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Blood Flashcards

1
Q

tube of blood after centrifugation has nearly half of its volume represented by erythrocytes in the bottom half of the tube, a volume called the

A

hematocrit

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2
Q

Between the sedimented erythrocytes and the supernatant light-colored plasma is a thin layer of leukocytes and platelets called the

A

buffy coat

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3
Q

percent range for each type of leukocyte represented in the buffy coat

A

differential count

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4
Q
  • Is the solvent in which formed elements are suspended
    and proteins and solutes are dissolved
  • 92% plamsa
A

water

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5
Q
  • All proteins serve to buffer against pH changes
  • 7% plasma
A

plasma proteins

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6
Q
  • Exerts osmotic force to retain fluid within the microvasculature
  • Contributes to blood’s viscosity
  • Binds and transports some fatty acids, electrolytes, hormones, and drugs
  • 58% plasma
A

albumin

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7
Q
  • α-Globulins transport lipids and some metal ions
  • β-Globulins transport iron ions and lipids in bloodstream
  • γ-Globulins are antibodies with various immune functions
  • 37% plasma
A

globulins

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8
Q
  • Participates in blood coagulation (clotting)
  • precursor of fibrin
  • 4% plasma
A

fibrinogen

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9
Q
  • Consists of enzymes, proenzymes, hormones, and the complement system
  • 1% plasma proteins
A

regulatory proteins

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10
Q
  • Help establish and maintain membrane potentials, maintain pH balance, and regulate osmosis (control of the percentages of water and salt in the blood)
  • sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, iron, bicarbonate, and hydrogen
A

electrolytes

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11
Q
  • Energy source; precursor for synthesizing other molecules
  • amino acids, glucose, cholesterol, vitamins, fatty acids
A

nutrients

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12
Q
  • Oxygen is needed for aerobic cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a waste product produced by cells during this process
A

Respiratory gases

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13
Q

Waste products serve no function in the blood plasma; they are merely being transported to the liver and kidneys where they can be removed from the blood

A

wastes

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14
Q
  • condition of having a concentration of erythrocytes below the normal range
  • tissues are unable to receive adequate O2
  • lethargy, shortness of breath, fatigue, skin pallor, and heart palpitations
A

anemia

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15
Q

caused by a homozygous mutation causing an amino acid substitution in hemoglobin, which renders the mature RBCs deformed and slightly rigid and can lead to capillary blockage

A

sickle cell anemia

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15
Q
  • suspended in an isotonic medium are flexible biconcave discs
  • 7.5 μm in diameter, 2.6-μm thick at the rim, but only 0.75-μm thick in the center
  • used by histologists as an internal standard to estimate the size of other nearby cells or structures
A

erythrocytes

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16
Q

shape provides a large surface-to-volume ratio and facilitates gas exchange for erythrocytes

A

biconcave

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17
Q

normal concentration of erythrocytes in blood for women

A

3.9-5.5 million per microliter

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18
Q

normal concentration of erythrocytes in blood for men

A

4.1-6.0 million/μL

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19
Q

In small vessels red blood cells also often stack up in loose aggregates called

A

rouleaux

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20
Q

Nucleus: 3-5 lobes

A

neutrophils

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21
Q

Nucleus: bilobed

A

eosinophils

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22
Q

Nucleus: bilobed or S-shaped

A

basophils

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23
Q

Nucleus: rather spherical

A

lymphocytes

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24
Q

Nucleus: indented or C-shaped

A

monocytes

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25
Q

Specific Granules: faint/light pink

A

neutrophils

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26
Q

Specific Granules: red/dark pink

A

eosinophils

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27
Q

Specific Granules: dark blue/purple

A

basophils

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28
Q

Differential Count: 50-70

A

granulocytes

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29
Q

Differential Count: 1-4

A

eosinophils

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30
Q

Differential Count:

A
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31
Q

Differential Count: 0.5 - 1

A

basophils

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32
Q

Differential Count: 20-40

A

lymphocytes

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33
Q

Differential Count: 2-8

A

monocytes

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34
Q

life span: 1-4d

A

neutrophils

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35
Q

life span: 1-2 wk

A

eosinophils

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36
Q

life span: several months

A

basophils

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37
Q

life span: hours to many years

A

lymphocytes

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38
Q

life span: hours to years

A

monocytes

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39
Q

Kill and phagocytose bacteria

A

neutrophils

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40
Q

Kill helminthic and other parasites; modulate local inflammation

A

eosinophils

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41
Q

Modulate inflammation, release histamine during allergy

A

basophils

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42
Q

Effector and regulatory cells for adaptive immunity

A

lymphocytes

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43
Q

Precursors of macrophages and other mononuclear phagocytic cells

A

monocytes

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44
Q

decreasing adhesion to the wall of venules, by causing the absence of specific granules, or with deficits in certain factors of the azurophilic granules. Individuals with such disorders typically experience more frequent and more persistent bacterial infections

A

neutrophil defects

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45
Q

Neutrophils look for bacteria to engulf by pseudopodia and internalize them in vacuoles called

A

phagosomes

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46
Q

events of neutrophil migration during inflammation

A
  1. Local macrophages activated by bacteria or tissue damage release proinflammatory cytokines
  2. Passing neutrophils with appropriate cell surface glycoproteins bind the selectins
  3. expression of new integrins on the rolling leukocytes and expression of the integrin ligand ICAM-1 on the endothelial cells.
  4. Integrins and their ligands provide firm endothelial adhesion of neutrophils to the endothelium
  5. Neutrophils become motile
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47
Q
  • identified by their multi- lobulated nuclei, with lobules held together by very thin strands
  • polymorphonuclear leukocytes or polymorphs
  • diameters ranging from 12 to 15 μm
A

neutrophils

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48
Q

condensed X chromosome appears as a drumstick appendage to a nuclear lobe

A

neutrophil from a female

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49
Q

increase in the number of eosinophils in blood ___ associated with allergic reactions and helminthic infections

A

eosinophilia

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50
Q
  • hormones from the adrenal cortex
  • produce a rapid decrease in the number of blood eosinophils
A

corticosteriods

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51
Q

Basophils and mast cells also are central to immediate
or type 1

A

hypersensitivity

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52
Q

group of disorders involving neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes or the failure of these cells to undergo apoptosis

A

lymphomas

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53
Q

short-lived as macrophages undergo apoptosis or leave the site

A

acute inflammation

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54
Q
  • continued recruitment of monocytes
  • continuous presence of macrophages can lead to excessive tissue damage
A

chronic inflammation

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55
Q

inhibitory effect on platelet function and blood coagulation because they block the local prostaglandin synthesis

A

aspirin

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56
Q

result from abnormally slow blood clotting

A

bleeding disorders

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57
Q

defect in the platelets is a rare autosomal recessive

A

glycoprotein lb deficiency

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58
Q

liquid portion of circulating blood

A

plasma

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59
Q

cells and platelets comprise the

A

formed elements

60
Q

upon clotting, some proteins are removed from plasma and others are released from platelets, forming a new liquid termed

61
Q

make up the hematocrit portion (~45%) of a blood sample, are enucleated, biconcave discs 7.5 μm in diameter, filled with hemoglobin for the uptake transport, and release of O2

A

RBC or erythrocytes

62
Q

normal life span of about of erythrocytes

63
Q
  • are broadly grouped as granulocytes or agranulocytes
  • become active outside the circulation
A

WBC or leukocytes

64
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

A

granulocytes

65
Q

lymphocytes, monocytes

A

agragranulocytes

66
Q

have specialized lysosomes called azurophilic granules and smaller specific granules with proteins for various cell-specific functions.

A

granulocytes

67
Q
  • most abundant type of leukocyte
  • polymorphic, multilobed nuclei, and faint pink cytoplasmic granules that contain many factors for highly efficient phagolysosomal killing and removal of bacteria
A

neutrophils

68
Q

bilobed nuclei and eosinophilic-specific granules containing factors for destruction of helminthic parasites and for modulating inflammation

A

eosinophils

69
Q
  • rarest type of circulating leukocyte
  • irregular bilobed nuclei and resemble mast cells with strongly basophilic specific granules containing factors important in allergies and chronic inflammatory conditions
  • histamine, heparin, chemokines, and various hydrolases
70
Q
  • agranulocytes with many functions as T- and B-cell subtypes in the immune system
  • roughly spherical nuclei with little cytoplasm and few organelles
A

lymphocytes

71
Q

larger agranulocytes with distinctly indented or C-shaped nuclei

72
Q

small (2-4 μm) cell fragments derived from megakaryocytes in bone marrow, with a marginal bundle of actin filaments, alpha granules and delta granules, and an open canalicular system of membranous vesicles

73
Q

Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type

A

carbohydrate

74
Q

What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to microglia and most antigen-presenting cells?

75
Q

What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?

76
Q

Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?

77
Q

A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?

A

eosinophils

78
Q

Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow?

A

t lymphocytes

79
Q

Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney- shaped nucleus. There cells are less than 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?

80
Q

A 43-year-old anatomy professor is working in her garden, pruning rose bushes without gloves, when a thorn deeply penetrates her forefinger. The next day the area has become infected. She removes the tip of the thorn, but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?

A

Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

81
Q

A 35-year-old woman’s physician orders laboratory blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?

A

Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

82
Q

A hematologist diagnoses a 34-year-old woman with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/ characteristics would one expect in this patient?

A

Abnormal bruising

83
Q

used clinically to increase marrow cellularity and blood cell counts in patients with conditions such as severe anemia or during chemo- or radio- therapy, which lower white blood cell counts

A

hemopoietic growth factors

84
Q

Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: platelets

A

progenitor cell -> megakaryoblast -> promegakaryocyte -> megakaryocyte -> proplatelet -> platelets

85
Q

Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: eosinophil

A

progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> eosinophilic myelyte -> eosinophilic metamyelocyte -> eosinophil

86
Q

Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: basophil

A

progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> basophilic myelocyte -> basophilic metamyelocyte -> basophil

87
Q

Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: neutrophil

A

progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> neutrophilic myelocyte -> neutrophilic metamyelocyte -> neutrophil

88
Q

Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: monocyte

A

progenitor cell -> monoblast -> promonocyte -> monocyte

89
Q
  • Mitogen for all hemopoietic progenitor cells
  • Stromal cells of bone marrow
A

stem cell factor

90
Q
  • Mitogen for all erythroid progenitor and precursor cells, also promoting their differentiation
  • Peritubular endothelial cells of the kidney; hepatocytes
A

erythropoietin

91
Q
  • Mitogen for megakaryoblasts and their progenitor cells
  • Kidney and liver
A

thrombopoietin

92
Q
  • Mitogen for all myeloid progenitor cells
  • Endothelial cells of bone marrow and T lymphocytes
A

Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor

93
Q
  • Mitogen for neutrophil precursor cells
  • Endothelial cells of bone marrow and macrophages
A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor

94
Q
  • Mitogen for monocyte precursor cells
  • Endothelial cells of marrow and macrophages
A

Monocyte colony-stimulating factor

95
Q
  • Regulates activities and cytokine secretion of many leukocytes and other cells
  • Macrophages and T helper cells
A

Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

96
Q
  • Mitogen for activated T and B cells; promotes differentiation of NK cells
  • T helper cells
A

Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

97
Q
  • Mitogen for all granulocyte and megakaryocyte progenitor cells
  • T helper cells
A

Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

98
Q
  • Promotes development of basophils and mast cells and B-lymphocyte activation
  • T helper cells
A

Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

99
Q
  • Promotes development and activation of eosinophils
  • T helper cells
A

Interleukin-5 (IL-5) or eosinophil differentiation factor (EDF)

100
Q
  • Mitogen for many leukocytes; promotes activation of B cells and regulatory T cells
  • Macrophages, neutrophils, local endothelial cells
A

Interleukin-6 (IL-6)

101
Q
  • Major mitogen for all lymphoid stem cells
  • Stromal cells of bone marrow
A

Interleukin-7 (IL-7)

102
Q

Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules

A

myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> myelocyte -> metamyelocyte

103
Q

Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules
No cytoplasmic granules

A

myeloblast

104
Q

Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules
First azurophilic granules being secreted in Golgi apparatus

A

promyelocyte

105
Q

Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules
Moderate number of azurophilic granules and
initial production of specific granules in Golgi zone

106
Q

Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules
Abundant specific granules and dispersed azurophilic granules; Golgi apparatus reduced

A

metamyelocyte

107
Q
  • appearance of large numbers of immature neutrophils (band cells) in the blood
  • indicating a bacterial infection.
A

shift to the left

108
Q

increase in the number of circulating neutrophils

A

neutrophilia

109
Q

erythrocyte maturation

A

proerythroblast -> basophilic erythroblast -> polychromatophilic erythroblast -> orthochromatophilic erythroblast -> nucleus ejected -> pyknotic nucleus -> erythrocyte

110
Q

Neutrophils exist in at least four anatomically and function- ally distinct compartments

A
  1. granulopoietic
  2. storage
  3. circulating
  4. marginating
111
Q

compartment in bone marrow with developing progenitor cells.

A

granulopoietic

112
Q

acts as a buffer system, capable of releasing large numbers of mature neutrophils as needed

113
Q

compartment throughout the blood.

A

circulating

114
Q

cells temporarily do not circulate but rather accumulate temporarily at the surface of the endothelium in venules and small veins.

A

marginating

115
Q

result from liberation of greater numbers of neutrophils from the medullary storage compartment and is typically followed by a recovery period during which no neutrophils are released

A

transitory neutrophilia

116
Q
  • malignant clones of leukocyte precursors
  • release of large numbers of immature cells into the blood and an overall shift in hemopoiesis
117
Q

leukemias occur in both lymphoid tissue

A

lympoblastic leukemias

118
Q

leukemias in bone marrow

A

myelogenous leukemias

119
Q

reduction in the number of circulating platelets

A

thrombocytopenia

120
Q

deficiencies of folic acid or vitamin B12

A

ineffective megakaryopoiesis

121
Q

stem cells for blood cell formation

A

pluripotent

122
Q

occur in the bone marrow of children and adults

A

hemopoiesis

123
Q

committed to forming each type of mature blood cell

A

progenitor cells

124
Q

active in hemopoiesis

A

red bone marrow

125
Q

consists mostly of adipose tissue

A

yellow bone marrow

126
Q

cords within marrow

A

erythropoietic islands

127
Q

At the last stage of erythropoiesis cell nuclei are extruded, producing ___ that still contain some polyribosomes but are released into the circulation.

A

reticulocytes

128
Q

Granulopoiesis includes

A
  1. myeloblasts
  2. promyelocytes
  3. myelocytes
  4. metamyelocytes
129
Q

large nuclei and relatively little cytoplasm

A

myeloblasts

130
Q

lysosomal azurophilic granules are produced

A

promyelocytes

131
Q

specific granules for one of the three types of granulocytes are formed

A

myelocytes

132
Q

characteristic changes in nuclear morphology occur

A

metamyelocytes

133
Q

Immature neutrophilic metamyelocytes called ___ are released prematurely when the compartment of circulating neutro- phils is deleted during bacterial infections.

A

band (stab) cells

134
Q

Immature neutrophilic metamyelocytes called ___ are released prematurely when the compartment of circulating neutro- phils is deleted during bacterial infections.

A

band (stab) cells

135
Q

produce monocytes in red marrow

A

monoblasts

136
Q

give rise to lymphocytes primarily in the lymphoid tissues in pro- cesses involving acquired immunity

A

lymphoblasts

137
Q

large polyploid cells of red bone marrow, produce platelets, or thrombocytes

A

megakaryocytes

138
Q

ends of cytoplasmic processes

A

proplatelets

139
Q

In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?

A

basophilic erythroblast

140
Q

Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of
formed element is released

A

megakaryocytes

141
Q

Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue?

A

Polyribosomes

142
Q

Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?

A

Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

143
Q

What fate often awaits granulocytes that have entered the marginating compartment?

A

Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue

144
Q

What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?

145
Q

Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed?

A

Lymphocyte

146
Q

Shortly after her birth a baby is diagnosed with a mutation in the erythropoietin receptor gene which leads to familial erythrocytosis (familial polycythemia). During the seventh to ninth months of fetal development, the primary effect on her red blood cell production was in which of the following?

A

Bone marrow

147
Q

A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted?

A

Basophilic erythroblasts

148
Q

A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?

A

Promyelocytic leukemia

Histology (7 decks)

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