Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

difference in structure of gram positive and gram negative

A

unique to gram positive - lipoteichoic acid + thick peptidoglycan layer

unique to gram negative - outer membrane composed of endotoxins/LPS and porin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

what bugs do not gram stain well

A

These Little Microbes May Unfortunately lack Real Colour But Are Everywhere

treponema pallidum, leptospira
mcobacteria
mycoplasma, ureaplasma
legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, anaplasma, ehrilichia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what organisms turn red or pink on gram stain

A

gram negatives (due to thin peptidoglycan layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what organisms retain violet crystal dye on gram stain

A

gram positive (due to thick peptidoglycan layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what bacteria are visualised on giemsa stain

A

Help! Certain Bugs Really TRY my Patients

H.pylori, chlamydia, borrelia, rickettsia, trypanosomes, plasmodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what bacteria is visualised with periodic acid-schiff stain

A

tropheryma whipplei
(Whipples disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what bacteria are visualised on ziehl-zeilson stain

A

acid fast bacilli (e.g. mycobacteria)
protozoa (e.g. cryptosporidium oocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what bacteria are visualised on india ink stain

A

cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what bacteria are visualised on silver stain

A

HELiCOPters Are silver

h.pylori, legionella, bartonella henselae, fungi (coccidiodes), pneuocystitis jiroveci, aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

culture media for h.influenzae

A

chocolate agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

culture media for n.gonorrhoea and n.meningitidis

A

thayer-martin agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

culture media for bordetella pertusis

A

bordet gengou agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

culture media for c. diptheriae

A

tellurite agar, loffler medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

culture media for m. tuberculosis

A

lowestein jensen medium
middlebrook medium, rapid automated broth cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

culture media for m. pneumoniae

A

eaton agar - requires cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

culture media for lactose fermenting enterics

A

Maccokey agar - turns pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

culture media for e.coli

A

Wosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

culture media for brucella, francisella, legionella, pasteurella

A

charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

culture media for fungi

A

sabouraud agar
(sab’s a fun guy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why are aminoglycosides ineffective at treating anaerobes

A

aminoglycosides require oxygen to enter into bacteria cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the anaerobes

A

anaerobes Cant Breath Fresh Air

clostridium
bacteroides
fusobacterium
actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

obligate intracellular bacteria examples

A

stay inside (cells) when its Really Chilly and Cold

Ricketssia
Chlamydia
Coxiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

facultative intracellular bacteria examples

A

Some Nasty Bugs May Liver facultativeLY

Salmonella
Neissiseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Fancisella
Legionella
Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

people without a spleen are at risk of what type of infections and why

A

infections by encapsulated bacteria
encapsulated bacteria are optomised and then cleared by the spleen. Without a spleen they are not optomized and thus increased risk for severe infections

Please SHiNE my SKiS
psueodomonas
H.influenzae
N.meningitidis
Salmonella
klebsiella
group B Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
asplenic patients require what additional vaccines
vaccines against encapsulated bacteria; h.influenzae n. meningitidis strep pneumoniae
25
urease positive organisms
Pee CHUNKS proteus cryptococcus h. pylori ureaplasma nocardia klebsiella s. epidermidis s. saprophyticus
26
urease positive organisms predisposes to what type of renal stones
struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate)
27
golden yellow pigment producing bacteria
staph aureus (aureus in latin = gold)
28
blue-green pigment producing bacteria
pseudomonas (aerugula is green)
29
red pigment producing bacteria
serratia marcescens (red srirachia sauce)
30
yellow 'sulphur' granules producing bacteria
actinomyces israelii (israel has yellow sand)
31
bacterial virulence factor - protein A binds Fc region of IgG preventing optomization and phagocytosis
staph aureus
32
bacterial virulence factor - IgA protease cleaves IgA allowing bacteria to adhere to and colonize mucous membranes
strep pneumoniae, h.influenzae and Neisseeria
33
inactivation elongation factor (EF-2) through ADP ribosylation
corynebacterium diptheriae pseudomonas
34
inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenosine from rRNA
enterohaemorrhagi E.coli shigella spp.
35
mimics andeylate cyclase (increases cAMP)
anthrax tocin (bacillus anthracis)
36
overactivates adenlylate cyclase (increases cAMP) by permenantly activating Gs
cholera toxin (vibro cholerae)
37
responsible bacteria for 'rice water' diarrhoea and mechanism of action
vibro cholerae overstimulates adenylate cyclase (increases cAMP) by permanantly activating Gs
38
activates adenylate cyclase by inactivating inhibitory subunit Gi
pertusis
39
proteases that cleave SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptor), a set of proteins required for neurotransmitter release via vesicular fusion
clostridium botulimun - botulin toxin clostridium tetani - tetanospasmin toxin
40
phospholipase that degrades tissue and cell membranes
clostridium perfringes - alpha toxin
41
protein that degrades cell membrane
strep pyogenes - streptolysin O
42
cross linking beta region of TCR to MHC class II on APCs outside of the antigen binding site --> overwhelming release of IL1, IL2, IFN-Y and TNF alpha = shock
staph aureus - toxic shock toxin (TSST-1) strep pyogenes - erythrogenic exotoxin A
43
gram positive cocci, catalase positive, coagulase positive bacterium
staph aureus
44
gram positive cocci, catalase negative, beta haemolytic
bacitracin sensitivity and PYR status; positive - group A strep pyogenes negative - group B strep agalactiae
45
gram positive cocci, catalase negative, alpha haemolytic
optochin sensitivity and bile solubility; positive - strep pneumoniae negative - strep viridians
46
gram positive cocci, catalase negative, gamma haemolytic
positive - enterococcus negative - strep gallolyticus
47
gram positive cocci, catalase positive, coagulase negative, urease positive in clusters
staph epidermidis + staph saprophyticus
48
gram positive cocci, catalase negative, alpha haemolytic, optochin positive, lancet-shaped diplococci
strep pneumoniae
49
gram positive cocci, catalase negative, alpha haemolytic, optochin negative
viridians (strep mutans, strep mitis)
50
gram positive cocci, catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin positive
staph epidermidis
51
gram negative diplocci non-maltose fermenting
N.gonorrhoea
52
gram negative diplococci maltose fermenting
N. meningitidis
53
gram negative cocobacillus
h.influenzae bordetella pertusis rickettsia rickettsi
54
gram negative lactose fermenting fast bacillus
e.coli klebsiella
55
gram negative lactose fermenting slow bacillus
serratia citrobacter
56
gram negative curved rods oxidase positive
campylobacter, cholerae, h.pylori
57
why is there not a vaccine for gonorrhoea
due to antigenic variation of pilus protein
58
treatment brucella
doxycycline + rifampicin/streptomycin
59
how do salmonella and shigella invade the GI tract
through M cells of payers patches
60
describe the presentation of rocky mountain spotty fever
rash starts on palms and soles of feet then spreads rash, fever, headache
61
rocky mountain spotty fever bacterium and vector
rickettsia rickettsi intracellular gram negative diplococci vector = tick occurs in south atlantic states esp North carolina
62
genomic structure of EBV
part of herpesviridae double stranded linear DNA
63
blocks release of glycine and GABA
clostridium tetani
64
how does clostridium tetani spread
tetanospasmin remains localised to wound site tetanospasmin spreads by retrograde axonal transport to CNS
65
ingestion of honey can put a baby at risk of what infection
clostridium botulism
66
virulence factor for E.coli infections causing cystitis and pyelonphritis infections
fimbrae
67
virulence factor for e.coli infections causing pneumonia and neonatal meningitis infections
K capsule
68
virulence factor for e.coli infections causing septic shock
LPS endotoxin
69
produces alpha toxin which causes myonecrosis
clostridium perfringes = gas gangrene (skin creptius)
70
gram positive, forms long branching filaments resembling fungi
nocardia + actinomyces
71
in what cells does CMV acquire latency
monocytes