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Physiology > Lab Final Exam Unit 1 > Flashcards

Lab Final Exam Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Part of the microscope that you put the slide on…

A

stage

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2
Q

What are the lenses called on the revolving nosepiece on the microscope?

A

Objectives

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3
Q

Part of the microscope that you look through…

A

Oculars

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4
Q

What is the microscope FOV?

A

Field of Vision - the area that you see through the oculars

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5
Q

What is the microscope TM? What is the TM of the 40 objective lens?

A

Total magnification - Objective power x 10

Objective 40 = 400 TM

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6
Q

What does kilo (k) mean? 1 kg = how many grams?

A

thousand

1 kg = 1000 g

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7
Q

What does deci (d) mean? 1 L = how many dL?

A

tenth

1 L = 10 dL

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8
Q

What does centi (c) mean? 1 m = how many cm?

A

hundredth

1 m = 100 cm

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9
Q

What does milli (m) mean? 1 m = how many mm?

A

thousandth

1 m = 1000 mm

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10
Q

What does micro (u) mean? 1 m = how many um?

A

millionth

1 m = 1,000,000 um

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11
Q

How do you read a volume in a test tube?

A

at the meniscus

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12
Q

Define Molarity. What are the units of Molarity?

A

A measure of the concentration of a solute in a solution.

Molarity = moles solute/liters solution

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13
Q

mole =

A

molecular weight in grams (grams/mole)

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14
Q

What is the formula for making a molar solution?

A

(The volume you want) x (The concentration you need) x (grams/mole) = grams

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15
Q

How would you make 1 liter of a 1 Molar solution of NaCl? What is the formula and the steps?

A

(1L) x (1 mol/L) x (58.5 grams/mol) = 58.5 grams
First weigh out and add NaCl
Then fill to 1 Liter with water

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16
Q

What is the formula for percent solution?

A

Percent solution = number of grams of solute/100mL of solution

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17
Q

How would you make 100 mL of a 0.9% NaCl solution?

Formula and steps.

A

(100mL) x (0.9grams/100mL) = 0.9grams
First weigh out 0.9grams NaCl and add
Then fill to 100 mL with water

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18
Q

What is the molecular formula for glucose?

A

C6H12O6

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19
Q

How would you calculate the Molarity of 150 grams of glucose dissolved into 2500 mL of solution?

A

M = moles/L

2500mL (1L/1000mL) = 2.5L

150g C6H12O6 (1mol C6H12O6/180g C6H12O6) = 0.83mol C6H12O6

M = 0.83mol/2.5L

= 0.33M

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20
Q

What is the Dilution calculation formula relating Molarity and volume?

A

M1V1 = M2V2

Molarity of original) x (Volume of original) = (Molarity of final) x (Volume of final

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21
Q

Define solute

A

something dissolved in something else

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22
Q

Define solvent

A

does the dissolving

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23
Q

Solution

A

the product of two substances that entirely mix

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24
Q

Define homeostasis

A

the maintenance of a relatively stable environment

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25
Q

Define set point

A

ideal value of a variable

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26
Q

What is negative feedback? Give a specific example in the body.

A

The system that opposes a change in a variable.

heartrate

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27
Q

What is positive feedback? Give a specific example in the body.

A

The system that increases a change in a variable.

childbirth

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28
Q

What are the 7 parts of a control system/feedback loop?

A
  1. Stimulus - change in regulated variable
  2. Sensor - (neuron, endocrine cell) detects change in variable
  3. Sensory input - the sensory signal/information that is sent to the….
  4. Integrating Center - Receives sensory information, determines set point for the variable, compares/analyses information, makes a decision, then generates…
  5. Output signal - Command sent to…
  6. Target(s) Effector - a body structure that can influence the variable
  7. Response - change in the variable
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29
Q

Describe a negative feedback loop for the regulation of body temperature.

A 
Stimulus - increase in body temp
Sensor - hypothalamus
Input Signal - action potential
Integrating Center - hypothalamus
Output Signal - action potential
Target/Effector - 1. increase activity of sweat glands; 2. vasodilation of cutaneous vessels
Response - reduce in body temp
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30
Q

Identify the location and function of simple squamous epithelium.

A

Location: lining of Bowman’s capsule of kidney, lining alveoli
Function: Filtration of fluid from capillaries, diffusion of oxygen in alveolus

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31
Q

Identify the location and function of stratified squamous epithelium.

A

Location: lining of esophagus
Function: protection from friction

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32
Q

Identify the location and function of simple cuboidal epithelium.

A

Location: the PCT of the kidney
Function: reabsorption of water in the kidney; reabsorption of glucose

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33
Q

Identify the location and function of pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

A

Location: lining of the trachea
Function: secretion of mucus to trap particles

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34
Q

Identify the location and function of transitional epithelium.

A

Location: lining of the bladder
Function: distention

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35
Q

Identify the location and function of loose areolar connective tissue.

A

Location: underneath epithelia
Function: wraps and cushions organs

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36
Q

Identify the location and function of adipose connective tissue.

A

Location: hyperdermis
Function: storing triglycerides for energy

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37
Q

Identify the location and function of hyaline cartilage

A

Location: makes up costal cartilage
Function: resists compression when one bone is pushing against another

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38
Q

Identify the location and function of osseouss tissue.

A

Bone tissue
Location: in bones
Function: calcium storage

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39
Q

Identify the location and structural features of skeletal muscle tissue.

A

Location: skeletal muscles

Structural features: long multinucleate cells with striations

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40
Q

Identify the location and structural features of cardiac muscle tissue.

A

Location: myocardium

Structural features: branched cell bodies with striations and intercalated discs

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41
Q

Identify the location and structural features of smooth muscle tissue.

A

Location: within the walls of other “hollow organs” (stomach, vagina, blood vessels, uterus, intestines)
Structural features: fusiform cell bodies without striations and centrally located nuclei.

42
Q

Normal human body cells have how many chromosomes?

A

46

43
Q

What are the four phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

44
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

A

Chromosomes condense and become visible, spindle fibers attach to centromeres and pull chromosomes in opposite directions. The nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

45
Q

What happens in metaphase of mitosis?

A

Chromosomes align along metaphase plate.

46
Q

What happens in anaphase of mitosis?

A

Centromeres split and chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of cell.

47
Q

What happens in telophase of mitosis?

A

each chromatid is now a chromosome. New nuclear envelope forms, spindle disassembles. Division of the cytoplasm.

48
Q

If you could make visible a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle what would it look like?

A

The chromosomes are in an extended form and seen as chromatin, the nucleus is visible.

49
Q

What are the phases of interphase of the cell cycle and what is happening during each phase?

A

G1 - the cell grows
S Phase - the cell makes copies of its chromosomes. Each chromosome now consists of two sister chromatids
G2 - the cell checks its duplicated chromosomes and gets ready to divide

50
Q

A picture of a persons chromosome is called what?

A

karyotype

51
Q

Describe the primary structure of a protein.

A

linear sequence of amino acids

52
Q

Prophase 1 of Meiosis has some important differences compared to mitosis. Describe the major differences.

A

In meiosis homologous chromosomes pair up and form tetrads and then crossover occurs, in Mitosis the tetrads are already formed and spindle fibers attach to their centromeres. .

53
Q

What happens in prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes pair up and chromatids form tetrads (synapsis). Crossover occurs, which mixes gene combinations.

54
Q

What happens in metaphase 1 of meiosis?

A

Homologs align one on either side of metaphase plate. non-homologous chromosomes assort independently.

55
Q

What happens in Anaphase 1 of meiosis?

A

Homologous are pulled to opposite ends of the cell, halving the chromosome number.

56
Q

What happens in telophase 1 of meiosis?

A

2 genetically distinct haploid (n) cells formed.

57
Q

In meiosis 2, what happens during prophase 2, metaphase 2, and anaphase 2?

A

Basically the same thing as in mitosis.

58
Q

Metaphase 1 of meiosis has some important difference compared to mitosis. Describe the major differences.

A

In meiosis tetrad pairs line up along the metaphase plate, one on either side and in mitosis single tetrads line up along the metaphase plate.

59
Q

Anaphase 1 of meiosis has some important difference compared to mitosis. Describe the major differences.

A

In meiosis the tetrad pairs are pulled to opposite ends of the cell halving the chromosome number and in mitosis the tetrads split at the centromeres and the chromatids are pulled to the opposite end of the cell.

60
Q

How many chromosomes are present in a sperm after meiosis is complete?

A

23

61
Q

What is a gene?

A

a functional unit of DNA that codes for the production of specific polypeptide or a specific protein.

62
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

a series of chemical reactions occurring within a cell. These reactions are catalyzed by enzymes, where the product of one enzyme acts as the substrate for the next.

63
Q

Define inborn errors of metabolism.

A

inheritable gene defects that affect the metabolism of macromolecules, most often simply because the lack of a single enzyme.

64
Q

What are some examples of inborn errors of metabolism?

A

lactose intolerance - lactose not catabolized in gut and is being absorbed
albinism - lack of melanin
hypercholesterolemia - high blood cholesterol

65
Q

Define heterozygous.

A

the 2 alleles in an individual are different

66
Q

Define homozygous.

A

the 2 alleles in an individual are the same.

67
Q

Define phenotype.

A

the expression of the genotype - refers to the trait the person has.

68
Q

Define genotype.

A

the actual genetic make-up of an individual for a trait. the combination of alleles they possess.

69
Q

A woman who carries the normal gene for red-green color vision (and is not a carrier) has children with a red-green colorblind man. Red green color blindness is a sex linked trait. What would my punnett square look like? What % of sons will be color blind? What % of daughters will be color blind? What percent of each will be carriers?

A

Woman - XAXA
Man - XaY
Neither their sons or daughters will be colorblind.
100% chance of their daughters being carriers
0% chance of their sons being carriers

70
Q

People who are carriers of autosomal recessive diseases show no symptoms of the disease. How can this be? Provide a molecular explanation as to why this is.

A

they are carriers because they are heterozygous. Since the disease lies in the recessive gene and the dominant gene produces the required enzyme, the disease does not manifest.

71
Q

What is the technique used to separate molecules?

A

electrophoresis

72
Q

What does the order of proteins on the gel tell us in electrophoresis?

A

relative sizes and/or degrees of charge of the proteins. Smaller more negatively charged proteins generally migrate faster than bigger ones.

73
Q

What does the intensity on the gel tell us in electrophoresis?

A

relative concentrations of the different proteins.

74
Q

What does the width of the band on the gel tell us in electrophoresis?

A

indicates the molecular weight variability within a protein group. narrow band indicates a group with (almost) the same molecular weights - a homogeneous group. wide band indicates many different molecular sizes - a heterogeneous group.

75
Q

What is the smallest most abundant protein? Where are most of the serum proteins made in the body? What is their function?

A

albumin; liver; colloid osmotic pressure

76
Q

What is the largest protein? where are they made? which body cells produce them? what is their function?

A

gamma globulins; made in the lymphocytes and plasma cells of the immune system; circulating antibodies

77
Q

What does an extra chromosome in the 21st place indicate?

A

trisomy 21 - down syndrome

78
Q

Why is it less likely for a woman to have a sex-linked trait like colorblindness?

A

Colorblindness is carried on the X chromosome. Since the females have two copies of the X chromosome, chances of them to have the trait is much less than a male who only has one X chromosome.

79
Q

How many chromosomes would a liver cell have? What about a sperm cell?

A

46; 23

80
Q

List the functions of the major serum proteins

A
  1. colloid osmotic pressure
  2. transport lipids, steroids, iron
  3. circulating antibodies
81
Q

How is serum different from blood plasma? Which important factor is missing?

A

Serum is the part of blood which is similar in composition with plasma but excludes clotting factors of the blood.
The protein fibrinogen is missing in serum.

82
Q

A molecule that can have either a positive or negative charge is called what?

A

amphoteric

83
Q

Why is a buffer of pH 8.3 used in electrophoresis?

A

to negatively charge the proteins so they will be drawn toward the positive charge.

84
Q

What two groups does a generalized amino acid have?

A

an amine group (NH2) and a carboxyl group (C=O,-OH)

85
Q

What factors influence the rate of migration of proteins?

A

size/molecular weight
Charge of the molecule/protein
How difficult the environment

86
Q

What machine is used as an important means of detecting and measuring concentrations of substances in solutions?

A

Spectrophotometer

87
Q

What does spectrophotometer actually measure?

A

how much light can pass through a solution

88
Q

What does Beer’s Law state?

A

The amount of absorbed light is directly proportional to the molar concentration of the molecule(s) in solution.

89
Q

What does the acronym “BMR” stand for?

A

Basal metabolic rate

90
Q

Define BMR.

A

the rate required for body maintenance during resting.

91
Q

List four factors that raise the MR and four that lower it.

A

Raise: 1. activity 2. temperature (hot) 3. digestion 4. pregnancy or sickness
Lower: 1. sleeping 2. temperature (cold) 3. fasting 4. depressant drugs

92
Q

Write out the complete chemical equation for the oxidation of glucose.

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6CO2 + 6H2O = 30ATP

93
Q

Define metabolism.

A

the sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in cells.

94
Q

Define isotonic solution.

A

volume of the cell does not change

95
Q

Define hypertonic solution.

A

sucks water from a cell (cell crenates)

96
Q

Define hypotonic jsolution.

A

water enters cell and increases volume (cell may lyse)

97
Q

What term is used to describe the volume change in a cell?

A

tonicity

98
Q

What is the normal osmotic concentration of ECF?

A

300 mOsm

99
Q

how do you calculate osmolarity?

A

osmolarity = M x osmoles

1 mole NaCl = 2 Osmoles so 0.6M NaCl solution would = 1.2 OsM

100
Q

Define Osmosis.

A

the diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane

Physiology (25 decks)

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