter

256
Q
  • middle layer
  • contains much CSF, which helps cushion the CNS within its bony enclosure.
A

arachnoid layer

257
Q

delicate ___that directly contacts neural tissue.

A

pia mater

258
Q

elaborate folds of vascularized pia mater covered by ependyma that project from walls of the cerebral ventricles; there water is removed from capillaries and transferred into the ventricles as CSF.

A

choroid plexus

259
Q

neurons are also protected by the blood-brain barrier,

A

perivascular feet of astrocytic process

260
Q

axons from motor neurons (in the spinal cord), sensory neurons, and autonomic neurons

A

peripheral nerves

261
Q

thin connective tissue layer immediately surrounding Schwann cells in peripheral nerves, containing a few non-fenestrated capillaries and much reticulin.

A

Endoneurium

262
Q

Groups of axons (with Schwann cells and endoneurium) are surrounded by perineurium, consisting of layered, squamous fibroblastic cells joined by tight junctions to make a

A

blood-nerve barrier.

263
Q

In large peripheral nerves, groups of axons are subdivided as

A

fascicles

264
Q

Surrounding the perineurium is a thick, outermost layer of dense irregular connective tissue,

A

epineurium

265
Q

sensory or autonomic, contain neuronal cell bodies and their satellite cells and are surrounded by connective tissue continuous with that of nerves.

A

ganglia

266
Q

Certain regions of the CNS, such as near the ependyma, retain rare ___ that allow some replacement of neurons throughout life;

A

neural stem and progenitor cells

267
Q

involving formation and remodeling of synaptic connections is also prevalent throughout life.

A

neural plasticity

268
Q

neuronal and glial interconnections with the CNS make regeneration and restoration of function within this tissue after major injury very difficult.

A

complexity & distances

269
Q

simply organized peripheral nerves have better capacity for ___, a process involving reactivation of the perikaryon, Schwann cells, and macrophages.

A

axonal regeneration

270
Q

three major types of muscle

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

271
Q

very long, multinucleated fibers, cylindrically shaped and with diameters up to 100 μm.

A

skeletal muscle cells

272
Q

surrounded by an external lamina and thin connective tissue, endomysium, containing capillaries.

A

sacrolemma

273
Q

Groups of fibers called ___ are surrounded by perimysium

A

fascicles

274
Q

all fascicles are enclosed within a dense connective tissue

A

epimysium

275
Q

muscle fiber is filled with ___, composed of thousands of thick myosin filaments and thin actin filaments

A

myofibrils

276
Q

highly organized into contractile units

A

sarcomeres.

277
Q

Within sarcomeres thick and thin filaments

A

interdigitate

278
Q

project from the thick filaments toward the F-actin
filaments

A

globular myosin heads

279
Q

Sarcomeres are separated by___ that bisect the light-staining I bands

A

Z discs

280
Q

Between the two I bands of a sarcomere

A

dark-staining A
band

281
Q

alternating light and dark bands appear as microscopic ___ along the fibers.

A

striations

282
Q

sarcoplasm between parallel myofibrils

A

mitochondria

283
Q
  • cisternae of smooth ER
  • specialized for Ca2+ sequestration and release.
A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

284
Q

two terminal cisterns of SR contact a deep invagination of the sarcolemma called a

A

transverse or t tubule

285
Q

causes tropomyosin to change shape and allow the myosin heads to bind the actin subunits, forming crossbridges between thick and thin filaments.

A

ca binding to troponin

286
Q

myosin heads repeatedly attach, pivot, detach, and return, causing the filaments to slide past one another, shortening the sarcomere.

A

contraction cycle

287
Q

Ca2+ is again sequestered, ending contraction and allowing the sarcomeres to lengthen again as the muscle relaxes.

A

depolarization ends

288
Q

Synapses of motor axons with skeletal muscle

A

EMP, NMJ, or myoneural junctions

289
Q

sensory axons wrap around intrafusal fibers in small specialized fascicles or around myotendinous collagen bundles, respectively.

A

sensory proprioceptors

290
Q

Skeletal muscles contain fibers that can be physiologically classified as the three main types:

A

1) slow, oxidative (type I);
(2) fast, intermediate oxidative-glycolytic (type IIa); and (3) fast, glycolytic (type IIb).

291
Q

striated, but they consist of individual cylindrical cells, each containing one (or two) central nuclei and linked by adherent and gap junctions at prominent intercalated discs.

A

cardiac muscle fibers

292
Q

Contraction of cardiac muscle is ___ at nodes of impulse-gen- erating pacemaker muscle fibers; ___ regulate the rate of contraction.

A

intrinsic; autonomic nerves

293
Q

individual small, fusiform (tapering) cells, linked by numerous gap junctions.

A

smooth muscle fibers

294
Q

do not form sarcomeres, and no striations are present.

A

thin and thick filaments

295
Q

attach to α-actinin located in dense bodies that are located throughout the sarcoplasm and near the sarcolemma; contraction causes cells to shorten individually.

A

thin actin filament

296
Q

less well-organized in smooth muscle fibers, and there is no transverse tubule system.

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

297
Q

Conduct blood from heart and with elastic recoil help move blood forward under steady pressure

A

elastic arteries

298
Q

Distribute blood to all organs and maintain steady blood pressure and flow with vasodilation and constriction

A

muscular arteries

299
Q

Distribute blood to arterioles, adjusting flow with vasodilation and constriction

A

small arteries

300
Q

Resist and control blood flow to capillaries; major determinant of systemic blood pressure

A

arterioles

301
Q

Exchange metabolites by diffusion to and from cells

A

capillaries

302
Q

Drain capillary beds; site of leukocyte exit from vasculature

A

venules

303
Q

Collect blood from venules

A

small veins

304
Q

Carry blood to larger veins, with no backflow

A

medium veins

305
Q

Return blood to heart

A

large veins

306
Q

heart has three major layers

A

(1) endothelium
(2) the myocardium
(3) the epicardium

307
Q

connective tissue with many adipocytes and covered by mesothelium.

A

epicardium

308
Q

stimulates rhythmic contractions and consists of modified cardiac muscle fibers forming the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, the atrioventricular bundle (of His), left and right bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers.

A

cardiac conducting system

309
Q

located in the subendocardial layer of both ventricles, are distinguished from contractile fibers by their greater diameter, abundant glycogen, and more sparse bundles of myofibrils.

A

purkinje fibers

310
Q

Masses of dense irregular connective tissue make up the ___, which surrounds the bases of all heart valves, separates the atria from the ventricles, and provides insertions for cardiac muscle.

A

cardiac skeleton

311
Q

isible blood vessels have three major layers or tunics:

A
  • intima
  • media
  • adventitia
312
Q

includes the endothelium, connective tis- sue, and an internal elastic lamina in larger vessels;

A

intima

313
Q

contains alternating layers of smooth muscle and collagen or elastic lamellae;

A

media

314
Q

contains connective tissue, small vessels (vasa vasorum), and nerves.

A

adventitia

315
Q

not simply heart and vessel liners; they actively produce factors that prevent blood clotting, factors that cause adjacent smooth muscle cells to con- tract or relax, and factors that initiate inflammation at sites of damage or infection.

A

endothelial cells

316
Q

Arteries are grouped by size and wall composition

A
  • large elastic arteries,
  • muscular, medium-sized arteries
  • small arteries
317
Q

fenestrated elastic laminae in the thick tunica media

A

large elastic arteries

318
Q

fewer than 10 layers of smooth muscle in the media

A

small arteries

319
Q

microvasculature too small for surgical manipulation permeates most organs and consists of

A
  • atrioles
  • capillaries
  • venules
320
Q

large lumens and thin walls, which drain capillaries.

A

venules

321
Q

branch into metarterioles, in which smooth muscle sphincters contract to resist blood flow and relax cyclically to allow pulsatile flow of blood into an anastomosing capillary bed, where metabolic exchange with surrounding cells occurs.

A

termunal arterioles

322
Q

Capillaries are classified as three structural and functional types

A
  • continous capillaries
  • fenestrated caoillaries
  • discontinuous capillaries
323
Q

many tight junctions so that all exchange must occur through the cells;

A

continous capillaries

324
Q

small pores or fenestrations through the cells

A

fenestrated capillaries

325
Q

larger lumens, large spaces between the endothelial cells, and a discontinuous basal lamina.

A

discontinuous capillaries

326
Q
  • endothelium of continuous capillaries and post capillary venules is frequently surrounded by thin cells called
  • contractions facilitate blood flow and which can give rise to smooth muscle and connective tissue during microvascular remodeling or repair.
A

pericytes

327
Q

Two alternative microvascular pathways

A

arteriovenous anastomoses; venous portal system

328
Q

arterioles can bypass a capillary bed,

A

arteriovenous anastomoses

329
Q

venules draining a capillary bed quickly branch again to form another capillary bed.

A

venous portal systems

330
Q

Interstitial fluid that is not pulled into venules by colloidal osmotic pressure drains as lymph into blind vessels called ___, which have very thin endothelial cell walls with spaces between the cells.

A

lymphatics

331
Q

lymph is propelled by movements of surrounding muscles and organs, with intimal valves keeping the flow unidirectional.

A

lymphatic vessels

332
Q

largest lymphatic vessels, the___ and right ___, both with walls having tunics like those of veins, return lymph to the circulatory system by joining veins near the heart.

A

thoracic duct; lymphatic duct

Histology (7 decks)

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