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Biology 154 > Microbiology 154 Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Microbiology 154 Final Exam Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Most bacteria reproduce by

a. aerial hyphae
b. fragmentation
c. mitosis
d. binary fission
e. budding

A

D

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2
Q

The algal blooms that occur in Lake Erie and other bodies of water are primarily caused by

a. global warming
b. fertilizer run off from agricultural fields and residential areas
c. industrial pollution
d. the extinction of aquatic species
e. none of the above

A

B

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3
Q

In anaerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is

a. oxygen
b. ATP
c. an inorganic molecule other than oxygen
d. an organic molecule

A

C

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4
Q

Which of the following are required for microbial cell growth?

a. reduced cofactors
b. anabolic intermediates
c. energy conserved in chemical bonds
d. only (b) and (c)
e. (a), (b) and (c) are all required

A

E

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5
Q

The energy from catabolic reactions is used to produce

a. ADP
b. ATP
c. AMP
d. phosphate

A

B

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6
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation is made possible by

a. the use of oxygen to reduce NAD+
b. the use of inorganic molecules as a source of carbon
c. fermentation wherein organic compounds are used as a terminal electron acceptor
d. a proton gradient that is formed by an electron transport chain

A

D

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7
Q

The growth of almost all bacteria in the environment

a. is limited by cool temperatures
b. is limited by high pH
c. is limited by the availability of one or more nutrients
d. is unlimited because bacteria are metabolically versatile

A

C

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8
Q

The glycolysis pathway and the tricarboxylic acid pathway (Krebs cycle) are commonly referred to as central metabolism. This is because:

a. these physiological reactions take place in the center of the cytoplasm
b. essentially all carbon sources (amino acids, lipids, aromatic compounds, etc.) are metabolized by first transforming them into intermediates of these two pathways
c. essentially all carbon sources are intermediates in either the EMP or the TCA pathways
d. answers (a) and (c) are both correct

A

B

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9
Q

Archaea and Bacteria are unified as prokaryotes in lacking ______________

a. membranes
b. nuclei
c. membrane-enclosed organelles
d. nuclei and membrane-enclosed organelles

A

D

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10
Q

The cell membrane of bacteria

a. prevents cell lysis due to high intracellular osmotic pressure
b. is impermeable
c. consists of a lipid bilayer
d. answers (b) and (c) are correct
e. answers (a) and (c) are correct

A

C

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11
Q

Proteins are

a. polymers of amino acids that are connected by peptide bonds
b. are involved in the catalysis of biochemical reactions
c. have so called “side groups” that affect how amino acids in a protein interact
d. answers (a) and (b) are both correct
e. answers (a), (b), and (c) are all correct

A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following does not occur as part of the TCA(Krebs) cycle?

a. the production of CO2
b. the oxidation of NADH
c. the complete oxidation of pyruvate
d. a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced by the oxidation of pyruvate

A

B

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13
Q

During glycolysis

a. glucose is metabolized to produce pyruvate
b. substrate level phosphorylation results in the net formation of 2 ATP and 2 NADH
c. the substrate is oxidized
d. answers (a) and (b) are both correct
e. answers (a), (b) and (c) are all correct

A

E

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14
Q

When a bacterial culture contains only one type of organism, it is called a ______________.

a. mixed culture
b. liquid culture
c. environmental culture
d. pure culture

A

D

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15
Q

During metabolism
a. catabolism and anabolism both occur
b. energy from catabolism is conserved as ATP and used in anabolism to make the
macromolecules found in cells
c. energy from catabolism is conserved as ATP and used in anabolism where it is used to
break down substrate molecules
d. answers (a) and (b) are both correct

A

D

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16
Q

There are similarities and differences between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria. Which of the following is not true?

a. the cell wall of Gram-negative cells is composed of only one or two layers of peptidoglycan whereas the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria have many peptidoglycan layers
b. only Gram-positive bacterial cells have a periplasm
c. the cell membranes of both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria are lipid bilayers
d. there is a second membrane (called the outer membrane) just outside the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria, but this is absent from Gram-positive bacteria

A

B

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17
Q

Pasteur used swan-necked flasks to

a. disprove the theory of spontaneous generation
b. explain why wine was sometimes sour
c. demonstrate the cause of rabies
d. demonstrate the effectiveness of pasteurization

A

A

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18
Q

Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan that:

a. controls cell division
b. consist of linear polysaccharides that are cross linked by simple sugars to form a ‘mesh like’ structure that maintains cell integrity
c. consist of linear polysaccharides that are cross linked by short polypeptide chains to form a ‘mesh like’ structure that maintains cell integrity
d. answers (a) and (b) are correct

A

C

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19
Q

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes

a. have the same kinds of metabolic pathways, but little else in common
b. have nothing in common
c. have many things in common because they share a common ancestor
d. are identical to each other

A

C

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20
Q

Regarding early life on Earth,

a. microbial life existed for hundreds of millions of years before plant and animal life
b. microbial life existed long before animals but has been around for about the same amount of time as plants
c. microbial life, plant life, and animal life all appeared at about the same time
d. it is impossible to determine which type of life first appeared

A

A

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21
Q

In aerobically respiring prokaryotic organisms the tricarboxylic acid(TCA) cycle:
a. provides cells with important anabolic intermediates that are required for growth
b. provides a means to completely oxidize organic substrates
c. is coupled to electron transport processes that result in the conservation of energy in
the form of ATP
d. answers (a) and (b) are both correct
e. answers (a), (b) and (c) are all correct

A

E

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22
Q

Pasteurization requires

a. vaccinating animals to protect them against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. the use of heat to kill most of the microorganisms found in liquids such as milk to preserve their taste
c. use of closed containers to prevent the spoilage of food
d. the use of heat to kill most of the microorganisms found in liquids to protect against infectious diseases such as tuberculosis

A

D

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23
Q

During fermentation

a. NADH is oxidized to form NAD+
b. the terminal electron acceptor is an organic compound
c. ATP is formed from ADP and Pi
d. answers (a) and (b) are both correct
e. answers (a), (b) and (c) are all correct

A

D

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24
Q

Koch’s postulates

a. must be followed to prevent infectious disease
b. describe steps that should be followed to determine the cause of an infectious disease
c. explain why acids are sometimes produced during the production of wine
d. were used by Robert Koch to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation

A

B

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25
Q

Bacterial cells reproduce by binary fission, which results in exponential growth of the population. If the size of a bacterial population at time zero (t0) is 20 cells and the generation time is 30 minutes, then how many cells will be in the population after 2 hours of growth?

a. It is not possible to calculate the number with the information provided
b. 80 cells
c. 160 cells
d. 320 cells
e. 640 cells

A

D

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26
Q

The surface of your kitchen counter has 107 bacterial cells so you clean it with a disinfectant that kills 99% of germs on contact. How many bacteria remain and are viable?

a. 107 bacteria
b. 106 bacteria
c. 105 bacteria
d. 104 bacteria

A

C

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27
Q

An operon consists of

a. a set of genes that encode proteins in the same
b. metabolic pathway a promotor
c. an operator site
d. all of the above (a-c)
e. none of the above (a-c)

A

D

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28
Q

The process in which bacteria pass their genes to other species of bacteria is known as

a. mitosis
b. vertical gene transfer
c. horizontal gene transfer
d. crossing over

A

C

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29
Q

You have one copy of a small gene that you wish to amplify by the polymerase chain reaction(PCR). After 7 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?

a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128

A

D

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30
Q

Which of the following places the steps of PCR in the correct order?
Steps in PCR:
(1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands;
(2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis;
(3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 2, 1
c. 1, 3, 2
d. 2, 1, 3

A

C

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31
Q

Generation time can best be defined as:

a. the length of time it takes for lag phase
b. the duration of log phase
c. the time it takes for a bacterial cell to divide
d. how many generations a cell can divide

A

C

32
Q 
Which enzyme would cut this segment of DNA?
GCATGAATTCGGTTAACATGGC CGTACTTAAGCCAATTGTACGG
a. HindIII
AAGCTT 
TTCGAA
b. PvuI
CGATCG 
GCTAGC
c. HpaI
GTTAAC 
CAATTG
A

C

33
Q

Oxygen

a. required for strictly aerobic bacteria
b. can be toxic or lethal to some organisms
c. toxicity mostly due to the production of superoxide radicals that are powerful oxidizing agents
d. aerobic bacteria can protect themselves but strict anaerobes can not
e. all of the above

A

E

34
Q

We wished to determine the abundance of bacteria in a sample of milk. To do this ten-fold serial dilutions of a one milliliter milk sample were prepared. One milliliter of the fourth dilution was plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate had 35 colonies. How many bacteria were in the original milk sample?

a. 35 cells per ml
b. 350 cells per ml
c. 3,500 cells per ml
d. 35,000 cells per ml
e. 350,000 cells per ml

A

E

35
Q

Low temperatures

a. have a bacteriostatic effect on most bacteria
b. result in desiccation of bacteria
c. remove water from the environment and thereby prevent bacterial metabolism
d. create a hypertonic environment causing plasmolysis

A

A

36
Q

Which process converts one parental double-stranded DNA molecule to two identical offspring molecules?

a. transformation
b. transcription
c. replication
d. translation

A

C

37
Q

What molecule carries information that is used by ribosomes to make specific proteins?

a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. RNA polymerase

A

A

38
Q 
An experiment began with 2 cells and ended with 256 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?
a. 5 
b. 6 
c. 7 
d 8
A

C

39
Q

The genetic code

a. is determined by the order of the sugar-phosphate units in DNA
b. is determined by the order of amino acids in mRNA
c. is determined by the order of nitrogen-containing bases in DNA
d. is determined by the order of anticodons in t-RNA

A

C

40
Q

A gene is best defined as

a. any random segment of DNA
b. three nucleotides that code for an amino acid
c. a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product
d. a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product
e. the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA

A

C

41
Q

During transcription

a. DNA is replicated
b. a strand of messenger RNA is made that is complimentary to one of the two DNA strands
c. an exact copy of a single DNA strand is made
d. a strand of messenger RNA is made that is complimentary to both of the DNA strands

A

B

42
Q

DNA

a. encodes all the information needed for the inheritance of traits
b. encodes the sequences of messenger RNAs
c. has two strands of DNA that are bound together by hydrogen bonds
d. is comprised of four deoxyribonucleotides
e. all of the above

A

E

43
Q

According to the base pairing rules of nucleic acids

a. A can pair with T
b. A can pair with U
c. A can pair with G
d. A can pair with A
e. (a) and (b) are both correct

A

E

44
Q

Which of the following statements about protein synthesis is NOT true?
a. t-RNA molecules shuttle different amino acids to a ribosome
b. t-RNA molecules sequentially bind to codons in mRNA
c. the order of amino acids is determined by base-pairing between the codons in mRNA and
the anti-codons of t-RNA
d. amino acids are linked together by hydrogen bonds to form polypeptides

A

D

45
Q

Which of the following are NOT exploited to clone genes?
a. restriction enzymes that ‘cut’ DNA at specific sequences of nucleotides
b. base-pairing of nucleotides to ‘paste’ new DNA into a plasmid vector
c. differences in the sequences of two genes
d. the enzyme DNA ligase that forms covalent bonds between a plasmid vector and a cloned
gene

A

C

46
Q

Francis Crick and James Watson proposed that DNA was a helix with two strands of DNA
a. that were bound together by complimentary pairing of nitrogenous bases
b. that were held together by hydrogen bonds that could easily be separated to allow for
replication of a chromosome transcription
c. that could be transcribed to produce a complimentary mRNA
d. all of he above

A

D

47
Q

Which of the following statements about smooth and rough variants of Streptococcus pneumoniae is true?
a. neither cause disease
b. both cause disease
c. a substance from the ‘rough’ variant transforms ‘smooth’ variants into a form that causes
disease
d. they were used by Griffith to show that DNA was responsible for transforming avirulent Streptococcus pneumoniae into virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D

48
Q

Ribosomes are:
a. complex molecular machines that translate the code of DNA into single strands of mRNA
during transcription
b. complex molecular machines that translate the code of DNA into double strands of mRNA
c. complex molecular machines that translate the code of single strands of mRNA into
sequences of polypeptides during protein synthesis
d. complex molecular machines that guide the ‘docking’ of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences present in DNA to insure that the correct strand of DNA is transcribed

A

C

49
Q

24) What will be the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide made when this mRNA is translated (see table)?
a. Val-Tyr-Trp-Thr-Gly
b. Val-Tyr-Trp-Ser-Gly
c. Val-Tyr-Trp
d. Val-Tyr
e. none of the above

A

D

50
Q

This is an example of a ________ mutation (type) that results in a ________ mutation.

a. insertion; nonsense
b. point; nonsense
c. point; missense
d. deletion; missense

A

B

51
Q

What is the most frequent cause of emerging viral infections?
a. Mutation of a virus to spread more easily through a human population.
b. Spread of a virus to humans from a zoonotic source.
c. Reduced vaccination of human populations.
d. Spread of a virus to new populations by movement of infected people into areas where
the population are not immune to the disease.
e. Infection of humans from a contaminated environmental source, like a body of water.

A

B

52
Q

Which of the following was NOT a factor described in the Frontline episode that allowed the most recent Ebola outbreak to spread out of control?
a. Ebola had never been detected in this part of Africa before.
b. The virus spread into large cities that didn’t have adequate health care infrastructure.
c. The virus mutated to spread more efficiently from human to human.
d. The borders between countries were porous, allowing people to move freely back and
forth between countries.
e. Contacts of infected people were not being monitored or tracked.

A

C

53
Q

Which of the following statements about penicillins and cephalosporins are NOT true:

a. they inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis.
b. they have largely different chemical structures, but all have ß-lactam rings.
c. they have entirely different chemical structures.
d. they specifically inhibit the growth of prokaryotes.

A

C

54
Q

Phylogenetic species concept is the premise for

a. classifying microorganisms based on evolutionary relationships.
b. classifying microorganisms based on differences in 16S rRNA gene sequences.
c. classifying organisms based on the ability to use different carbon sources.
d. (a) and (b) are both true.
e. (a), (b) and (c) are all true.

A

D

55
Q

Which is NOT part of the classic epidemiology “triangle”? a. host

b. pathogen
c. environment
d. evolution

A

D

56
Q

Innate immunity

a. is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
b. is nonspecific and present at birth.
c. involves a memory component.
d. involves T cells and B cells.
e. provides increased susceptibility to disease.

A

B

57
Q

Which of the following statements about macrophages is NOT true?
a. Macrophages have pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that recognize
molecules that are broadly shared by pathogens (PAMPS) but distinguishable
from host molecules.
b. The LPS of Gram negative bacteria and teichoic acids of Gram positive bacteria
are examples of PAMPs.
c. Macrophages stimulate the production of antibodies that are specific for a
particular pathogen
d. Macrophages can ingest, kill and digest invading microorganisms

A

C

58
Q

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

a. ciliary escalator
b. normal skin flora
c. phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
d. acidic skin secretions
e. lysozyme

A

C

59
Q

Which statements about multiple drug resistant bacteria is/are true?

a. They are only found in hospitals.
b. They often have plasmids that encode resistance to multiple antibiotics.
c. They can only be killed if multiple drugs are used. They produce multiple antibiotics.
d. Both (a) and (b) are true.

A

B

60
Q

Which of the following statements about the bacterium Rhizobium is NOT true?

a. cells of Rhizobium infect the root hairs of leguminous plants
b. cells of Rhizobium form nodules in leguminous plants
c. cells of Rhizobium protect leguminous plants against ammonia that is applied on crops as fertilizer
d. cells of Rhizobium fix nitrogen in plant nodules

A

C

61
Q

Antibiotic resistance in bacteria

a. develops as a result of spontaneous mutations.
b. is readily transferred among various bacterial species by horizontal gene transfer.
c. is often encoded on plasmids.
d. all of the above.

A

D

62
Q

Bacteria can increase the Earth’s temperature by

a. generating a great deal of heat in metabolism.
b. producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas.
c. using the greenhouse gas CO2.
d. providing nutrients for plant growth.
e. oxidizing CH4.

A

B

63
Q

Which of the following is a close association between two different organisms that is beneficial to both?

a. antagonism
b. competition
c. symbiosis
d. neutralism
e. parasitism

A

C

64
Q

Due to global warming permafrost soils are thawing and releasing what gases into the atmosphere?

a. methane
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. (a) and (b)
e. (a), (b) and (c)

A

D

65
Q

In all healthy reproductive age women the vagina:

a. is acidic and always has a pH < 4.5.
b. always has high proportions of lactobacilli.
c. always has about the same kinds of bacterial species
d. statements (a), (b) and (c) are all correct.
e. statements (a), (b) and (c) are all not correct.

A

E

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about oxygen?
a. It is always used as a terminal electron acceptor in bacterial metabolism
b. It is required for strictly aerobic bacteria
c. It can be toxic or lethal to some organisms
d. Its toxicity mostly due to the production of superoxide radicals that are powerful
oxidizing agents
e. Aerobic bacteria can protect themselves from oxygen but strict anaerobes can not

A

A

67
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a. the gut microbiome ‘communicates’ with the human brain
b. the gut microbiome can be dramatically affected by antibiotics
c. the gut microbiome does not change much after an individual is born
d. none of these statements are false

A

D

68
Q

Tuberculosis (TB) is:

a. readily cured in modern times by treating ill persons with antibiotics.
b. second only to HIV/AIDS as the greatest killer worldwide due to a single infectious agent.
c. not a problem in the world today because there is an effective vaccine.
d. is only a problem in the developing world where there is inadequate health care infrastructure.

A

B

69
Q

The “targets” for antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections are:

a. found only in pathogenic microorganisms.
b. are only various steps in protein biosynthesis.
c. biochemical processes that are only found in bacteria and not eukaryotic hosts.
d. statements (a) and (c) are both correct.

A

C

70
Q

All of the following can only be done by prokaryotes except for:

a. Methane production
b. Methane oxidation
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Ammonia metabolism
e. Carbon dioxide fixation without relying on photosynthesis

A

D

71
Q

People living with HIV are 20 to 30 times more likely to develop tuberculosis than people without HIV. What is the principle reason why this is true?

a. they are likely to be socioeconomically disadvantaged and do not have ready access to adequate health care
b. their immune systems can not function as well as those of healthy individuals
c. they are more likely to be exposed to people infected by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. all of the above

A

B

72
Q

Which of the following statements about the “normal microbiota” of the human body is NOT true?
a. they are diverse species of bacteria that reside in and on the human body
b. they are bacteria that normally cause disease
c. they represent the first line of defense against infectious organisms that might cause
disease
d. they often differ between individuals
e. all of the above

A

B

73
Q

Hanta virus

a. Has only appeared once in history; an outbreak in the Southwest United States.
b. Has repeatedly caused disease in various locations throughout history.
c. Can be carried and transmitted to humans by deer mice
d. Can be directly transmitted from human to human.
e. All of the above.

A

E

74
Q

The graph below shows that when an animal host is exposed to the same virus for a second time, the immune system responds immediately and to a higher level. This is an example of:

a. vaccination
b. phagocytosis
c. immunological memory
d. antibiotic effectiveness

A

C

75
Q

Which of the following are early examples of epidemiology?

a. Alexander Fleming demonstrating that Penicillium rubens exuded a substance with antibiotic properties
b. John Snow collecting cholera surveillance data and shutting down the Broad Street pump in London
c. Ignaz Semmelweis forcing doctors and interns to wash their hands in his surgical ward to reduce the incidence of puerperal fever
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. Both (b) and (c)

A

E

Biology 154 (6 decks)

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