Lab Final Exam Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Urine has a pH that is typically about what?

A

somewhat acidic - about 5.5 - 6.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Should there be any odor to urine? What does it usually indicate if there is a bad smell to a fresh urine sample?

A

there is a slightly “nutty” odor to urine.

bad smell can indicate disease or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain what specific gravity is. What is it a measure of? What might a high specific gravity of urine indicate?

A

a measure of how concentrated the urine is.
normal range between about 1.003 (very dilute) and 1.030 (very concentrated.)
High specific gravity can indicate dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protein is not typically found in urine is it? Explain why or why not. When using the multistix what protein is being detected? If it is found what is the condition called?

A

Proteins do not normally pass through the filtration barrier.
Albumin is detected on the multistix
Condition is called proteinuria (possible causes - inflammation of glomerulus, high blood pressure, workout)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glucose is not usually found in urine. Explain why or why not. What is the renal plasma threshold for glucose? (include units). If it is found what is the condition called?

A

Glucose is usually all reabsorbed.
renal plasma threshold for glucose: about 200mg/dL
Condition: Glycosuria (caused by uncontrolled diabetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hemoglobin is not typically found in urine is it? Explain why or why not. If it is found what is the condition called?

A

Hemoglobin does not normally pass through the filtration barrier.
Condition: hemoglobinuria caused to a condition where RBC’s are lysing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ketone bodies are not typically found in urine is it? Explain why not. What might it mean if it is found? If it is found what is the condition called?

A

Ketone bodies do not normally pass through the filtration barrier.
Condition: Ketonuria
Cause: Heavy use of fatty acids for energy - starvation/fasting for several days; uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bilirubin. Is it normally found in urine? If it is what is the condition called? Explain some common causes that result in it being detected.

A

Bilirubinuria

Cause: liver disease such as hepatitis, liver failure, liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Are sediments normally found in urine? If any are describe them.

A
Yes.
Epithelial cells of the ureter or bladder
epithelial cell tubules
Bacterial clumps
RBC's
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can the presence of leukocyte esterase in the urine mean?

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the 2 major cells (parts) of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and describe what each does.

A
  1. Macula densa - The macula densa is a collection of specialized epithelial cells in the distal convoluted tubule that detect sodium concentration of the fluid in the tubule. In response to elevated sodium, the macula densa cells trigger contraction of the afferent arteriole, reducing flow of blood to the glomerulus and the glomerular filtration rate.
  2. Granular cells - derived from smooth muscle cells, of the afferent arteriole secrete renin when blood pressure in the arteriole falls. Renin increases blood pressure via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“GFR” stands for what? A typical GFR is about what?

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate

Typical - 180 L/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dilating the afferent arteriole has what effect on GFR?

A

It will increase it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Constricting the afferent arteriole has what effect on GFR?

A

It will decrease it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the GFR remain essentially constant despite a constantly changing mean arterial pressure (mechanisms).

A

The myogenic mechanism - afferent arteriole responds to sudden changes in pressure.
Increase BP = vasoconstriction
Decrease BP = vasodialation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the compensatory response of the afferent arteriole of suddenly higher mean arterial pressure. What is this mechanism called?

A

The myogenic mechanism - afferent arteriole responds to sudden changes in pressure.
Increase BP = vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the compensatory response of the afferent arteriole of suddenly lower mean arterial pressure. What is this mechanism called?

A

The myogenic mechanism - afferent arteriole responds to sudden changes in pressure.
Decrease BP = vasodialation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is glucose reabsorbed in the kidney? Be specific.

A

In the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the target of ADH? What effect does it have on urine volume? On urine concentration?

A

ADH influences the reabsorption of H2O in the collecting duct. It will decrease volume and increase concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the least common blood the United States?

A

AB-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 most common blood types in the United States?

A

O+ and A+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percent of patients will have 1 of these 2 types?

A

73%

23
Q

The “universal donor” blood type can be transfused into anyone. This type is what? Why?

A

O-
O- has no antigens so will not be targeted by antibodies;
there is nothing for a patients antibodies to bind to and agglutinate

24
Q

The universal recipient blood type is what? why?

A

AB+

Patient has no antibodies so it cannot agglutinate donor blood.

25
Q

If your blood agglutinates with anti-A, anti-B and anti-Rh sera, your blood type is what?

A

AB+

26
Q

If your blood agglutinates with only anti-A sera, your blood type is what?

A

A-

27
Q

A woman with type B blood claims a certain man is the father of her baby. The baby has type B blood. the man has type A blood. Is it possible for the baby to be his? why?

A

Yes.

We don’t know what their other genes are since we all carry two alleles.

28
Q

What are the blood transfusion rules?

A
  1. can receive own type and O blood

2. negative needs negative

29
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

accumulation of cells

30
Q

List the 4 factors included in Poiseulle’s law that determine the flow through vessels.

A

length
radius
viscosity
pressure

31
Q

What is the reversible reaction of carbon dioxide with water?

A

CO2 + H2O –> H2CO3 –> H+ + HCO-3

carbonic dioxide + water –> carbonic acid –> H+ + bicarbonate

32
Q

Too much CO2 = what?

A

acid [H+]

33
Q

If blood CO2 increases, what happens to blood pH? What could it cause?

A

blood pH decreases

acidosis

34
Q

If blood CO2 decreases, what happens to blood pH? What could it cause?

A

blood pH increases

alkalosis

35
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the reaction of carbon dioxide with water?

A

carbonic anhydrase

36
Q

What does the law of mass action mean in regards to the carbon dioxide + water reaction?

A

the reaction will go in the direction away from whatever there is most of…
(e.g. if there is lots of CO2 + H2) then —>
if there is lots of H+ and HCO-3 then it will go in reverse.

37
Q

Too little CO2 = what?

A

base HCO-3

38
Q

What are the three buffers systems in the blood? What is the main buffer system in the blood?

A

carbonic acid - bicarbonate buffer system - MAIN
phosphate buffer system
other molecules (plasma proteins/hemoglobin)

39
Q

What does ELISA stand for? What is it?

A

Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay

Diagnostic test to determine if a specific substance (antigen)_is present in a solution

40
Q

What types of antigens does the ELISA test detect?

A

Viruses (HIV, hepatitis)
Antibodies (TB)
Drugs
Hormones (hCG - human chorionic gonadotropin)

41
Q

What is hCG? What produces it? What does it do?

A

human Chorionic Gonadotropin
It’s a hormone produced by embryonic tissue
maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy, prevents menstruation

42
Q

What is GnRH?

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone

43
Q

What is the feedback pathway for GnRH in a female?

A

Hypothalamus releases GnRH which signals the
Anterior Pituitary to release LH (and FSH) which targets
the Corpus Luteum or the ovarian follicle.
Corpus Luteum releases progesterone and estrogen to the Uterus which initiates the menstrual phase or maintains secretory phase if an embryo is present.
The ovarian follicle release estrogen to the uterus which signals a new proliferative phase

44
Q

What is the feedback pathway for GnRH in a male?

A

Hypothalamus releases GnRH which signals the
Anterior Pituitary to release LH which targets the Leydig cells. Leydig cells release testosterone which maintains sex organs. (sperm production, hair, skin, muscle, bone growth.)

45
Q

What is required for spermatogenesis?

A

testosterone and sertoli cells (stimulated by FSH)

46
Q

FSH is secreted by what?

A

anterior pituitary

47
Q

Testosterone is secreted by what?

A

leydig cells

48
Q

What are the three parts of sperm?

A
  1. head
  2. midpiece
  3. tail (flagellum)
49
Q

What are the two main parts of an ovarian follicle?

A
  1. Oocyte

2. granulosa cells that produce estrogen

50
Q

What controls the development of ovarian follicles?

A

the hypothalamus

51
Q

Describe a primary follicle.

A

inactive or stimulated - single layer of granulosa cells

52
Q

Describe a secondary follicle.

A

at least 2 layers of granulosa cells, may have some fluid filled spaces.

53
Q

Describe a Graafian follicle

A

mature follicle with a single fluid filled antrum - produces a significant amount of estrogen

54
Q

What is the corpus luteum? What does it do?

A

remnants of follicles
it secretes progesterone and estrogen which inhibit LH secretion which causes the corpus luteum to lose hormonal support resulting in a corpus albicans