Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

List the 3 general ways that a hormone can regulate the activity of its target cells.

A
  1. by activating an enzyme
  2. by activating a receptor that opens a channel
  3. by acting as a transcription factor…turns on gene
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2
Q

Describe the location of the receptors for lipid soluble hormones and water soluble hormones. Describe how these locations affect the way that a hormone (generally) regulates the activity of its target.

A

Water soluble hormone - Receptor always located outside the cell on the cell membrane. It activates enzymes and opens channels. (peptide/proteins - series of amino acids folded and epi/norepi)
Lipid soluble hormone - Receptor always located inside the cell (intracellular receptor) It activates transcription factors - turns on gene. (Steroid hormones and T3, T4 which act like steroid)

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3
Q

How are hormones once released into the blood removed from the blood?

A
  1. Enzymes in liver destroy them

2. You pee them out

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4
Q

List the three classes of hormones. For each class of hormone describe its chemical structure and give some examples of specific hormones.

A
  1. Peptide/ proteins - series of amino acids folded (insulin, parathyroid hormone)
  2. Steroid hormones - all made form cholesterol; lipid soluble (estrogen, androgens, cortisol)
  3. Amino Acid based - catecholamines and thyroid hormones (Catecholamines: epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine; Thyroid hormone: thyroxine T4 and T3)
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5
Q

When steroid hormones bind to their receptors:
A) adenylate cyclase is activated, B) ion channels are opened or closed, C) G proteins are inhibited, D) gene transcription may increase or decrease

A

D. gene transcription…..

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6
Q

Define the term trophic hormone. Explain how this term is used in physiology. List the major tropic hormones.

A

Trophic hormones - hormones that control the secretion of other hormones.
They cause secretion in endocrine glands
Major trophic hormones: ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH

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7
Q

The primary target (organ/cells) of glucagon is what?

A

Liver

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8
Q

The precise name of the cells that secrete glucagon is what? Where are they found?

A

alpha cells in the islet of Langerhans in the pancreas

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9
Q

The primary stimulus for glucagon secretion is what? Further describe the stimulus by listing a quantitate value.

A

Sympathetic NS (Low blood glucose levels)
normal: 100mg/dL
too high: 200mg/dL
too low: 50mg/dL

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10
Q

Describe each of the effects glucagon has on the target (include the substrate and product where appropriate). For each substrate list its primary source in the body.

A

Liver:
glycogenolysis (glycogen -> glucose)
gluconeogenesis (glycerol, some AA, pyruvate -> glucose)
Adipose tissue:
ketogenesis (fatty acids -> acetyl CoA -> ketone bodies)

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11
Q

How are the effects of glucagon critical for maintaining homeostasis?

A

Glycogenolysis takes stored forms of glucose and converts it back to glucose and gluconeogenesis takes other forms of energy and converts it to glucose in order to increase blood glucose levels back to their set point. Ketogenesis provides another source of energy to the CNS when it is low.

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12
Q

The primary targets (organ/cells) of insulin are what?

A

skeletal muscle, adipocytes, liver

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13
Q

The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is what? Further describe the stimulus by listing a quantitate value.

A

Parasympathetic NS (High blood glucose levels)
normal: 100mg/dL
too high: 200mg/dL
too low: 50mg/dL

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14
Q

The precise name of the cells that secrete insulin is what? They are found where?

A

beta cells in the Islet of Langerhans in the pancreas

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15
Q

Describe each effect insulin has on its targets (include the substrate and product where appropriate). For each substrate list its primary source in the body.

A

Skeletal muscle:
Increases glycolysis (glucose -> pyruvate)
Adipocytes:
Increase lipogenesis (glucose -> triglycerides)
Liver:
Increase glycogenesis (glucose -> glycogen)

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16
Q

How are the effects of insulin critical for maintaining homeostasis?

A

In order to decrease blood glucose levels back to wards their setpoint glucose is stored or converted into other forms throughout the body.

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17
Q

The force generated in a skeletal muscle cell is directly proportional to the number of what?

A

crossbridges formed

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18
Q

In order for cross-bridge to form in a contracting skeletal muscle cell, calcium must…

A

bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin

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19
Q

A myosin head is able to bind to what?

A

Actin and ATP

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20
Q

Describe the functions of sarcoplasmic reticulum. For each function name the protein responsible for the function and describe what it does and how it does what it does (mechanism)

A

Stores and releases Ca+2
Pumps in Ca+2 through the Ca+2 pump (1 ATP pumps 1 Ca+2)
Releases Ca+2 through the Ca+2 release channel which is physically/chemically connected to a voltage-sensitive Ca+2 channel that opens when brought to threshold by an AP.

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21
Q

The neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction is what? Is it excitatory or inhibitory?

A

ACh (Acetylcholine)

Always excitatory

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22
Q

The relaxation of skeletal muscle relies on the activity of the what? which decreases cytoplasmic calcium concentration.

A

Ca2+ ATPase (calcium pump)

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23
Q

Define “latent period.” Why does it exist? What is happening during the latent period?

A

The delay between the muscle action potential and the beginning of muscle tension development.
It is the time required for calcium release and binding to troponin.

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24
Q

Outline the primary ways that skeletal muscle cell has to regenerate its ATP pool.

A

Glycolysis:
Advantages - 1. Anaerobic, 2. Fast,
Disadvantages - 1. Yields only 2 ATP per glucose, 2. Requires glucose which is limited.

Kreb Cycle & Oxidation phosphorilation:
Advantages - 1. Requires fatty acids which are in unlimited supply, 2. yields 30 ATP per glucose
Disadvantages - 1. Requires oxygen, 2. Slow

Phosphocreatine: (MOST RAPIDLY)
Advantages - 1. really fast, 2. three times more creatin phosphate than ATP, 3. anaerobic
Disadvantages - 1. produces CO2

25
Q

During low intensity exercise, the ATP requirements of active muscles are likely to be met by metabolism of what?

A

fatty acids

26
Q

What are the two different types of muscle fibers/cells we are considering?

A

Fast twitch fibers/cells

Slow twitch fibers/cells

27
Q

What explains the differences in power generated (force) by the two types of muscle fibers/cells (fast twitch/slow twitch)?

A

Fast twitch are larger in diameter so it contains lots of myofibrils and uses fast myosin which has more crossbridge cycles per second.
Slow twitch are smaller in diameter and use slow myosin which has fewer crossbridge cycles per second.

28
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of our two muscle fiber/ cell types (fast twitch/slow twitch).

A

Fast twitch are large in diameter and contain lots of myofibrils and glycosomes
Slow twitch contain lots of mitochondria with very littel glycogen; myoblobin helps with oxygen delivery to mitochondria.

29
Q

Describe how each fiber type (fast twitch/slow twitch) regenerates its ATP pool.

A

Fast twitch uses glycolysis and phosphocreatine

Slow twitch uses oxidation phosphorilation.

30
Q

Motor units in skeletal muscles involved with fine motor movements (eye muscles or muscles that control the hands for example) would generally have (more/fewer/about the same number of) muscle fibers/cells than motor units in more powerful muscles.

A

Fewer

31
Q

At what percent of length is a muscle at its shortest? How much force? Why?

A

60%

No force generated because the Z discs contact the thick filaments - can’t condense any further.

32
Q

At what percent of length is a muscle fully stretched? How much force? Why?

A

180%

No force generated because the actin cannot make contact with myosin to bind and contract.

33
Q

Which protein is responsible for the conduction of action potentials along skeletal muscle cell membranes?

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

34
Q

Define motor unit as it applies to skeletal muscle. Does cardiac muscle have motor units? Explain.

A

Motor Unit - a somatic motor neuron and all skeletal muscles it innervates.
Cardiac muscles DO NOT have motor units. They communicate contraction through intercalated discs.

35
Q

Explain the mechanism by which cardiac muscle cells relax. Be sure to name the proteins (and ions) involved, and their activities.

A

Opening of voltage gated potassium channels releases potassium out of the cell and causes repolarization at which time the channels reset and the heart relaxes. A long refractory period prevents tetanus.

36
Q

How does the nervous system increase the force of contraction of skeletal muscles?

A

activate more motor units

37
Q

How does the nervous system increase the force of contraction of cardiac muscles?

A

stimulate individual muscle cells to contract with greater force.

38
Q

What are HCN channels?

A

“holy crap it’s Na+!” “funny channels”

Hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide gated Na+ channel

39
Q

HCN channels in the heart are stimulated to open by what?

A

hyperpolarization

40
Q

How does the parasympathetic nervous system influence heart rate?

A

Opens K+ channels

41
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system influence heart rate?

A

Opens HCN channels

42
Q

What is the Frank-Starling Law

A

CO: increase filling = increase EDV = increase stretch = increase contractility = increase SV

The Frank–Starling law of the heart states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.
(increase in filling = increase in EDV = increase in stretch = increase in contractility = increase stroke volume)

43
Q

Define filtration as it relates to capillaries. Why does filtration occur?

A

The movement of water and small molecules from the capillary in response to the difference in pressure. Filters about 20 L/day

44
Q

The hydrostatic pressure of the blood at the beginning of a continuous capillary is about what? at the end?

A

beginning: 32 mmHg
end: 16 mmHg

45
Q

The gaps between adjacent endothelial cells in capillaries are called what? What can and cannot pass through?

A

Clefts
CAN: fluid, small molecules, ions and nutrients
CANNOT: formed elements (plasma proteins cannot pass) - albumin, fibrinogen, globins, gammaglobins

46
Q

the process by which interstitial fluid is returned to the blood at capillaries is called what? How much is reabsorbed? Where is the remainder absorbed?

A

Reabsorption
90% which is ~ 18 L/day reabsorbed into capillaries
~2L/day is reabsorbed by the lymphatic system

47
Q

What is oncotic pressure? How does it operate?

A

form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel’s plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system.
~25mmHg

48
Q

List the phases of the cardiac cycle in order.

A
  1. Atrial and ventricular diastole
  2. Atrial systole
  3. Isovolumetric contraction
  4. ventricular ejection
  5. Isovolumetric relaxation
49
Q

For each phase of the cardiac cycle describe the primary events that occur. (focus on 1. which chambers in systole or diastole, 2. pressure changes, 3. valves opening and/or closing, 4. flow of blood)

A

Left Side:

  1. Atrial and ventricular diastole - some pressure in LA and lower pressure in LV; Aortic valve closed and left AV valve open; (passive filling) blood flows into the LV from the LA filling to about 80%
  2. Atrial Systole - pressure increases in the LA pushing blood from LA to the LV filling it to EDV (adding another about 20%)
  3. Isovolumetric Contraction - Ventricles enter systole; pressure rises in the ventricles; AV valves close so all four valves are closed; no filling/no ejection
  4. Ventricular ejection - when ventricular pressure is higher than aortic pressure then aortic valve is pushed open and the ventricle ejects 1 stroke volume (about 70mL); blood flows from LV into the aorta.
  5. Isovolumetric relaxation - ventricles relax; pressure drops and when ventricular pressure is lower than aortic the aortic valves close so all 4 valves are closed again.
50
Q

What is the major difference between the right and left sides of the heart?

A

Right ventricle generates a lower pressure.

LV=120mmHg/RV=25mmHg

51
Q

the most accurate definition of an artery is what?

A

a vessel that transports blood away from the heart

52
Q

How is blood flow through continuous capillaries controlled?

A

by metabolic products released by cells near the capillary.

53
Q

what are the “gaps” between the adjacent cells in a continuous capillary (regular body capillary) called?

A

intercellular clefts

54
Q

The vessels that are the main site of variable resistance in the circulatory system, and contributes most to the total resistance, are the what?

A

arterioles

55
Q

The hormone responsible for regulating hematocrit is what?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

56
Q

EPO is secreted mostly by the what?

A

spleen

57
Q

Which organ would respond most strongly to EPO?

A

Axial skeletal girdles/hemapoietic stem cells (ex. os coxa)

58
Q

Does parasympathetic activity have any effect on myocardial contractility?

A

not really

59
Q

Explain the myogenic mechanism in arterioles. Explain why it is significant.

A

An intrinsic local control over the vasoconstriction and vasodialation of arterioles in response to a sudden increase or decrease in pressure.
Maintains normal flow as we are constantly moving and pressure in our vessels is changing.