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COT > Microbiology 2% > Flashcards

Microbiology 2% Flashcards

1
Q

The prevention of sepsis by the exclusion, destruction or inhibition of growth or multiplication of microorganisms from body tissue and fluids.

A

Antisepsis

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2
Q

Chemical compounds that combat sepsis by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms without necessarily killing them.
Used on skin and tissue, arrest the growth of endogenous microorganisms (resident flora), and must not destroy tissue.

A

Antiseptics

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3
Q

Free of microorganisms including all spores

A

Sterile

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4
Q

What is the most difficult bacteria to kill?

A

Spores

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5
Q

Why are spores difficult to kill?

A

Because they form a hard, protective coating around themselves(they are encapsulated)

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6
Q

If we kill the spores we know that we….

A

killed all the microorganisms.

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7
Q

Why do we do spore testing?

A

To make sure that our method of sterilization is effective.

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8
Q

How is spore testing performed?

A

With a biological monitoring kit, at set intervals, findings are documented, must recall instruments if bad spore test.

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9
Q

What does the biological monitoring it contain?

A

An incubator, a box of spore vials, and a log book

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10
Q

How often should you do spore testing?

A

Depending on how often you run your load…
1x per week, several x per week, or 1 x per mo.

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11
Q

How do you do spore testing?

A

Take a spore vial, put in pill pack and autoclave it just like you would your instruments. When it comes out take out of pill pack and take that spore vial and put in incubator along with the other spore vial that you didn’t sterilize(this is the control). Incubate both for 48-72 hours or however long kit says to incubate them. When you take them both out they should look different. The one that was sterilized shouldn’t have grown any microorganisms but the one that was not should have. They need to look different if they look the same there is a problem with autoclave. Document findings in the log book.

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12
Q

The absence of microorganisms that cause disease.

A

Aspesis

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13
Q

A severe, febrile toxic state resulting form infection with microorganisms, with or without septicemia (blood infection)

A

Sepsis

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14
Q

What does febrile mean?

A

With a fever

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15
Q

This means that you treat every pt as if they are known to have an infectious disease and take appropriate precautions to prevent the spread of disease.

A

Universal precautions

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16
Q

How should you disinfect horizontal surfaces?

A

With and EPA-registered germicide which attacks hepatitis and HIV

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17
Q

What does PPE stand for?

A

Personal protective equipment

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18
Q

What items are considered PPE?

A

Masks, gowns, gloves, shoe covers (these 4 are one time use), and goggles(reuseable)

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19
Q

What is the purpose of PPE?

A

To help protect you from exposure to others’ blood, body fluids, or splash protection or laser light protection.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of PPE?

A

To help protect you from exposure to others’ blood, body fluids, or splash protection or laser light protection.

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21
Q

Exposure to another’s blood or body fluid either from a needle stick or a splash is know as…

A

exposure incident

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22
Q

What is your employer required to provide you with if there is an exposure incident?

A

counseling, testing, and treatment at no charge.

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23
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted through the ______route

A

oral, fecal

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24
Q

HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis B, and Hep C are what type of pathogens?

A

Blood born

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25
Q

Devices that are designed to help prevent needle stick injuries.

A

Safety syringes

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26
Q

Osha requires the employees be included in the selection of ____

A

safety devices, including safety needles.

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27
Q

What are the characteristics of a safety syringe?

A

Barrier between hands and needle
hands to remain behind the needle at all times
An integral part of the device-not an accessory
In effect before disassembly; remains in effect after disposal
As simple as possible; requires little or no training to use effectively

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28
Q

A method of differentiating bacteria based on chemical and physical properties of the cells wall, is almost always the first step in identifying bacteria.

A

Gram staining

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29
Q

Gram positive microorganisms stain what color?

A

Blue

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30
Q

Gram negative microorganisms stain….

A

Pink

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31
Q

Explain how to to gram staining.

A

1.Obtain a tissue sample
2. Spread tissue evenly and thinly on glass slide
3. Fix smear by quickly passing over flame 2-3x
4. Flood smear with Crystal Violet
5. Gently rinse with tap water
6. Flood with iodine
7. Gently rinse with tap water
8. Decolorize with alcohol or acetone, let excess drain off slide
9. Rinse decolorizer off with tap water
10. Flood slide with counterstain Saffranin
11. Gently rinse slide with tap water
12. Drain slide, allow to air dry
13. Examine slide under microscope

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32
Q

What are the 3 basic types of Bacteria?

A

Cocci, Bacilli, Sprochetes(spiral)

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33
Q

Which bacteria is round?

A

Cocci

34
Q

Which bacteria is a rod shape?

A

Bacilli

35
Q

Which bacteria is spiral shaped?

A

Spirochetes

36
Q

What type of Bacteria is Staph and Strep?

A

Cocci

37
Q

Is Staph and Step gram positive or negative?

A

Gram positive

38
Q

What type of bacteria is Gonococcus and Meningococcus?

A

Cocci

39
Q

Is Gonococcus and Meningococcus gram positive or negative?

A

Gram Negative

40
Q

What type of bacteria is Corneobacterium, Bacillus, and Mycobacterium?

A

Bacilli

41
Q

Is Corneobacterium, Bacillus, and Myobacterium gram negative or positive?

A

Gram positive

42
Q

What type of bacteria is Pseudomonas, Haemophilus, and Moraxella?

A

Bacilli

43
Q

Is Pseudomonas, Haemophilus, and Moraxella gram negative or positive?

A

Gram negative

44
Q

What type of bacteria is Syphillis?

A

Spirochetes

45
Q

How do microorganisms invade tissue structure?

A

By some alteration in the tissue structure.

46
Q

What are some of the things that cause an alteration in the tissue structure of the eye that allows microorganisms to invade?

A

Trauma, Radiation therapy, ocular sx, inadequate blink, lid abnormalities, tear anomalies, corneal degenerative changes, immuno-compromised (DM, AIDs, oral steroids, alcholism, renal transplant)

47
Q

Pus producing, appears in skin, boils, and styes (Canada, Northern Us)

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

48
Q

The multi-drug resistant form of Staph aureus.

A

MRSA

49
Q

What is the most common strep that invades the eye?

A

Streptococus Pneumoniae

50
Q

Why doesn’t Strep Pneumoniae stain with gram staining and what is used instead?

A

Because it is encapsulated
India ink

51
Q

Streptococcus Pneumoniae cause what eye conditions?

A

Conjunctivitis, K ulcer, Endophthalmitis

52
Q

This is the most devastating bacillus to invade the eye, is most common cause of K ulcer in CL wearers, common in Southern US.

A

Pseudomonas
(CL bacteria)

53
Q

Spirochete that can’t be seen through routine microscope and must be viewed with Darkfield illumination.

A

Syphilis

54
Q

Smallest organisms that are not visible with traditional microscope.

A

Viruses

55
Q

Viruses must be viewed with what type of microscopy?

A

Fluorescence microscopy and Electron microscopy

56
Q

What are the viruses found in eyes?

A

Adenovirus, Herpes Zoster Virus Ophthlamicus, and Herpes Simplex Keratitis

57
Q

Adenovirus causes….

A

conjunctivitis

58
Q

What is Darkfield illumination

A

light is not shined directly on the slide, rarely used since we have blood tests to identify syphilis

59
Q

Bacteria live ___the cell wall

A

outside

60
Q

Viruses live ____the cell.

A

within

61
Q

Viruses are much more damaging than bacteria because they….

A

penetrate the cell wall

62
Q

________is a common virus we deal with in ophthalmology. It is commonly associated with upper respiratory infection and can cause conjunctivitis.

A

Adenovirus

63
Q

What is a positive Hutchinson’s sign?

A

It means pt with herpes has sores on the tip of her nose, this is a sign that pt is 99% likely to have herpes in the eye. (vice vera if tip of nose clear negative Hutchinson’s sign)

64
Q

What nerve does the herpes zoster virus reside on?

A

5th trigeminal Nerve
(sores will follow the midline of face)

65
Q

Fungi are _____

A

acellular

66
Q

How do fungi reproduce?

A

by using the host metabolism

67
Q

If pt cornea is scratched by a twig they may develop a what?

A

Fungi

68
Q

Chlamydia is _____

A

intra cellular

69
Q

Where is Chlamydia common?

A

The US

70
Q

A parasite that lives in soil, tap water, spas and some pools that can be devastating to the K

A

Acanthomeoeba

71
Q

Candida, Fusarium and Aspergillus are types of what?

A

Fungi

72
Q

Chlamydia can cause…

A

Keratoconjunctivitis, trachoma

73
Q

Acanthomeoeba is a …..

A

parasite

74
Q

How long does it take to get smear results and why?

A

minutes or hours because we are just staining the and then we look at them under the microscope

75
Q

How long do culture results take? Why?

A

Days
Positive as soon as one day
Negative always takes 3 day.
If culture is negative at day 1 or day 2 it doesn’t mean it will be negative at day 3.

76
Q

What do we use to identify bacteria and fungi

A

gram stain

77
Q

What do we use to identify the cell structure and the presence of inclusion bodies(which is evidence of inflammation?

A

Giemsa and Wright

78
Q

________contains specific nutrients to allow microorganisms to thrive it can be solid or liquid.

A

Culture media

79
Q

By placing an abx soaked disc on a culture plate we can test…….

A

micro organisms sensitivity to different drugs.

80
Q

What is the basic medium that we use in ophthalmology?

A

Blood agar

81
Q

Petry dishes are incubated ______to lessen the possability of contamination from air born particle and to prevent water condensation from accumulating and disturbing microbs.

A

upside down

82
Q

When sending a tissue specimen to the lab send it ______ with formalin if sent to pathology for microscopic exam or send to the lab in sterile jar _____ to bacteriology for culture

A

fixed
unfixed

COT (28 decks)

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