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Pathophysiology > Midterm 2 Module 6-11 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Module 6-11 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of infection is the common cold?

A

Upper Respiratory Tract Infection/ Viral Infection

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2
Q

What is pneumonia? What tests would be ordered to determine the cause?

A

Lower Respiratory Tract Infection. Develops as primary acute infection in lungs or secondary to another infection like a cold.
Chest X-ray

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3
Q

What is atelectasis of the lung?

A

complete or partial collapse of the entire lung or lobe of the lung. It occurs when the alveoli within the lung become deflated or possibly filled with alveolar fluid.

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4
Q

What is an ABG, and what does it allow us to measure?

A

Arterial Blood Gas. Measures O2, CO2, bicarbonate, serum pH

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5
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disorder

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6
Q

What are the 2 main conditions of COPD? Describe them.

A

Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis.
Emphysema is Destruction of alveolar walls, leading to large, permanently inflated alveolar air spaces.
Chronic Bronchitis is Inflammation, obstruction, repeated infection, chronic coughing

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7
Q

In what clients do we often see a barrel chest?

A

COPD Emphysema. Hyperventilation with prolonged expiratory phase and fixation of ribs in an inspiratory
position, increased anterior-posterior diameter of thorax
(barrel chest)

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8
Q

Why do we see “clubbing” in many COPD patients?

A

check textbook

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9
Q

Why do COPD patients require low levels of oxygen concentration (describe hypoxic drive)?

A

check textbook

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10
Q

What is the difference between the common cold and influenza?

A

check textbook

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11
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Tuberculosis is a disease caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. TB mainly infects the lungs, although it can also affect other organs. When someone with untreated TB coughs or sneezes, the air is filled with droplets containing the bacteria.

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12
Q

What is the difference between a primary infection and a secondary infection of tuberculosis?

A

Primary- first enters the lungs, Engulfed by macrophages—local inflammation
Secondary- Reinfected Occurs when immunity is impaired due to: Stress, Malnutrition, HIV infection,Age

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13
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Genetic Disorder affecting the exocrine glands. It causes the production of abnormally thick mucus, leading to the blockage of the pancreatic ducts, intestines, and bronchi and often resulting in respiratory infection.

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14
Q

Describe Lung Cancer, its complications, and some signs and symptoms.

A

Complications: Obstruction of airflow, Inflammation and bleeding surrounding the tumor, Cough, hemoptysis, and secondary infections, Pleural effusion, hemothorax, pneumothorax, usual systemic effects of cancer.
Signs/Symptoms:Persistent productive cough, Hemoptysis, Chest pain, Hoarseness, facial or arm edema, headache.
dysphagia, or atelectasis

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15
Q

What is the cause of most lung cancer tumors?

A

Smoking (90%)

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16
Q

What is asthma?

A

A respiratory condition marked by spasms in the bronchi of the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing.

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17
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A 
Inflammation, obstruction, repeated infection, and chronic coughing. Signs and symptoms include: Tachypnea and shortness of breath
Thick and purulent secretions
Wheezes and crackles
Hypoxia, cyanosis, hypercapnia
Weight loss
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18
Q

What is Pulmonary Edema?

A

Pulmonary edema is fluid accumulation in the tissue and air spaces of the lungs.

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19
Q

What are signs of pulmonary edema?

A

Extreme shortness of breath or difficulty breathing (dyspnea) that worsens with activity or when lying down.
A feeling of suffocating or drowning that worsens when lying down.
Wheezing or gasping for breath.
Cold, clammy skin.

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20
Q

What is a Pulmonary Embolism? Where does it usually come from? What is the difference between embolus & thrombus?

A

Blood clot or mass that obstructs pulmonary
artery or any of its branches.
90% of pulmonary emboli originate from deep vein thromboses in legs & are preventable.
A thrombus is a blood clot that forms in a vein.
An embolus is anything that travels through the blood vessels until it reaches a vessel that is too small to let it pass.

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21
Q

What are the signs of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Depends on size.
Smaller: Chest pain, cough, & dyspnea.
Larger: Crushing chest pain, rapid pulse, low BP

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22
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Presence of excessive fluid in the pleural cavity which causes increased pressure in pleural cavity.

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23
Q

What is a pneumothorax? Note there are 3 different kinds of pneumothorax describe their general differences (spontaneous, open, tension)

A

Air in the pleural cavity/collapsed lung.
Spontaneous: Tear in surface due to trauma
Open: Air enters though opening in chest wall, large open “Sucking” wound.
Tension: Most serious form result of opening through chest wall and parietal pleura, air entry into pleural cavity on inspiration but hole
closes on expiration trapping air > atelectasis

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24
Q

What is Cor Pulmonale?

A

an alteration in the structure and function of the right ventricle (RV) of the heart caused by a primary disorder of the respiratory system

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25
Q

What is ICP? What are the early signs of ICP? What needs to monitored?

A 
Increased Inter-cranial Pressure.
headache
nausea
vomiting
increased blood pressure
decreased mental abilities
Monitor Vital Signs specifically increased BP, irregular breathing, and bradycardia.
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26
Q

What are the late signs of ICP?

A

Usually one pupil becomes fixed or unresponsive to light and dilated as the PNS nerves become nonfunctional d/t pressure

Droopy eyelid d/t impaired cranial nerve III

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27
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Transient Ischemic Attacks. Temporary localized reduction of blood flow.

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28
Q

What part of the memory goes first with progressive dementias, such as Alzheimer’s?

A

Long-term memory

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29
Q

What is a CVA?

A

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)

30
Q

What are tonic-clonic seizures?

A

A generalized tonic–clonic seizure (also known as a grand mal seizure) is a type of generalized seizure that affects the entire brain. Tonic–clonic seizures are the seizure type most commonly associated with epilepsy and seizures in general.

31
Q

In approx. 50% of clients, what clinical sign indicates the onset of a grand mal seizure?

A

textbook

32
Q

What are the signs of MS?

A

Blurred vision, weakness in legs, Diplopia (double vision), Dysarthria, Paresthesia, Progressive weakness extending to upper limbs, Loss of bladder, bowel control, chronic fatigue

33
Q

What happens to the myelin sheath of the nerves with MS?

A

Becomes damaged and the nerves cannot send signals.

34
Q

What age group does MS affect?

A

20-40

35
Q

What is Parkinson’s?

A

Progressive degenerative disorder in which there is excess stimulation of motor system affects movement and posture

36
Q

What are the characteristics of Parkinson’s?

A

Tremors, stooped posture, muscle rigidity, short shuffling steps.

37
Q

What age is the typical onset of Parkinsons?

A

Usually after 60

38
Q

What spinal injury results in quadriplegia?

A

A spinal cord injury above the first thoracic vertebra, or within the cervical sections of C1-C8.

39
Q

Which age group is at greatest risk for getting a spinal cord injury?

A

14-24 years old

40
Q

What is the most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia (SNS) in spinal cord injuries?

A

Caused by infection, bladder/bowel distention

41
Q

What does ALS stand for?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

42
Q

Which age group and gender are most affected by ALS?

A

text book

43
Q

What function is lost with ALS, and what function remains intact?

A

Loss of upper and lower motor neurons.
Progressive weakness and loss of fine motor coordination
Death occurs d/t respiratory failure
Cognitive remains intact.

44
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

A progressive brain disorder that causes uncontrolled movements, emotional problems, and loss of thinking ability.

45
Q

Why do patients with Diabetic Ketoacidosis develop acetone breath?

A

The liver releases ketones, including acetone, as a byproduct. When the body is breaking down fat, the breath may smell sweeter, because the body is expelling acetone.

46
Q

What are some signs of Cushing’s disease?

A

Change in person’s appearance including, round face, with ruddy color, Truncal obesity, with fat pad between scapulae, Thin limbs, Thin hair, Fragile skin, striae

47
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?

A

Hypo: Low metabolic rate, Cold intolerance, Increased BMI, Lethargy and fatigue, decreased appetite.
Hyper: Increased body temperature, Sweating, reduced BMI, Insomnia, Hyperactivity.

48
Q

What are some signs of hypoglycemia?

A 
Disorientation and change in behavior (impaired)
Anxiety or decreased responsiveness
Decreased blood glucose level
Decreased BP, increased heart rate
Decreasing level of consciousness
49
Q

What are some complications of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Hypocalcemia leading to weak cardiac contractions.

50
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Deficiency of adrenocorticoid secretions
Autoimmune reaction common cause
Adrenal gland may be destroyed by
hemorrhage or infection

51
Q

Excess secretions of mineralocorticoids can lead to retention of sodium and water, in patients with Cushing’s disease. What would happen to their blood pressure?

A

High BP

52
Q

Excess secretions of mineralocorticoids can lead to retention of sodium and water, in patients with Cushing’s disease. What would happen to their blood pressure?

A

High BP

53
Q

What is Cholelithiasis? What are the signs, symptoms and complications of this?

A

The formation of gallstones.
S&S: Severe, sudden pain w/ nausea & vomit.
Complications: Development of Jaundice d/t bile backing up into liver. Risk of ruptured gallbladder if obstruction persists.

54
Q

What are common treatments of Cholelithiasis?

A

May be removed using laparoscopic surgery

Low-fat diet necessary following surgery

55
Q

What is Jaundice? Why does it occur?

A

Jaundice develops when there is too much bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellowish pigment found in hemoglobin.

56
Q

What is Hepatitis? How many kinds are there? How are the different types contracted?

A 
Inflammation of the liver. 
Hep A: Fecal/Oral routes; sexual transmission w/ anal
Hep B: Infected blood
Hep C: Blood Transfusion
Hep D: Blood
Hep E: Oral/Fecal
57
Q

What are common signs and symptoms associated with Hepatitis?

A

Jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, light stool, dark urine, tender liver.

58
Q

Describe Cirrhosis. What are common signs and symptoms of Cirrhosis?

A

Progressive destruction of liver.
S&S: Fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, anemia, diarrhea, dull aching pain may be present in upper right
abdominal quadrant.

59
Q

Describe Ascites. Why does it occur? What are the common signs and symptoms of Ascites?

A

an accumulation of fluid In the peritoneal cavity causing abdominal distention and pressure.

60
Q

What are Esophageal Varices? What are the common causes of them?

A

Abnormal, enlarged veins in the esophagus due to advanced cirrhosis.

61
Q

What is Pancreatitis? Are there different types of Pancreatitis? What are the common causes of pancreatitis? What are the common signs and symptoms of Pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas.
Acute & Chronic.
Caused by Gallstones, alcohol abuse, and sudden onset may follow intake of large meal or large
amount of alcohol.
S&S: Severe epigastric or abdominal pain radiating to
the back, signs of shock, Low-grade fever until infection develops, abdominal distention and decreased bowel
sounds.

62
Q

Describe and differentiate between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis.

A

Crohn’s develops during adolescence and the small intestine is affected. Interference w/ digestion & absorption.
UC develops during second or third decade. Inflamed rectum/colon. Severe acute episodes—toxic megacolon may develop. Marked diarrhea, with up to 12 stools per day

63
Q

Describe Diverticular Disease. What are some common signs and symptoms of Diverticular disease?

A

Diverticular disease is the general name for a common condition that causes small bulges (diverticula) or sacs to form in the wall of the large intestine (colon).
S&S: Lower abdominal pain and recal bleeding.

64
Q

What is hematemesis? Give an example when you might see this? What causes this?

A

Vomiting of blood.

Bleeding ulcers, varices, tumors.

65
Q

What is the difference between Frank blood, Occult Blood and Melena?

A

Frank blood:
Red blood—usually from lesions in rectum or anal canal
Occult blood:
Small hidden amounts, detectable with stool test, May be caused by small bleeding ulcers
Melena:
Dark-colored, tarry stool, & may result from significant bleeding in upper digestive tract

66
Q

Why does withdrawal occur in long term substance abuse of alcohol and drugs?

A

the body goes into withdrawal because it has adapted to and relies on the presence of that drug.

67
Q

What are some withdrawal symptoms?

A

Nausea/vomiting, tremors, sweating, anxiety, agitation, headaches, tactile, auditory, and visual disturbances.

68
Q

What STIs can lead to cervical cancer?

A

HPV

69
Q

What is a pap smear?

A

A test carried out on a sample of cells from the cervix to check for abnormalities that may be indicative of cervical cancer.

70
Q

What STI often occurs in conjunction with chlamydia?

A

textbook

71
Q

What are some effects of syphilis if left untreated?

A

textbook

72
Q

What is the only way that breast cancer can be diagnosed?

A

Biopsy – textbook

Pathophysiology (9 decks)

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