Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 main groups of human pathogens?`

A

Bacteria, fungi, protozoa, prions, viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are pathogens which are eukaryotic, single celled animals which are generally hard to treat?

A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are fungi?

A

Higher, plant like organisms, eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are bacteria?

A

Generally small, single celled organisms, prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are very small, obligate parasites which are non-living?

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are non-living proteins that cause infection?

A

Prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which are bigger, eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which are usually multicellular, eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the chromosome organisation in eukaryotes?

A

Linear chromosomes and histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the chromosome organisation in prokaryotes?

A

Single circular chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What, with regards to gene structure, do eukaryotes possess that prokaryotes donā€™t?

A

Introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is of importance about the cell membrane in prokaryotes?

A

It is the only membrane a prokaryote contains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do some, but not all, prokaryotes possess to aid movement?

A

Flagellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Apart from a flagellum, what else do some prokaryotes have and others donā€™t?

A

External capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is contained in the nucleoid of prokaryotes?

A

DNA and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the prokaryotic nucleoid not have?

A

A membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does DNA replication occur via in prokaryotes?

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are transcription and translation in prokaryotes?

A

Co-ordinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of an extra chromosomal replicon which can also exist in prokaryotes?

A

Plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is released in the cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes?

A

Electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is found across the membrane of prokaryotes?

A

+ charge and a proton gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do processes which would normally occur elsewhere (such as the mitochondria) occur in prokaryotes?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the structure of the prokaryotic cell wall?

A

Rigid, repeated polysaccharide structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the gram + cell wall?

A

Thick, multi layer of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the gram - cell wall?

A

Formed of an outer membrane, periplasm and thin single layer of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main component of the outer layer of the gram - cell wall?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the fimbriae/pilus which are found on the outer surface of bacteria sometimes?

A

Hair like appendages, similar to cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does protein synthesis occur in prokaryotes?

A

Plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the run of prokaryotic protein synthesis?

A

Gene, mRNA, tRNA, protein, 2nd, 3rd, 4th structure, export, assembly, processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where occurs between the gene and mRNA stages of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

Transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What occurs between the tRNA and protein stages of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

Translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What factors are required for prokaryotic growth?

A

Food, temperature, pH, osmotic protection, oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are food sources for prokaryotes?

A

C, H, O, N, vitamins, trace elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are mesophiles?

A

Body temperature orientated bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the optimum pH range for bacteria which infect humans?

A

6.8-7.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the optimum osmotic protection for bacteria which infect humans?

A

0.85% NaCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are microaerophiles?

A

Need oxygen for respiration but are killed at high concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Can go with or without oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are obligate anaerobes?

A

Get killed at even low oxygen concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can microorganisms be classified depending on?

A

Appearance/structure, growth requirements, enzyme/molecular/metabolic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an example of a cocci that can divide in 1 plane to produce 2 cocci?

A

Diplococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an example of a cocci that can divide in 1 plane to form a chain of 4-20 cocci?

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an example of a cocci that can divide in 3 planes to produce a clump of cocci?

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are examples of different types of bacilli?

A

Generally rod shaped, can be chains, spirals (rigid or flexible) or curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What gram are curved bacilli?

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What media is used for gram staining?

A

Eosin and methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What colour is gram negative bacteria on a gram stain?

A

Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What colour is gram positive bacteria on a gram stain?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are examples of diseases which have bacteria that do not gram stain well?

A

TB and syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is aerobic bacteria?

A

Grow in oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are obligate anaerobes?

A

Killed by oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are obligate aerobes?

A

Require oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Tolerate oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What bacteria is identified by haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does alpha haemolysis show?

A

A green colour, partial haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are examples of alpha haemolytic strep?

A

Strep pneumoniae and viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does beta haemolytic strep show?

A

A clear colour, complete haemolysis

58
Q

What is an example of group A beta haemolytic strep?

A

Strep. pyogenes

59
Q

What is an example of group B beta haemolytic strep?

A

Strep. agalactiae

60
Q

What does gamma haemolysis show?

A

No haemolysis

61
Q

What is an example of gamma haemolytic strep?

A

Enterococcus

62
Q

What is MALDI-TOF?

A

A powerful, rapid, precise and cost effective test for bacteria

63
Q

What is MALDI-TOF not so good for?

A

Strep and staph

64
Q

What is virulence?

A

The capacity of a microbe to damage a host

65
Q

What is an endogenous microorganism?

A

Bacterial flora within a closed space

66
Q

What is an exogenous microorganism?

A

Not normal flora

67
Q

What is commensal bacteria?

A

An endogenous organism with a mutualistic effect

68
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

One which causes infection when opportunity or a change in natural immunity arises

69
Q

What is aspergillus.spp?

A

A fungal infection which occurs in immunocompromised

70
Q

What is candida.spp?

A

A fungus from a skin infection

71
Q

What are some examples of protozoan infections in man?

A

Malaria/toxoplasma/some GI infections

72
Q

What are some common gram -ā€˜s?

A

Klebsiella, enterobacter.spp, salmonella.spp, haemophilus. spp, bacteroides

73
Q

What are some common gram +ā€™s?

A

Streptococcus.spp, staphylococcus.spp, enterococcus.spp, clostridium

74
Q

What are E.coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Proteus?

A

Common gut commensals

75
Q

What are salmonella, shigella, verotoxin?

A

Significant gut pathogens

76
Q

What are coliforms?

A

A species of gram - bacilli which look like E-coli

77
Q

How do coliforms grow best?

A

Aerobically

78
Q

What happens when a coliform gets into a usually sterile site?

A

It will cause serious infection

79
Q

What are examples of infections caused by coliforms?

A

UTI, peritonitis, biliary tract infection

80
Q

How are coliform infections best treated?

A

Gentamicin

81
Q

What does the outer membrane of gram - bacteria bind to?

A

Macrophages, B cells and more

82
Q

What does gram - bacteria binding to inflammatory cells do?

A

Stimulates release of acute phase cytokines

83
Q

What does the release of acute phase cytokines cause?

A

Endotoxin shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome

84
Q

What molecule increases the bodyā€™s thermal set point to cause fever?

A

Prostaglandin E

85
Q

What is fever defined as?

A

Greater than 38 degrees

86
Q

What are examples of strict aerobic gram - bacilli?

A

pseudomonas aurigunosa, legionella pneumophilia

87
Q

What are vibrio cholerae, campylobacter. spp, helicobacter. pylori?

A

Spiral/curved gram - bacilli

88
Q

What is a small gram - cocco bacillus?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

89
Q

What is strep. pneumoniae?

A

Gram + alpha haemolytic cocci

90
Q

What gram stain is staph aureus?

A

Positive

91
Q

What gram stain is staph epidermis?

A

Negative

92
Q

What is staph epidermis associated with?

A

Foreign devices e.g. catheter

93
Q

What is clostridium spp?

A

Gram + anaerobic bacilli

94
Q

What does clostridium produce and what does this cause?

A

Endotoxins which cause severe tissue damage

95
Q

What in terms of nucleic acid do viruses possess?

A

DNA or RNA but never both

96
Q

What surrounds the protein coat in some viruses and where does this come from?

A

Envelope- derived from the host cell

97
Q

What does icosahedral symmetry mean?

A

A virus is made up of repeated subunits- they are full of lots of information but few genes

98
Q

What does helical symmetry mean?

A

Made up of a single repeated unit so it only has to code for 1 protein

99
Q

What are the 6 steps of virus infection?

A

Attachment, entry, uncoating, protein synthesis, assembly, release

100
Q

How can viruses enter cells?

A

Through the envelope fusing with the cell membrane or endocytosis in viruses without an envelope

101
Q

The action of what aids uncoating of viruses?

A

Viral ion pumps

102
Q

What are antimicrobials?

A

Drugs used to treat all types of infection, not just bacteria

103
Q

What will recognise proteins on the viral cell surface and signal the infected cell to commit suicide to prevent spread of the virus?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

104
Q

What prevents viruses binding to more cellular receptors?

A

Neutralising antibodies

105
Q

What are examples of viruses which can reactivate?

A

Varicella Zoster or Herpes simplex virus

106
Q

What are examples of chronic viral infections which remain inactive for years?

A

HIV/Hepatitis C

107
Q

What will previous viral infections show that new ones wonā€™t?

A

IgG antibodies from immunological memory

108
Q

What are current viral detection agents?

A

PCR, antigen detection

109
Q

What are the 3 main ways that viruses exert pathogenesis?

A

Lysis or hijacking of cell material, cell proliferation or through cytotoxic T cells

110
Q

What do bacteriostatic antibiotics do?

A

Inhibit growth of bacteria

111
Q

What do bacteriocidal antibiotics do?

A

Kill bacteria

112
Q

How can antibiotics be excreted?

A

Either in the urine or through the liver, biliary tract and faeces

113
Q

What is the advantage of using IV antibiotics over oral?

A

They will reach peak serum levels quicker

114
Q

What are some targets of antibiotics?

A

Cell wall, ribosomes, DNA replication, DNA gyrases, metabolic pathways, cell membrane function

115
Q

What type of antibiotics target the cell wall?

A

Beta-lactams and glycopeptide antibiotics

116
Q

What are examples of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin, flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, ceftriaxone, carbapenems

117
Q

What is an example of a glycopeptide antibiotic?

A

Vancomycin

118
Q

What does vancomycin have no activity against?

A

Gram -

119
Q

What is a penicillin targeting gram +?

A

Flucloxacillin

120
Q

What are penicillins targeting gram + and -?

A

Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, tazocin

121
Q

What is a penicillin targeting gram -?

A

Temocillin

122
Q

How are penicillins excreted?

A

Via kidneys

123
Q

Are penicillins safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes

124
Q

What is flucloxacillin used for?

A

Staph and strep only

125
Q

Why is the use of cephalosporins limited?

A

They kill normal gut flora and can cause gastroenteritis

126
Q

What are examples of antibiotics which target protein synthesis?

A

Aminoglycosides e.g. gentamicin and tetracyclines e.g. doxycyline

127
Q

When should you not use doxycycline?

A

Infants, children and pregnancy

128
Q

What are examples of macrolide antibiotics?

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin

129
Q

How are macrolides excreted?

A

In the liver

130
Q

Where do antibiotics such as metronidazole, fluoroquinones and rifampicin target?

A

Nucleic acid synthesis

131
Q

What are common side effects of all antibiotics?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea- may also affect absorption of oral contraceptives

132
Q

What are side effects of gentamycin?

A

Renal and CNVIII damage

133
Q

What is an effect of metronidazole?

A

Interacts with alcohol

134
Q

What do broad spectrum antibiotics increase the risk of?

A

C. diff infections, especially in the elderly

135
Q

What are 3 reasons for antibiotics being given in combination?

A
  • Cover a wide range of organisms
  • Prevent development of resistance
  • Create a synergistic effect
136
Q

What antibiotics should never be given in combination?

A

A bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal antibiotic

137
Q

What are the ā€˜4Cā€™ antibiotics which should be avoided?

A

Cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin

138
Q

What are some examples of natural resistance?

A

Target not present or accessible, developmental structure, metabolism

139
Q

What are biofilms?

A

Organisms behaving as part of a multi-cellular community

140
Q

What is resistance?

A

Drug is no longer active against an entire population of cells

141
Q

What can resistance occur because of?

A

Mutation, selection pressure and evolution, horizontal gene transfer

142
Q

What is the difference between cross resistance and multiple resistance?

A

Cross resistance means that resistance came about through a single mechanism and multiple resistance means it took many

Principles (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions