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MICRO 442 > Microm 442 Ch 1-4 > Flashcards

Microm 442 Ch 1-4 Flashcards

Ch 1-4

1
Q

Francis Bacon

A

observations power accurate conclusions

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2
Q

Hooke & van Leeuwenhoek

A

single-lensed microscopes

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3
Q

light microscope

A

0.2µm

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4
Q

electron micriscope

A

0.003µm and beyond

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5
Q

x-ray crystallography

A

0.0001µm

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6
Q

Edward Jenners

A

cowpox vaccination against smallpox

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7
Q

florence nightingale

A

hygiene = avoid infection

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8
Q

Pasteur & Koch

A

microbes as causative agents of disease

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9
Q

Hans Christian Gram

A

Gram stain (crystal violet used)

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10
Q

paul elrich

A

“606” salvarsan or sarsphenamine

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11
Q

alexander fleming

A

penicillin

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12
Q

ernst chain and howard florey

A

purification/production of penicillin

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13
Q

gerhard domagk

A

sulfonamides

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14
Q

avery, macleod, mccarty

A

dna is a transforming principle

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15
Q

sanger

A

protein sequencing

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16
Q

watson, crick, rosalind franklin

A

dna structure

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17
Q

rich roberts

A

restriction enzymes

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18
Q

herb boyer, stanley cohen

A

recombinant dna

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19
Q

kary mullis

A

PCR

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20
Q

prokaryotes have no

A

sterols

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21
Q

Gm- cell

A

LPS, outer membrane, thin layer of peptidoglycan, s-layer and cytoplasmic membrane

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22
Q

Gm+ cell

A

thick layer of peptidogylcan, cytoplasmic membrane and s-layer

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23
Q

spheres

A

0.2-2µm

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24
Q

rods

A

0.2-2µm wide by 1-10µm long

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25
Q

higher order arrangements

A

biofilms, microbiota (communities)

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26
Q

90% dry mass composed of macromolecules also found in eukaryotes

A

55% protein, 20% RNA, 3% DNA, 5% carbohydrate, 6% phosopolipid, the rest is UNIQUE

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27
Q

capsule/slime made of polysaccharide/polypeptide

A

GN, GP (also not found in some of either tho)

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28
Q

appendages, pilli (fimbriae), flagella

A

GN, GP (also not found in some of either tho)

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29
Q

outer membrane proteins, LPS, phospholipids

A

GN

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30
Q

peptidoglycan (murien, NAG, NAM, peptide side chains)

A

GN, GP

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31
Q

teichoic acids

A

GP

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32
Q

periplasm (proteins, oligosaccharides)

A

GN

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33
Q

cytoplasmic membrane

A

GN, GP, Mycoplasma

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34
Q

s-layer is in

A

some Gm+ but not all

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35
Q

lipid A of lPS

A

rapidly induces fever because recognized by the immune system

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36
Q

Gm+ do not have

A

potential space because no outer membrane(?)

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37
Q

transcriptional/translational coupling

A

can happen simultaneously because no true nucleus in bacteria

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38
Q

relationships with host

A

colonize, multiply, transmission

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39
Q

initially broader group narrowed by ability to maintain colonization; then same as age group of given environ

A

neonate

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40
Q

fetus is

A

micro-biologically sterile

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41
Q

important for keeping mutualistic bacteria in the right places and numbers for defense

A

normal functioning anatomy

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42
Q

staphlococcus epidermidis; other staphylococci; propionibacterium/cucibacterium; diphtheroids

A

skin

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43
Q

s.epidermidis; non-pathogenetic coynebacteria

A

conjunctiva

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44
Q

fibrial illness=

A

fever

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45
Q

streoptoccous mutains adhere to

A

teeth

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46
Q

10E08 orgs/mL

A

saliva

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47
Q

neisseria & moraxella

A

mouth

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48
Q

strict anaerobes and microaerophiliic organsisms associated with

A

gingival crevice

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49
Q

normally, small intestine and stomach

A

sparsely inhabited

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50
Q

bacterial enthodecrosis

A

bacteria from teeth to heart

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51
Q

90% anaerobes (bacteroides and fusobacterium)
10% facultative anaerobes (e.coli, enterobacteriaceae, enterococci, yeasts like candida)

A

colon

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52
Q

feces are about 25% bacteria by weight

A

colon

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53
Q

only recognizes human oligosaccharides -> co-evolution

A

bifidobacterium

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54
Q

helps reinforce barrier that maintains normal levels in GI tract

A

bifidobacterium

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55
Q

lacto-N-biosidase can degrade lacto-N-tetraose an abundant milk oligosaccharide (HMO)

A

LnbX

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56
Q

similar to skin, importantly includes staphylococcus aureus

A

nares

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57
Q

similar to mouth but 1. streptococcus pheumonia 2. Nisseria meningitidis 3. haemophilus influenzae

A

nasopharynx

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58
Q

protects larynx and below middle ear and sinuses

A

muociliary escalator

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59
Q

What external body part is part of the respiratory tract

A

ear

60
Q

young children and people get more middle ear infections because

A

smaller

61
Q

detection of sound

A

tympanic membrane

62
Q

scanty microbiota from perineum in first 1 cm of urethra, sterile above this in health

A

urinary stract

63
Q

before puberty/after menopause: mixed, non-specific from skin, colon, perineum

A

vagina

64
Q

lactobacillius, anaerobic GNRs, GPC, Gardnerella, Mycoplasma, Ureaplama

A

child bearing years

65
Q

Gardnerella, Mycoplasma, Ureaplama

A

can also be pathogenic in that space

66
Q

is sterile but gets contaminated in bladder and onwards

A

urine

67
Q

quantity, genetic attributes

A

opportunists

68
Q

priming the immune system

A

beneficial effects

69
Q

demonstrated by antibiotic treatment, contributes more to gene expression than you do

A

exclusionary effect

70
Q

vitamin K (coagulation), digestion, malabsorption

A

nutritional

71
Q

skin, cilia escalator, GI tract, etc.

A

barriers to infection

72
Q

syn for diagnosis

A

Diacrisis

73
Q

the determination of the nature of a disease

A

diagnosis

74
Q
  1. history 2. physical exam 3. imaging 4. laboratory testing 5. treatment
A

diagnosis steps

75
Q

apply specific interventions to a clearly define problem (best antibiotic usually the cheapest but can only use when certain)

A

tailor therapy

76
Q

great imitators, inflammatory cell death by immune system looks like:
1. heart attack
2. stroke
3. cancer
4. ?

A

exclude non-infectious causes of symptoms

77
Q

specimen collected thru a site containing normal microbiota

A

indirectly non-sterile

78
Q

at a site with normal microbiota (nasalpharynx, oralpharynx)

A

non-sterile

79
Q

will only find what you are looking for

A

have a great sample

80
Q

gram stain, acid-fast stain

A

bright field

81
Q

thin organisms (spirochetes) e.g. syphilis

A

dark field

82
Q

very sensitive but artifacts can cause problems (antibody that recognizes pathogen unless pathogen is sticky)

A

fluorescence

83
Q

uses excitation wavelength to refract light on organisms membrane, looking for specific structures

A

fluorescence

84
Q

two types of fluorescent microscopy

A

direct, indirect

85
Q

antigen fixed to slide + fluorescein-labeled antibody

A

direct fluorescence

86
Q

antigen fixed to slide + fluorescein-labeled antiimmunoglobulin which creates an antigen-antiobdy complex

A

indirect fluorescence

87
Q

some need high amount of nutrients to grow

A

nutrient media

88
Q

want inhibition of certain pathogens

A

selective media

89
Q

show physiological attributes of pathogen

A

indicator species

90
Q

low oxygen

A

microaerophillic

91
Q
  1. 9 log amplification: 1 bacteria forms a colony on a plate
  2. ability to isolate single cells on a plate: singly colony isolation
A

conventional identifications two tools

92
Q

catalase: h2o2->o2 + h2o
urease: (nh2)2c=o -> nh3 + co2
coagulase: fibrinogen -> fibrin clot

A

biochemical characteristics

93
Q

pathogen->catalse breaks down hydrogen peroxide->kills microbes->minor wound care

A

nucleic acid sequences/functional genomics

94
Q

genes in chromosome let them cause disease

A

functional genomics

95
Q

produce: catalase, coagulase, etc.

A

enzymatic function

96
Q
  1. gross phenotype
  2. biochemical characteristics
  3. antigenic structures e.g. streptococcal polysaccharide
  4. toxin production
  5. nucleic acid sequences, functional genomics
  6. flow of information: dna, rna, enzymatic functions, structure
A

identifying pathogens

97
Q

identification of host immunoglobulins specifically recognizing antigens from pathogenic organisms

A

serological detection of disease

98
Q

i) measured by titer
ii) acute disease: antibody titer increases
iii) significance: acute disease vs convalescent, 4-fold increase in titer, igM/igG primary vs secondary

A

hummoral immune response in a immunocompetent host

99
Q

IgM

A

primary infection

100
Q

IgG

A

secondary infection

101
Q

more IgG formed

A

secondary response/second exposure

102
Q

good for pathogen difficult/impossible to cultivate

A

pathogen specific nucleic acid sequences

103
Q

can a dead pathogen cause an infectious disease

A

disease yes, infectious disease no

104
Q

-false-positive due to contamination
-contamination obscuring diagnosis
-limited ability to assess properties of pathogen

A

molecular detection drawbacks

105
Q

get a predominant product (dye terminator sequencing)

A

sanger sequencing

106
Q

-accuracy for ID-> taxonomy -> families similar in pathogenic traits
-phylogeny (divergence of genetics indicates relation, RNA used)
-accurate molecular chronometer or “evolutionary clock”

A

sequencing platform requirements

107
Q

primers for variable regions

A

specific id

108
Q

competent host

A

primary pathogen

109
Q

compromised host
1. loss of specific defenses
2. loss on non-specific defenses

A

opportunistic pathogen

110
Q

occurs after colonization when multiplication is sufficient to cause damage/alter host

A

infection

111
Q

rubor, tumor, calor, dolor, loss of function

A

inflammation

112
Q

red

A

rubor

113
Q

warmth

A

calor

114
Q

pain

A

dolor

115
Q

how much pathogen needed to establish infection

A

infectious dose

116
Q

proximity, time, presence/absence of barriers

A

exposure parameters

117
Q

bacterial replication - bacterial death

A

net replication

118
Q

replication>death

A

+

119
Q

replication<death

A

-

120
Q

response time faster, going negative is good

A

vaccinated individual

121
Q

successful colonization without sufficient multiplication

A

carrier/latent

122
Q

quantitative measure of pathogenticity or likelihood of causing disease

A

virulence

123
Q

quantitative measure of pathogens ability to infect another susceptible host

A

infectivity

124
Q

ppl infected/# susceptible and exposed

A

attack rate (infectivity)

125
Q
  1. adherence -> pili e.g. E.coli
  2. motility -> flagella and chemotaxis e.g. enteric organisms
  3. survival of fitness in environment outside of host
A

colonization

126
Q
  1. nutrition
  2. avoiding host immune sureveillance
A

multiply

127
Q

-iron
-siderophores -> enteric organisms
-lactoferrin/transferrin receptors= N. gonnorrhoeae

A

nutrition

128
Q

salmonella & MTB

A

modify phagoloysosome

129
Q

toxoplasma

A

block phagolysosome fusion

130
Q

listeria, shigella

A

leaving phagolysosome (into cytoplasm)

131
Q
  1. inhibit phagocytosis
  2. block complement mediated lysis
  3. antigenic variation
A

extracellular

132
Q

-capsules: s. pneumoniae
-IgA proteases: H. influenzae
-bind host proteins: fibirongen by M-protein of group A strep

A

inhibit phagocytosis

133
Q

functions as dimer but cleaved by protease

A

IgA protease

134
Q

s. typhimurium LPS -> decrease membrane potential by punching a hole in it

A

block complement mediated lysis

135
Q

borrelia-> antigens on surface constantly changing

A

antigenic variation

136
Q

pertussis toxin alters lymphocyte function

A

exotoxin

137
Q

can overstimulate host regulating in DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)

A

endotoxin

138
Q

polyclonal t-cell proliferation

A

superantigens

139
Q

-classical A B subunit toxins e.g. PT, DT, CT
-A catalytic sub-unit; ADP ribosylates G-proteins
-B membrane-binding subunits
-B binds to A and lets A into cytoplasm

A

exotoxins

140
Q

hemolysins, large number repeats looks like compliment structures

A

RTX (repeats in toxin)

141
Q

-GN -> LPS
-GP -> lipoteichoic acids
-Both -> peptidoglycan

A

endotoxins (part of microbes)

142
Q

only expressed in the host

A

expression of virulent determinants

143
Q

i) diphtheria toxin (A+B subunit)
ii) plasmids -> yersinia adhesins, invasins, and effectors
iii) transposons -> drug resistance

A

mobile virulence determinants

144
Q

diphtheria toxin

A

A+B subunit

145
Q

-S: sensor of environmental stimuli
-R: response regulator, regulates protein fxn/gene expression

A

2 component regulatory system (R/S)

146
Q

-temperature
-ionic conditions (iron, calcium)
-oxygen concentrations
-pH

A

altered expression of determinants in response

147
Q
A

MICRO 442 (25 decks)

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