Lab Final Exam Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

EKG (or ECG). What does it stand for? What does it measure?

A

Electrocardiography

it records the electrical activity of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identify major deflections waves. Describe what is being detected for each deflection wave.

A

P-wave depolarization of the atria
QRS complex-depolarization of the ventricles (followed by ventricular systole) and repolarization of atria
T-wave - ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

explain the specific differences in the ECG with exercise. Which interval and which segment changed the most with exercise? what do these changes tell you?

A

Intervals and segments were shorter with exercise.
R-R interval (shorter cardiac cycles) and T-P segment (atria and ventricles in diastole) changed the most.
With exercise the heart spends less time in diastole so doesn’t get to rest as long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the chambers, valves, and vessels on the right side of the heart?

A

Superior and Inferior vena cava flow into the right atrium.
The right AV valve (tricuspid valve) flows to the right ventricle.
the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary semilunar valve flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the chambers, valves, and vessels on the left side of the heart?

A

The four pulmonary veins flow into the left atrium.
The left AV valve (bicuspid valve) flows to the left ventricle.
The Ascending aorta and the aortic semilunar valve flow from the left ventricle to the systemic circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of the electrical conducting system?

A
  1. SA Node (sino atrial node) - receives impulse
  2. AV Node (atrioventricular node) - in right atrium
  3. Av Bundle of His - leads from the AV node to the right ventricle
  4. Right and left branches of bundles of His
  5. Purkinje fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine on a frog heart?

A

increase HR, increase contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the effects of ACH on a frog heart?

A

decrease HR, decrease contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the effects of atropine on a frog heart?

A

increase HR, increase contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the effects of caffeine on a frog heart?

A

increase HR, increase contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the effects of pilocarpine on a frog heart?

A

decrease HR, decrease contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of receptor does epinephrine bind to?

A

beta 1 adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of receptor does ACh bind to?

A

muscarinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 5 stages of the cardiac cycle?

A
  1. atrial and ventrical diasotle - aortic valve closed, left AV valve open, passive filling
  2. atrial systole
  3. isovolumetric contraction - rising ventricular pressure closes AV valves; all 4 valves closed, no filling or ejection
  4. ventricular ejection - ventricular pressure higher than aortic pushing the aortic valve open and ventricle ejects about 70 mL = 1 stroke volume
  5. isovolumetric relaxation - ventricle relaxes and pressure drops. when ventricular pressure is lower than aortic then the aortic valve closes - all 4 valves closes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between the right and left side of heart?

A

right ventricle generates lower pressure

LV = 120 mmHg, RV = 25 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The first heart sound is the sound of what happening in the heart? What deflection wave on the ECG is associated with the first heart sound?

A

“lub” is the sound of AV valves closing
The sound happens immediately after the R in the QRS wave - as the ventricles contract the intraventricular pressure rises causing the AV valves to snap shut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The second heart sound is the sound of what happening in the heart? What deflection wave on the ECG is associated with the second heart sound?

A

“dub” is the sound of the semilunar valves closing.
the sound happens as the T wave begins - as pressure in the ventricle drops and aortic pressure rises it causes the semilunar valves to close.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the device used to measure blood pressure non-invasively. Name the sounds heard when using the auscultatory method.

A

Sphygmomanometer

Korotkoff sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

On an ECG, identify when each phase of the cardiac cycle would begin and end.

A

P wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the formula to calculate pulse pressure?

A

Pulse pressure = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure (in mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the formula to calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A

MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define full hypertension. List the health consequences of having chronic hypertension.

A

systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg or higher OR diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg or greater.
Consequences: stroke, myocardial infarction, heart failure, arterial aneurysm, renal failure ….. all can result in death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 3 layers of artery walls and what do they consist of?

A
  1. Tunica intima - endothelium of simple squamous epithelium; internal elastic lamina
  2. Tunica media - smooth muscle; sheets of elastic tissue
  3. Tunic externa - loose connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 layers of vein walls and what do they consist of?

A
  1. Tunica intima - endothelium of simple squamous epithelium
  2. Tunica media - smooth muscle
  3. Tunic externa - loose connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is 1 stroke volume?

A

the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle during one systole - 70 mL

26
Q

definition of cardiac output

A

the total amount of blood moved through one ventricle in one minute - 5L

27
Q

What are the two types of leucocytes?

A

granulocytes

agranulocytes

28
Q

What are the three types of granulocytes? provide description of each.

A
  1. neutrophils - contains very small pink and blue staining granules, several connected nuclei “weird sausages”
  2. eosinophils - large red granules, usually 2-lobed nucleus
  3. basophils - large blue granules covering entire surface, 2 lobes bent or in U or S shape.
29
Q

What are the two types of agranulocytes? Provide description of each?

A
  1. lymphocytes - cell is relatively small with large single nucleus.
  2. monocytes - large cell, kidney shaped nucleus
30
Q

What is the function of a neutrophil?

A

phagocytize bacteria

31
Q

What is the function of a eosinophil?

A

releases granules that inhibit parasitic worms and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals

32
Q

What is the function of a basophil?

A

releases histamine which causes inflammation in tissue

33
Q

What is the function of a lymphocyte? What are the two types?

A

General function - specific immunity; require exposure and “learning”

  1. T lymphocytes - “learn” to recognize a specific protein and bind to the cell possessing it. Inserts chemicals that activate a “self destruction” pathway inside the cell, or form a “pore” in the membrane that kills the cell.
  2. B lymphocytes - Antibodies bind to specific proteins on the surface of pathogens and target them for destruction by macrophages.
34
Q

What is the function of a monocyte?

A

move around and phagocytize baceria and dead blood cells.

35
Q

Define hematocrit and state the normal values for men and women.

A

volume of blood made of RBC’s expressed as a % of blood volume.
Adult males: 42% - 54%
Adult females: 38% - 46%

36
Q

Define anemia

A

condition of having too few red blood cells

37
Q

define polycythemia

A

condition of having too many red blood cells

38
Q

What does TV stand for? definition? typical value?

A

tidal volume - the volume of air in a normal quiet breath

~500mL

39
Q

What does IRV stand for? definition? typical value?

A

inpiratory reserve volume - the volume of additional air that can be inspired following a tidal inspiration
~3000mL

40
Q

What does ERV stand for? definition? typical value?

A

expiratory reserve volume - the volume of additional air that can be expired following a tidal expiration
~1L

41
Q

What does RV stand for? definition?

A

Residual volume - the volume of air that remains in lungs after an ERV

42
Q

What does VC stand for? definition? typical value?

A

vital capacity - the max volume of air that can be moved

~5L

43
Q

What does TLC stand for? definition? typical value?

A

total lung capacity - the max volume of air that can be in the lungs
~6L

44
Q

How can you calculate VC?

A

VC = IRV + TV + ERV

45
Q

What does FEV1 stand for? definition? typical value?

A

forced expiratory volume - percent of vital capacity expired in first second of forced expiration
(75% or better)

46
Q

Define Obstructive disorders and give examples.

A

low FEV1 value

asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema

47
Q

Define Restrictive disorders and give an example.

A

low VC value

pulmonary fibrosis

48
Q

Define pneumothorax and atelectasis.

A

While pneumothorax may be referred to as a collapsed lung, people sometimes use the term ‘collapsed lung’ to refer to atelectasis. Atelectasis refers to improper amounts of air in the alveoli (air sacs), resulting in a loss of volume in all or part of the lung. This loss of air in the alveoli can be due to obstruction.

49
Q

What is the normal range of arterial blood pH?

A

7.35-7.45

50
Q

define acidosis.

A

the condition where arterial blood pH is below normal.

51
Q

define alkalosis.

A

the condition where arterial blood pH is above normal.

52
Q

The condition where arterial blood pH is below normal due to accumulation of CO2 is called what? Give an example of a situation.

A

respiratory acidosis - lungs can’t remove enough CO2.

asthma, COPD, pneumonia, some drugs

53
Q

The condition where arterial blood pH is above normal due to decrease of CO2 is called what? Give an example of a situation.

A

respiratory alkolosis - CO2 levels drop too low

hyperventilation

54
Q

The condition where arterial blood pH is below normal due another reason besides the accumulation of CO2 is called what? Give an example of a situation.

A

metabolic acidosis

production of excess metabolic acids such as lactic acid or ketone bodies; liver failure

55
Q

The condition where arterial blood pH is above normal due another reason besides the decrease of CO2 is called what? Give an example of a situation.

A

metabolic alkalosis

excessive vomiting, excessive base intake such as antacids

56
Q

How does the respiratory system compensate for acidosis?

A

get rid of [H+]!

increase ventilation depth and/or rate

57
Q

How does the respiratory system compensate for alkalosis?

A

get rid of HCO-3!

decrease ventilation depth

58
Q

How does the renal system compensate for acidosis?

A

get rid of [H+]!

secretion of H+ from blood into filtrate; reabsorption of HCO-3

59
Q

How does the renal system compensate for alkalosis?

A

get rid of HCO-3!

less HCO-3 is reabosrbed (retain H+ and excrete bicarbonate)

60
Q

what is the bainbridge reflex? what is the receptor?

A

The Bainbridge reflex (atrial reflex) occurs when the heart increases in response to an increase in atrial pressure.
atrial receptor at the SA node