Mid trimester exam Flashcards

1
Q

As more of a good, such as television sets, is produced, the opportunity cost of producing it increases. This probably occurs because:

A. As more of a good is produced, the quality of the technology available to produce additional units of the good declines and therefore the costs of production increase.
B. as more of a good is produced, the inputs used to produce that good will increase in price.
C. resources are not equally well suited to producing all goods, and as more of a good is produced it is necessary to use resources less well suited to the production of the good.
D. consumers would be willing to pay higher prices for the good as more of the good is produced.

A

C. resources are not equally well suited to producing all goods, and as more of a good is produced it is necessary to use resources less well suited to the production of the good.

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2
Q

A society can produce two goods: bread and biscuits. The society’s production curve is negatively sloped and ‘bowed outward’ from the origin. As this society moves down its production possibility frontier, producing more and more units of biscuits, the opportunity cost of producing biscuits:

Select one:
A. decreases
B. increases 
C. could decrease or increase depending on the technology
D. remains constant
A

B. increases

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3
Q

Which of the following would not be called a resource by economists?

Select one:
A. land
B. buildings
C. labour
D. money
A

D. money

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4
Q

A planned freeway connecting two cities was originally budgeted to cost $200 million. After building part of the system at a cost of $150 million, the government realised that the total cost of the system would be $260 million, not $200 million. At this point the marginal cost of completing the freeway is best estimated as:

Select one:
A. $60 million 
B. $50 million
C. $260 million
D. $110 million
A

A. $60 million

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5
Q

Macroeconomics is the branch of economics that examines:

Select one:
A. outcomes of economic behaviour, evaluates them as good or bad, and prescribes preferred courses of action.
B. the functioning of individual industries and the behaviour of individual decision-making units: that is, business firms and households.
C. the economic behaviour of aggregates- income, employment and output- on a national scale.
D. ways to understand behaviour and the operation of systems without making judgements.

A

C. the economic behaviour of aggregates- income, employment and output- on a national scale.

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6
Q

You own a DVD of a recent popular film. The opportunity cost of watching it:

Select one:
A. is zero.
B. is the value of the alternative use of the time you spend watching the DVD.
C. is one half of the cost of the DVD as this is the second time you have watched it.
D. cannot be estimated.

A

B. is the value of the alternative use of the time you spend watching the DVD.

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7
Q

Given the current state of technology it is possible to produce one more unit of food if two fewer units of clothing are produced. In country Z, however, at present to produce one more unit of food the production of clothing has to be reduced by three units. This would be illustrated by country Z ______________its production possibility curve.

Select one:
A. being on
B. being outside 
C. being inside
D. being at the origin of
A

C. being inside

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8
Q

The circular flow of income diagram shows:

Select one:
A. How firms sell goods to households.
B. how households sell productive services to firms.
C. how households produce services for their own use.
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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9
Q

You own a vacant building and decide to use it to open a restaurant. The opportunity cost of using the building as a restaurant is:

Select one:
A. the cost of the building.
B. the value of the alternative use to which the building could be put. 
C. zero, as you own the building.
D. the taxes paid by the restaurant.
A

B. the value of the alternative use to which the building could be put.

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10
Q

The cost of producing smart phones has fallen. This will initially cause:

Select one:
A. an increase in demand.
B. an increase in the quantity demanded.
C. an increase in supply. 
D. an increase in the quantity supplied.
A

C. an increase in supply.

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11
Q

If the demand curve for potatoes shifts to the right and at the same time the supply curve shifts to the left:

Select one:
A. the price of potatoes will rise and the quantity traded will fall.
B. the price of potatoes and the quantity traded will fall.
C. the price of potatoes will rise.
D. none of the above statements is true.

A

C. the price of potatoes will rise.

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12
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one:
A. If a demand curve moves to the right, this will lead to a surplus.
B. If a demand curve moves to the left, this will lead to a surplus.
C. If a demand curve moves to the left, the new equilibrium price will be higher.
D. If a supply curve moves to the left, the new equilibrium price will be lower.

A

B. If a demand curve moves to the left, this will lead to a surplus.

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13
Q

A demand curve for a good is constructed by holding constant:

Select one:
A. tastes and the price of other goods.
B. income, tastes and the price of other goods.
C. income and tastes.
D. income, tastes and the price of the good.

A

B. income, tastes and the price of other goods.

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14
Q

When a decrease in the price of one good causes the demand for another good to decrease, the goods are:

Select one:
A. complements. 
B. inferior.
C. normal.
D. substitutes.
A

D. substitutes

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15
Q

Assuming that all other factors remain the same, an increase in the cost of fertiliser- an input into lettuce production- would result in:

Select one:
A. an increase in the demand for lettuces.
B. a decrease in the demand for lettuces.
C. an increase in the supply of lettuces.
D. a decrease in the supply of lettuces.

A

D. a decrease in the supply of lettuces.

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16
Q

If the demand for coffee decreases as income falls, coffee is a/an___________good.

Select one:
A. complementary
B. inferior
C. normal
D. superior
A

C. normal

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17
Q

Which of the following would cause an outward shift in the supply curve for steel?

Select one:
A. an increase in the demand for steel
B. a fall in the price of iron ore
C. an increase in the wages of steel workers
D. a rise in the price of steel
A

B. a fall in the price of iron ore

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18
Q

When excess supply occurs in a free market, there is a tendency for:

Select one:
A. quantity demanded to rise.
B. quantity supplied to fall.
C. price to fall. 
D. price to rise.
A

C. price to fall.

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19
Q

Which of the following would cause a movement down in the demand curve for beef?

Select one:
A. an increase in consumer income
B. a rise in the price of lamb
C. a decrease in the price of beef 
D. a shift to the left of the supply curve for beef
A

C. a decrease in the price of beef

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20
Q

The price of wheat rises by 10% and the quantity supplied rises by 5%. The elasticity of supply is:

Select one:
A. -5. 
B. -2.
C. 2.
D. 0.5.
A

D. 0.5.

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21
Q

The price of bananas rises from $4 a kilo to $6 a kilo. In response the quantity demanded falls by 10%.

Select one:
A. -2. 
B. -1.
C. -0.5.
D. -0.25.
A

D. -0.25.

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22
Q

The tax on alcopops is doubled. Other taxes remain unaltered.

Select one:
A. The price of alcopops will fall.
B. The consumption of spirits will increase.
C. The tax revenue from alcopops will necessarily fall.
D. The demand curve for alcopops will shift to the left.

A

B. The consumption of spirits will increase.

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23
Q

Price elasticity of supply will be greater when:

Select one:
A. firms have spare capacity.
B. price changes are small.
C. demand is stable.
D. firms hold small stocks of finished goods.
A

A. firms have spare capacity.

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24
Q

A restaurant owner knows that the demand for hamburgers is elastic. If she wants to increase total revenue from hamburger sales, she should:

Select one:
A. decrease the supply of hamburgers
B. keep the price of hamburgers constant.
C. decrease the price of hamburgers.
D. increase the price of hamburgers
A

C. decrease the price of hamburgers.

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25
Q

If the quantity bought of good x falls when the supply curve of good y shifts to the left:

Select one:
A. x and y are complements. 
B. the demand for x is elastic.
C. x and y are substitutes.
D. x is an inferior good.
A

A. x and y are complements.

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26
Q

If the quantity bought of good x increases when the supply curve of good y shifts to the left:

Select one:
A. x and y are complements.
B. the demand for x is elastic.
C. x and y are substitutes. 
D. x is an inferior good.
A

C. x and y are substitutes.

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27
Q

Consumer x says that she will spend the same amount on a certain good whatever its price. Her demand curve will be:

Select one:
A. of unit elasticity.
B. infinitely elastic. 
C. infinitely inelastic.
D. of varying elasticity.
A

A. of unit elasticity.

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28
Q

Effective price ceilings are likely to:

Select one:
A. lead to surpluses.
B. be effective only if they are set at levels above the market equilibrium price.
C. lead to a decrease in sales, as there is a movement down along the supply curve, below equilibrium price, to the lower price level.
D. result in increased sales, as suppliers react to higher price levels.

A

C. lead to a decrease in sales, as there is a movement down along the supply curve, below equilibrium price, to the lower price level.

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29
Q

In which of the following situations will the demand curve for a good shift to the right?

Select one:
A. The government fixes a price below the equilibrium price.
B. There is an increase in the supply of a substitute good.
C. There is an increase in the production subsidy paid on the good.
D. There is an increase in the supply of a complementary good.

A

D. There is an increase in the supply of a complementary good.

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30
Q

The cost of producing smart phones has fallen. This will initially cause:

Select one:
A. an increase in demand. 
B. an increase in the quantity demanded.
C. an increase in supply.
D. an increase in the quantity supplied.
A

C. an increase in supply.

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31
Q

If the demand curve for potatoes shifts to the right and at the same time the supply curve shifts to the left:

Select one:
A. the price of potatoes will rise and the quantity traded will fall.
B. the price of potatoes and the quantity traded will fall.
C. the price of potatoes will rise.
D. none of the above statements is true.

A

C. the price of potatoes will rise.

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32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one:
A. If a demand curve moves to the right, this will lead to a surplus.
B. If a demand curve moves to the left, this will lead to a surplus.
C. If a demand curve moves to the left, the new equilibrium price will be higher.
D. If a supply curve moves to the left, the new equilibrium price will be lower.

A

B. If a demand curve moves to the left, this will lead to a surplus.

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33
Q

A demand curve for a good is constructed by holding constant:

Select one:
A. tastes and the price of other goods.
B. income, tastes and the price of other goods.
C. income and tastes.
D. income, tastes and the price of the good.
Feedback
The correct answer is: income, tastes and the price of other goods.

A

A. tastes and the price of other goods.

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34
Q

When a decrease in the price of one good causes the demand for another good to decrease, the goods are:

Select one:
A. complements.
B. inferior.
C. normal.
D. substitutes.
A

D. substitutes.

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35
Q

Assuming that all other factors remain the same, an increase in the cost of fertiliser- an input into lettuce production- would result in:

Select one:
A. an increase in the demand for lettuces.
B. a decrease in the demand for lettuces.
C. an increase in the supply of lettuces.
D. a decrease in the supply of lettuces.

A

D. a decrease in the supply of lettuces.

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36
Q

If the demand for coffee decreases as income falls, coffee is a/an___________good.

Select one:
A. complementary
B. inferior
C. normal
D. superior
A

C. normal

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37
Q

Which of the following would cause an outward shift in the supply curve for steel?

Select one:
A. an increase in the demand for steel 
B. a fall in the price of iron ore
C. an increase in the wages of steel workers
D. a rise in the price of steel
A

B. a fall in the price of iron ore

38
Q

When excess supply occurs in a free market, there is a tendency for:

Select one:
A. quantity demanded to rise.
B. quantity supplied to fall. 
C. price to fall.
D. price to rise.
A

D. price to rise.

39
Q

A firm increases its price and finds that total revenue decreases.

Select one:
A. Demand is inelastic.
B. Demand is elastic.
C. Demand is of unit elasticity. 
D. Average revenue falls.
A

B. Demand is elastic.

40
Q

Marginal revenue is:

Select one:
A. the difference between total revenue and total costs.
B. the ratio of total revenue to quantity.
C. the added revenue that a firm takes in when it increases output by one additional unit.
D. the additional profit the firm earns when it sells an additional unit of output.

A

C. the added revenue that a firm takes in when it increases output by one additional unit.

41
Q

A firm is producing at the profit-maximising output. Its fixed costs increase. It should:

Select one:
A. increase price and output.
B. increase price and reduce output.
C. leave price and output unaltered.
D. shut down.
A

C. leave price and output unaltered.

42
Q

Paul’s Bakery is incurring a loss. The firm will continue to produce as long as:

Select one:
A. price is greater than or equal to average variable cost.
B. marginal revenue is greater than or equal to marginal cost.
C. marginal revenue is greater than or equal to average variable cost.
D. price is greater than or equal to average fixed cost.

A

A. price is greater than or equal to average variable cost.

43
Q

A profit-maximising firm will produce that output level where:

Select one:
A. marginal revenue is zero. 
B. marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
C. marginal cost is minimised.
D. price equals marginal cost.
A

B. marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

44
Q

A firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing 50 units, its profit-maximising quantity. The price is $2, the total fixed costs are $25 and the average variable cost is $0.8. The firm’s economic profit is:

Select one:
A. $25
B. $35
C. $45
D. $55
A

B. $35

45
Q

The marginal costs of a price-taking firm fall. The firm should:

Select one:
A. increase output.
B. reduce price.
C. hold output constant.
D. increase price.
A

A. increase output.

46
Q

At the output level at which profits are at their maximum level:

Select one:
A. marginal revenue is positive and increasing.
B. marginal cost is positive and decreasing.
C. average revenue is positive and increasing.
D. marginal cost is positive and increasing.

A

D. marginal cost is positive and increasing.

47
Q

If a firm is making no economic profit:

Select one:
A. It is wasting its funds by investing in a new plant and equipment.
B. it should exit the industry and reinvest its assets elsewhere.
C. it will not be able to sell the company for as much as it paid for it.
D. it is doing as well as it would do in any other industry.

A

D. it is doing as well as it would do in any other industry.

48
Q

The normal profit rate in an industry is 12%. One of the firms earns an accounting profit of 10%. Economic profit is:

Select one:
A. minus 2%. 
B. zero.
C. 2%.
D. 22%.
A

A. minus 2%.

49
Q

A firm has fixed costs of $2000. When it increases output by 50 units its variable costs of production increase by $1000. Its marginal costs of production are:

Select one:
A. $20
B. $40
C. $60
D. $80
A

A. $20

50
Q

If marginal cost is above average cost, then:

Select one:
A. average cost is increasing.
B. average variable cost is decreasing.
C. average variable cost is constant.
D. average cost is decreasing.
A

A. average cost is increasing.

51
Q

A firm produces 10 units at a total cost of $200 and 11 units for $220.

Select one:
A. Marginal cost is below average cost.
B. Marginal cost is equal to average cost.
C. Marginal cost is above average cost.
D. There is inadequate information to provide an answer.

A

B. Marginal cost is equal to average cost.

52
Q

In the short run a firm increases its output by 20%. As a result, its total costs of production increase by 15%. Assuming the prices of its inputs remain the same:

Select one:
A. it experiences economies of scale.
B. average fixed costs will increase. 
C. marginal costs will increase.
D. average variable costs will fall.
A

D. average variable costs will fall.

53
Q

A firm has fixed costs of $400. It produces two units. The marginal cost of the first unit is $200 and the marginal cost of the second unit is $120. The average cost of producing two units is:

Select one:
A. $160
B. $180
C. $260
D. $360
A

D. $360

54
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

Select one:
A. There are no fixed costs in the long run.
B. Fixed costs do not depend on the firm’s level of output.
C. Fixed costs are the difference between total costs and total variable costs.
D. Fixed costs are zero if the firm is producing nothing.

A

D. Fixed costs are zero if the firm is producing nothing.

55
Q

The marginal cost curve intersects the average total cost (AC) curve at the:

Select one:
A. decreasing part of the AC curve.
B. minimum point of the AC curve. 
C. increasing point of the AC curve.
D. the highest part of the AC curve.
A

B. minimum point of the AC curve.

56
Q

In which of the following industries are economies of scale likely to be greatest?

Select one:
A. printing
B. shoe manufacture
C. banking 
D. plumbing
A

C. banking

57
Q

When plotted with output on the horizontal axis, the average fixed-cost curve:

Select one:
A. is a downward-sloping straight line.
B. falls slowly at first then becomes a horizontal line.
C. falls rapidly at first then falls more slowly.
D. falls at first then rises.

A

C. falls rapidly at first then falls more slowly.

58
Q

In the short run:

Select one:
A. the law of diminishing returns does not hold.
B. all inputs are variable.
C. all inputs are fixed.
D. at least one input cannot be increased.

A

D. at least one input cannot be increased.

59
Q

A market in which there are several firms, freedom of entry is unrestricted and products are differentiated:

Select one:
A. is perfect competition. 
B. is monopolistic competition.
C. is oligopoly.
D. is monopoly.
A

B. is monopolistic competition.

60
Q

The fast food industry is not considered perfectly competitive because:

Select one:
A. there are restrictions on entry.
B. the firms’ products are differentiated.
C. the industry is regulated by the government.
D. there are a large number of firms.

A

B. the firms’ products are differentiated.

61
Q

In perfectly competitive industries:

Select one:
A. profits will always be normal.
B. output will always be at the point where average costs are at their minimum level.
C. profits will always be maximised where price equals marginal cost.
D. the number of firms will vary with the short-run level if profits.

A

C. profits will always be maximised where price equals marginal cost.

62
Q

There is an increase in the demand for tomatoes. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Select one:
A. Tomato producers will grow more tomatoes.
B. In the short run, tomato growers will earn supernormal profits.
C. There will be a move down the supply curve of tomatoes.
D. Tomato growers will face increasing marginal costs.

A

C. There will be a move down the supply curve of tomatoes.

63
Q

A perfectly elastic demand curve implies that:

Select one:
A. a firm can raise its price and not lose all its customers.
B. a firm can sell more through price reductions.
C. the price a firm charges is irrelevant since it will sell the same amount whatever the price charged.
D. If a firm raises its price above the market price it will sell for nothing.

A

D. If a firm raises its price above the market price it will sell for nothing.

64
Q

In a competitive market:

Select one:
A. a single firm perceive its demand curve as the market demand curve.
B. a single firm perceives its demand curve as a flat line, even though the market demand curve is downward sloping.
C. a single firm perceives market demand to be perfectly inelastic.
D. a single firm perceives market demand to be unit elastic

A

B. a single firm perceives its demand curve as a flat line, even though the market demand curve is downward sloping.

65
Q

Normal profits:

Select one:
A. are equal to zero in the short-run equilibrium.
B. are equal to zero in the long-run equilibrium.
C. are an implicit opportunity cost to the business.
D. must be greater than zero in the long-run.

A

B. are equal to zero in the long-run equilibrium.

66
Q

In the long-run competitive equilibrium:

Select one:
A. economic profits are positive.
B. implicit opportunity cost for a firm is zero.
C. firms do not have an incentive to enter or exit the industry.
D. P > ATC.

A

C. firms do not have an incentive to enter or exit the industry.

67
Q

Relative to a competitively organised industry, a monopoly:

Select one:
A. produces less output, charges higher prices and earns economic profit.
B. produces less output, charges lower prices and earns economic profit.
C. produces more output, charges higher prices and earns economic profit.
D. produces less output, charges lower prices and earns only a normal profit.

A

B. produces less output, charges lower prices and earns economic profit.

68
Q

In perfectly competitive industries, in long-run equilibrium:

Select one:
A. marginal cost and average cost are equal.
B. firms earn supernormal profits.
C. each firm has a downward-sloping demand curve.
D. firms produce on the downward-sloping segment of their average cost curves.

A

A. marginal cost and average cost are equal.

69
Q

Assume that price underestimates the value that society places on flu vaccine. If firms produce where P = MC, firms will be producing:

Select one:
A. the efficient amount of flu vaccine.
B. so that consumer surplus is zero.
C. less than the efficient amount of flu vaccine.
D. more than the efficient amount of flu vaccine.

A

C. less than the efficient amount of flu vaccine.

70
Q

When output of a good or service is at its socially efficient level:

Select one:
A. marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
B. marginal cost equals marginal social benefit.
C. marginal private cost is less than marginal social cost.
D. marginal social benefit equals marginal social cost.

A

D. marginal social benefit equals marginal social cost.

71
Q

Under a system of tradable permits for polluting, which type of firm will pay most for the permits?

Select one:
A. those who find it expensive to reduce pollution
B. the most profitable firms
C. monopoly firms
D. those who pollute most
A

A. those who find it expensive to reduce pollution

72
Q

To correct for an external cost arising from production, the government should:

Select one:
A. set a tax equal to the amount by which marginal social cost exceeds the marginal private cost.
B. set a tax equal to the amount by which marginal private cost exceeds the marginal social cost.
C. provide firms with a subsidy for the amount by which marginal social cost exceeds the marginal private cost. Incorrect
D. provide firms with a subsidy for the amount by which marginal private cost exceeds the marginal social cost.

A

A. set a tax equal to the amount by which marginal social cost exceeds the marginal private cost.

73
Q

The assumptions that factor markets are competitive and open, all firms pay the same prices for inputs and all firms maximise profits lead to the conclusion that:

Select one:
A. the allocation of resources among firms is efficient.
B. general equilibrium will always be achieved.
C. no consumer surplus will exist.
D. the distribution of income will be equitable.

A

A. the allocation of resources among firms is efficient.

74
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a public good?

Select one:
A. education
B. the legal system
C. urban freeways
D. health
A

B. the legal system

75
Q

Which of the following would be classified as an external cost?

Select one:
A. You purchase a medicine, but you are not made fully aware of all the side effects that may result from taking the drug.
B. You are not able to study at night because there is so much noise coming from the room next to yours.
C. As more firms began hiring computer programmers, the salaries of computer programmers increased and therefore the firm’s cost of production increased.
D. A private firm will not provide national defence since it is impossible to confine the benefits to only those individuals who have paid for it.

A

B. You are not able to study at night because there is so much noise coming from the room next to yours.

76
Q

Market failure occurs when:

Select one:
A. perfectly competitive firms produce where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
B. firms that are incurring losses continue to produce.
C. resources are misallocated or allocated inefficiently.
D. firms are only able to earn a normal profit.

A

C. resources are misallocated or allocated inefficiently.

77
Q

Which of the following are likely to be, overall, quantitatively the largest?

Select one:
A. positive externalities arising from consumption
B. positive externalities arising from production
C. negative externalities arising from consumption
D. negative externalities arising from production

A

D. negative externalities arising from production

78
Q

You decide to purchase a broadband connection. This will:

Select one:
A. cause an external benefit.
B. lead to a negative externality. 
C. have no external effects.
D. mean that broadband is a merit good.
A

C. have no external effects.

79
Q

Which of the following correctly describes how price adjustments eliminate a shortage?
Select one:
a. As the price rises, the quantity demanded will increase while the quantity supplied will decrease.
b. As the price falls, the quantity demanded will increase while the quantity supplied will increase.
c. As the price rises, the quantity demanded will decrease while the quantity supplied will increase.
d. As the price falls, the quantity demanded will decrease while the quantity supplied will increase.

A

c. As the price rises, the quantity demanded will decrease while the quantity supplied will increase.

80
Q

The ‘law of demand’ states that, other things being equal:
Select one:
a. As prices fall, demand decreases.
b. As prices rise, demand increases.
c. As prices fall, quantity demanded increases.
d. As prices rise, quantity demanded increases.

A

c. As prices fall, quantity demanded increases.

81
Q

Opportunity cost is:
Select one:
a. The additional cost of producing an additional unit of output.
b. A cost that cannot be avoided, regardless of what is done in the future.
c. That which we forgo, or give up, when we make a choice or a decision.
d. The additional cost of buying an additional unit of a product.

A

c. That which we forgo, or give up, when we make a choice or a decision.

82
Q

If a minimum price is set above the equilibrium price:
Select one:
a. Quantity demanded will equal quantity supplied.
b. Quantity demanded will be less than quantity supplied.
c. Quantity supplied will be less than quantity demanded.
d. Quantity demanded will be greater than quantity supplied.

A

b. Quantity demanded will be less than quantity supplied.

83
Q
If marginal cost is increasing and is below marginal revenue, a profit-maximising firm should:
Select one:
a. Increase output.
b. Decrease output. 
c. Increase price.
d. Shut down.
A

a. Increase output.

84
Q

Which of the following is true of a completely free-market economy?
Select one:
a. Production and consumption depend on demand and supply.
b. People are paid fair wages.
c. There will be full employment.
d. The government could set a minimum wage.

A

a. Production and consumption depend on demand and supply.

85
Q
The negative relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded is known as:
Select one:
a. The law of quantity demanded.
b. The law of demand.
c. The law of supply. 
d. The law of quantity supplied.
A

b. The law of demand.

86
Q
Consider the supply curve of organically grown tomatoes. What will be the effect of a government subsidy granted to farmers using organic methods?
Select one:
a. Leftward shift.
b. Movement down along the curve.
c. Rightward shift. 
d. Movement up along the curve.
A

c. Rightward shift.

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a tradable permit system of pollution control?
Select one:
a. The permit allows firms to emit pollution up to a pre-determined level.
b. Firms can emit pollution above their permitted level if they are able to buy a permit from another firm.
c. Firms are not permitted to sell their pollution permits to other firms.
d. It combines both regulations and market-based systems.

A

c. Firms are not permitted to sell their pollution permits to other firms.

88
Q

Market failure is used to describe:
Select one:
a. The failure of the market economy to provide an equal distribution of income to all citizens.
b. The failure of the market to provide an efficient quantity of a good and service.
c. Firms which go bankrupt.
d. An economic crisis.

A

b. The failure of the market to provide an efficient quantity of a good and service.

89
Q

If a firm is making economic profit:
Select one:
a. Marginal revenue is equal to average variable cost.
b. Marginal revenue is greater or equal to marginal cost.
c. Marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue.
d. Marginal revenue is equal to average fixed cost.

A

b. Marginal revenue is greater or equal to marginal cost.

90
Q

Which of the following is true about the monopoly but false about perfect competition?
Select one:
a. Firms can earn economic profit in the long run.
b. Firms compete on their product’s price as well as its quality and marketing.
c. There are no barriers to entry.
d. Firms can earn economic profit in short run.

A

a. Firms can earn economic profit in the long run.

91
Q
A firm’s total profit is equal to:
Select one:
a. TR - TC
b. TR - MC
c. P x Q
d. P x AR
A

a. TR - TC

92
Q

With constant returns to scale, long-run average total cost:
Select one:
a. Is constant.
b. Is increasing.
c. Equals long-run marginal cost.
d. Any of the above conditions presented in A, B or C.

A

a. Is constant.