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Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two components of the immune system?

A

White blood cells and soluble (humoral) factors

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2
Q

What are the soluble factors involved in the immune system?

A

Antibodies, complement proteins, acute phase proteins and cytokines

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3
Q

What are the two types of white blood cell involved in the immune system?

A

Lymphocytes and phagocytes

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4
Q

What are the phagocytes involved in the immune system?

A

Neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, dendritic cells

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5
Q

What are the lymphocytes involved in the immune system?

A

NKC’s, B cells, T cells (cytotoxic and helper), mast cells, basophils and eosinophils

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6
Q

What are the 4 different types of immunity?

A

Anti-viral, anti-helminth, anti-intracellular bacterial, anti-extracellular bacterial/fungal

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7
Q

What components are involved in anti-viral response?

A

Antibodies, NKC’s, cytokines and cytotoxic T cells

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8
Q

What components are involved in anti-helminth immune response?

A

Eosinophils, basophils, B-cells and antibodies and mast cells

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9
Q

What components are involved in anti-intracellular bacterial immune response?

A

B-cells and antibodies, cytotoxic T-cells and NKCs

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10
Q

What components are involved in anti-extracellular bacterial and fungal immune response?

A

Antibodies, neutrophils, macrophages, complement, cytotoxic T cells, NKCs

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11
Q

What are some molecules which are included in the general class of ‘cytokines’?

A

Chemokines, interferons and interleukins

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12
Q

What do cytokines do?

A

Modulate behaviour of cells and co-ordinate the immune system

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13
Q

When are antibodies produced and how do they act?

A

In response to an antigen- they act specifically

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14
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

Antigen activated B cells

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15
Q

Where do complement proteins come from and what do they do before they are activated?

A

They are produced in the liver and circulate in the blood as precursor molecules

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16
Q

What happens when an activated complement protein enters an inflamed or infected cell?

A

It sets off a cascade of complement activation

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17
Q

What do complement proteins promote?

A

Inflammation

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18
Q

What are NKCs?

A

Large granular lymphocytes

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19
Q

Where are B and T cells found before the are activated?

A

Circulating in the blood as inactive molecules until they meet a pathogen

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20
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Produce antibodies and defend against extra cellular pathogens

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21
Q

What type of pathogen do T cells protect against?

A

Intracellular pathogens

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22
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

Regulate the immune system

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23
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

Kill virally infected cells

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24
Q

Which type of pathogens do basophils, eosinophils and mast cells protect against?

A

Those which cannot be phagocytosed

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25
Q

What type of cells are eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and what do they produce?

A

Highly granular cells which produce histamine, heparin and cytokines

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26
Q

What do mast cells do?

A

Reside in tissues and protect mucosal surfaces

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27
Q

What do basophils and eosinophils do?

A

Circulate in blood and are recruited to the site of infection by inflammatory signals

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28
Q

What do macrophages do as well as phagocytosis?

A

Limit inflammation, involved in tissue repair, wound healing and antigen presentation

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29
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Circulate in blood, migrate to peripheral tissues and differentiate into macrophages

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30
Q

What are monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils a source of?

A

Cytokines

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31
Q

What do dendritic cells have a key role in?

A

Antigen presentation to T cells

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32
Q

What transformation do dendritic cells undergo?

A

Start as immature cells in peripheral tissues and become mature as they migrate to secondary lymphoid tissues

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33
Q

What happens in primary lymphoid tissues?

A

Leukocyte (WBC) development

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34
Q

What are examples of primary lymphoid tissues?

A

Bone marrow, thymus

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35
Q

What happens in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Adaptive immune responses are initiated

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36
Q

What is found in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

B cells, T cells and dendritic cells

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37
Q

What are examples of secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes

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38
Q

What is lymphoedema?

A

Localised fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system

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39
Q

What can cause lymphoedema?

A

Parasitic infection, cancer treatments or it can be inherited

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40
Q

What components are involved in innate immune response?

A

Macrophages, mast cells, complement, neutrophils, NKCs

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41
Q

What type of response does the innate immune system produce?

A

Rapid (mins-hours), non-specific response

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42
Q

What type of response does the adaptive immune system produce?

A

Slower (days), specific response

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43
Q

What else does the adaptive immune system do?

A

Generates immunological memory

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44
Q

What components are involved in the adaptive immune response?

A

B cells, T cells

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45
Q

What has the function of switching between the innate and adaptive immune systems?

A

Dendritic cells

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46
Q

What is direct biological communication?

A

Receptor to ligand interactions

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47
Q

What is the first part of indirect biological communication?

A

Injured tissue cells and activated immune cells produce cytokines which communicate with the immune system

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48
Q

What is the second part of indirect biological communication?

A

Virally infected cells produce interferons which puts cells into non-viral state and acts on other immune cells, particularly NKCs

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49
Q

What happens in the recognition phase of the innate immune response?

A

Innate immune cells recognise and respond to pathogens

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50
Q

What do pathogens express?

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

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51
Q

What do innate immune cells express?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)

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52
Q

Where are PRRs found?

A

On the surface of the cell and intracellularly to detect intra and extra cellular pathogens

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53
Q

What happens in the activation and effector phase of the innate immune response?

A

Acute inflammation and pathogen killing

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54
Q

Where do macrophages reside?

A

Epithelial tissues at sites where pathogens are likely to invade

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55
Q

What is a major function of macrophages in innate response?

A

Clearance of apoptotic cells

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56
Q

What is an example of an anti-inflammatory mediator released in the innate immune response?

A

IL-10

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57
Q

What happens if the mechanism of apoptotic clearance fails?

A

Autoimmune disease

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58
Q

What is degranulation (in terms of mast cells)?

A

Release of pre-formed pro-inflammatory molecules

59
Q

What is gene expression (in terms of mast cells)?

A

Release of new pro-inflammatory molecules

60
Q

What happens in the acute phase response of innate response?

A

Changes in the plasma concentration of specific proteins in response to inflammation

61
Q

What is the acute phase response driven by?

A

Cytokines

62
Q

What do CRP, SAP and complement proteins cause?

A

Prevent spread of infection and act as diagnostic markers

63
Q

What does fibrinogen do?

A

Coagulation and wound healing

64
Q

What do CRP, haptoglobin, manganese superoxidase dismutase and proteinase inhibitors do?

A

Prevent systematic inflammation

65
Q

What is the first branch of inflammatory mediators produced by macrophages, mast cells and NKCs?

A

Nitric oxide, histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes

66
Q

What does the first branch of inflammatory mediators cause?

A

Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction

67
Q

What is the second branch of inflammatory mediators released by mast cells, macrophages and NKCs?

A

Cytokines- TNFalpha, IL-1 and IL-6

68
Q

What does the second group of inflammatory mediators cause?

A

Increased vascular permeability and endothelial cell activation

69
Q

What is the 3rd group of inflammatory mediators released by mast cells, macrophages and NKCs?

A

Chemokines

70
Q

What does the 3rd group of inflammatory mediators lead to?

A

Leukocyte recruitment and activation

71
Q

What does acute inflammation cause?

A

Pain, heat, redness, swelling and loss of function

72
Q

What do macrophages produce?

A

TNFalpha, IL-1 and NO

73
Q

What do mast cells release?

A

Prostaglandins, histamine, TNFalpha, leukotrienes

74
Q

What are the adhesion molecules that activated endothelial cells possess?

A

Selectins (receptors) and ICAMs (ligands)

75
Q

Where do chemokines come from?

A

Macrophages and mast cells

76
Q

What is the first stage of chemotaxis?

A

Neutrophils bind to selectins and roll along the endothelial surfaces

77
Q

What is the 2nd stage of chemotaxis?

A

Neutrophils bind to ICAM-1/VCAM-1 ligands on the endothelium via selectins

78
Q

What is the 3rd stage of chemotaxis?

A

Neutrophils change shape and migrate through the endothelial wall to the site of inflammation

79
Q

What are two structural facts about neutrophils?

A

They have intracellular granules and a multi-lobed nucleus

80
Q

What do neutrophils release to immobilise pathogens?

A

intracellular structures known as NETs

81
Q

What do NETs do?

A

Prevent pathogens spreading and facilitate phagocytosis

82
Q

What is pus made up of?

A

Neutrophils, NETs, cellular debris and dead bacteria

83
Q

What is an accumulation of pus known as?

A

Abscess

84
Q

What are used to neutralise TNFalpha?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

85
Q

What are the four stages of complement function?

A

1) Pathogen killing
2) Opsonisation
3) Leukocyte recruitment
4) Removal of immune complexes

86
Q

What defence is complement involved in?

A

Against encapsulated bacteria

87
Q

How does complement cause pathogen killing?

A

C5b binds to the surface of pathogens, it then combines with C6,7,8,9 to form membrane attack complex (MAC) which is inserted into target cell walls to cause osmotic lysis

88
Q

What does opsonisation do?

A

Facilitates phagocytosis

89
Q

What complement protein is involved in opsonisation?

A

C3b

90
Q

How does opsonisation facilitate phagocytosis?

A

Pathogens are coated with opsonsins, phagocytes have opsonin receptors

91
Q

How do complement proteins cause leukocyte recruitment?

A

C3a and C5a (anaphylatoxins) promote inflammation by acting directly on blood vessels

92
Q

Where are T and B cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

93
Q

What are the antigen receptors for T cells?

A

Membrane bound protein heterodimers

94
Q

What are the antigen receptors for B cells?

A

Membrane bound antibodies (IgM/IgD)

95
Q

Where are antibodies found?

A

Expressed on the surface of B cells and secreted as soluble proteins into extra cellular fluid

96
Q

What type of polypeptide chains are antibodies made of?

A

2 Ig heavy and 1 Ig light polypeptide chains

97
Q

What do they polypeptide chains that make up antibodies contain?

A

A variable region and a constant domain

98
Q

What holds the polypeptide chains in antibodies together?

A

Disulphide bonds

99
Q

What is the part of the antibody structure that changes with the different types?

A

Different Ig heavy chain constant regions

100
Q

What forms the antigen binding site?

A

Hypervariable regions of the Ig heavy and light chains

101
Q

Where does adaptive immune response take place?

A

Secondary lymphoid tissues

102
Q

Where do mature, antigen specific B and T cells circulate between?

A

Blood, secondary lymphoid tissues and lymph nodes

103
Q

What is trapped in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

jDendritic cells, pathogens, antigens and debris

104
Q

What is another name for MHC proteins?

A

HLA

105
Q

Where are class I MHC proteins found?

A

All uncleared cells

106
Q

What do class I MHC proteins do?

A

Present peptide antigens to CD8+ T cells

107
Q

Where are class II MHC proteins found?

A

Only on professional antigen presenting cells

108
Q

What do class II MHC proteins do?

A

Present peptide antigens to CD4+ T cells

109
Q

What is the differentiation process of forming antibodies?

A

B cells, plasma cells, antibodies

110
Q

What do short lived plasma cells do?

A

Churn out lots of antibodies

111
Q

What do long-lived plasma cells do?

A

Reside in bone marrow for low level secretion of specific antibodies (immunological memory)

112
Q

What role does the variable region of antibodies play?

A

Involved in recognition function

113
Q

What role do heavy chain constant regions play?

A

Involved in effector function, contact region interacts with effector molecules (Fc receptors and complement)

114
Q

What is an early role of IgM and what does this mean?

A

B-cell activation therefore it is the first Ig type produced in an immune response

115
Q

What is the structure of IgM?

A

Pentamer

116
Q

Where is IgM found and why?

A

Only in tissue fluid as it is too big to cross the membrane

117
Q

What are the other 2 functions of IgM?

A

Agglutination and complement system activation

118
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Immune complex formation (cross linking multiple antigens to produce clumps of antigens) to increase efficacy of phagocytosis

119
Q

What is agglutination mediated by?

A

Specific antigen binding

120
Q

When is IgM produced?

A

Innate immune response

121
Q

What is IgG?

A

The most abundant antibody in human serum, dominant type produced during a secondary response and the best as it has many functions

122
Q

What are the functions of IgG?

A

Agglutination, complement system activation, foetal immune protection, neutralisation, opsonisation and NKC activation

123
Q

How is IgG transported to the foetus?

A

Directly across the placenta into the foetal blood supply

124
Q

What does neutralisation prevent?

A

Pathogens from infecting host cells and microbial toxins disrupting normal cell function

125
Q

What is opsonisation initiated and mediated by?

A

Initiated by antigen binding and mediated by Fc receptors binding to the constant region of the heavy chain

126
Q

What is the function of IgD?

A

B cell antigen receptor (B cell activation)

127
Q

Where is IgD found?

A

Extremely low concentrations in the blood

128
Q

How abundant is IgA?

A

Second most abundant form

129
Q

Where is IgA found?

A

Monomeric form in serum, dimeric form in secretory fluid

130
Q

What are the functions of IgA?

A

Neutralisation and neonatal immune protection

131
Q

How does IgA protect neonates?

A

Transported in the colostrum and breast milk to protect the GI tract of neonates

132
Q

How are false readings of neonatal antibodies common?

A

Shows maternal ones

133
Q

What is the function of IgE?

A

Triggers allergic responses

134
Q

What do CD4+ T cells secrete?

A

IL-2

135
Q

What does IL-2 cause?

A

Growth factor production and promotes mitosis in T cells

136
Q

What response are TH1 cells involved in?

A

Bacteria

137
Q

What response are TH2 cells involved in?

A

Helminth and Protozoa

138
Q

What do T helper cells help activate?

A

B cells and macrophages

139
Q

What cells does immunological memory involve?

A

Memory CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, memory B cells and long lived plasma cells

140
Q

Describe antibody concentrations in primary response?

A

IgM first until concentrations of IgG take over

141
Q

Describe antibody concentrations in secondary response?

A

Immediate secretion of IgM and IgG but IgG at higher concentrations

142
Q

What are some examples of opsonins and what do they do?

A

CRP, IgG antibodies and C3b- mediate opsonisation

143
Q

What is a key mediator of complement and why?

A

C3 as it is activated by all 3 pathways

144
Q

Where is CRP produced?

A

Liver cells

Principles (11 decks)

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