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01LMR_MOTHER NOTES > MICROBIO W1-DAY2_ALN > Flashcards

MICROBIO W1-DAY2_ALN Flashcards

1
Q

most effective method of sterilization

A

autoclave

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2
Q

autoclaving of media and instruments is set at:

A

121C, 15 psi for 15 mins

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3
Q

autoclaving of infectious medical waste

A

132C (270F) for 30-60 mns

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4
Q

QC for autoclave

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

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5
Q

sterilizer used in tyndallization

A

Arnold’s sterilizer

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6
Q

Tyndallization = flowing steam set at:

A

100C for 30 mns for 3 successive days

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7
Q

In tyndallization, flowing steam is set for 3 consecutive days. Indicate the purpose of each day.

A

1: killing of vegetative cells
2: germinating spores
3: remaining spores and vegetative cells

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8
Q

“thickening through evaporation”

A

Inspissation

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9
Q

Inspissation is set at:

A

75-80C for 2 hours, 3 consecutive days

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10
Q

used to sterilize inoculating loops and needles

A

Flame

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11
Q

Killing principle/mechanism of dry heat

A

via oxidation

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12
Q

Usage of oven for sterilization is set at:

A

160-180 for 1.5-3 hrs

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13
Q

Biological indicator for QC of ovens

A

Bacillus subtilis

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14
Q

this is the most common method of treating infectious waste

A

Incineration

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15
Q

Incineration temp

A

870-980C

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16
Q

Safest method to ensure that no infective materials remain in samples or containers upon disposal

A

Incineration

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17
Q

Methods of culture media sterilization

A

Autoclave
Membrane filtration

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18
Q

T/F:

Evacuated tubes should be sterilized via autoclave and ethylene oxide gas

A

FALSE

This can alter pressure inside the tubes

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19
Q

The most effective filter used for sterilization via filtration

A

Asbestos - Sietz (98% effective)

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20
Q

Millipore size that equates to 100% bacterial sterility

A

0.22 um

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21
Q

Sterilization method of choice for antibiotic solutions, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines, and carbohydrates

A

Filtration

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22
Q

Pertained to as filtrable agents of infection

A

Viruses

Filter: 0.22 um
Virus size: 0.01-0.03 um

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23
Q

In filtration, filtration of liquids is accomplished by pulling the solution through ___________ membrane with a vacuum

A

cellulose acetate
cellulose nitrate

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24
Q

Used to filter air

A

High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter

removes organisms >0.3 um

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25
Q

Sterilization method of choice for syringes, catheter, gloves, and evacuated tubes

A

Ionizing radiation

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26
Q

Sterilization method involving high energy gamma rays

A

Ionizing radiation

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27
Q

Most common chemical sterilant

A

Ethylene oxide

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28
Q

Ethylene oxide biological indicator for QC

A

Bacillus subtilis

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29
Q

“cold sterilization”

A

ethylene oxide
glutaraldehyde
peracetic acid

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30
Q

This sterilization method kills spores in 3-10 hrs and is used for medical equipment (e.g., bronchoscopes) because it does not corrode lenses, metal, or rubber

A

glutaraldehyde

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31
Q

Sterilization method effective in the presence of organic material

A

Peracetic acid

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32
Q

The process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all microorganisms or spores

A

Disinfecition

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33
Q

Sterilization via boiling is set at what temp & duration

A

100C for 15 mns

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34
Q

This sterilization method is used mostly in food industry to prevent food spoilage

A

Pasteurization

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35
Q

Two methods by which pasteurization may be done

A

Batch method (Low-temp holding)
Flash method (High temp, short-time)

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36
Q

Batch method is set at:

A

63C for 30 mns

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37
Q

Flash method is set at:

A

72C for 15 secs

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38
Q

An example of this sterilization method is the use of mercury lamps (long wavelength, low energy)

A

Non-ionizing radiation

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39
Q

Disinfectants used on living tissue are termed:

A

Antiseptics

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40
Q

This destroys vegetative forms on inanimate objects (microbicidal)

A

Disinfectants

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41
Q

Alcohol concentration for disinfection

A

70%

increased water conc = for protein denaturation

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42
Q

Conc. of formaldehyde as disinfectant

A

8%

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43
Q

Conc. of glutaraldehyde as disinfectant

A

2%

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44
Q

Examples of halogens used as disinfectant

A

Iodine
Chloride

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45
Q

How long must iodine be applied to skin

A

60 secs

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46
Q

Iodine + detergent = ?

A

Iodophor

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47
Q

Used to neutralize chlorine (e.g., in pools)

A

Sodium thiosulfate

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48
Q

Bleach is also known as:

A

Sodium hypochlorite

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49
Q

How long before halogens inactive HBV?

A

10 mns

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50
Q

How long before halogens inactivate HIV?

A

2 mns

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51
Q

Common bleach dilution

A

1:10

1 part NaOCl, 9 parts H2O

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52
Q

Metal that is known as algicide

A

COpper

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53
Q

Eye drop solution containing ________ is used to prevent Opthalmia neonatorium

A

1% AgNO3

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54
Q

use of QUATS should be avoided in labs handling what type of microorganism?

A

MTB

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55
Q

Prior to culture of MTB specimens, ________ is used for decontamination to remove normal flora

A

QUATS

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56
Q

Benzalkonium chloride (zephiran) is under what category of disinfectant

A

QUATS

57
Q

This is sued to disinfect bench tops or other surfaces in the lab and is rapidly inactivated by organic matter

A

QUATS

58
Q

Standard disinfectant

A

Phenol

(denature proteins, disrupt cell membranes)

59
Q

Phenol coefficient control for Gram + orgaisms

A

S. aureus

60
Q

Phenol coefficient control for Gram - organisms

A

S. typhi

61
Q

Expression of the bactericidal power of a particular substance as compared to pure phenol

A

Phenol coefficient

62
Q

PC that indicates disinfectant is better than phenol

A

> 1

63
Q

Ionizing radiation biological indicator for QC:

A

Bacillus pumilus

64
Q

Dry heat oven biological indicator for QC:

A

Bacillus subtilis var. niger

65
Q

Ethylene oxide biological indicator for QC:

A

B. subtilis var. globigii

66
Q

Most common type fo BSC

A

Type II

67
Q

Type of BSC used when radioisotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens will be used

A

IIB

68
Q

BSC with no recirculation

A

IIB2

69
Q

BSC with the highest level of safety

A

Type III

70
Q

Airborne microorganisms

A

Measles, varicella, TB, smallpox

71
Q

Multi-drug resistant bacteria that is transmitted via contact

A

Clostridium difficile

72
Q

JEMBEC system type of transport is used for what microorganism

A

N. gonorrhoeae

73
Q

This substance is added to Stuart’s or Amie’s media to absorb FA present in the specimen

A

charcoal

74
Q

Addition of charcoal to Stuart’s or Amie’s media is for what organisms

A

N. gonorrhoeae
Bordetella pertussis

75
Q

SPS is used at what concentration as anticoagulant in clinical specimens?

A

0.025%

76
Q

Long term storage of tissues or other specimens

A

-70C

77
Q

Storage of serum for serologic studies

A

Frozen up to 1 week at -20C

78
Q

Storage of normal specimens (urine, stool, viral specimens, swabs, catheters)

A

4C

79
Q

Example of a critical value in Microbio is presence of what specimen in sterile site?

A

S. pyogenes

80
Q

Example of a critical value in Microbio is presence of what specimen in genital site of pregnant woman at term?

A

S. agalactiae
HSV

81
Q

Examples of significant pathogens (considered critical value in microbio)

A

Bordetella pertussis
Brucella spp.
Legionella spp.

82
Q

In collection of abscess (wound), this substance is added if smear suggests mixed gram positive and gram negative flora

A

CNA (Columbia Colistin-Nalidixic medium)

83
Q

Addition of CNA in abscess collection enhances growth of what organism

A

Gram +

84
Q

For collection of deep abscess, (aerobic/anaerobic) transporter is used.

A

Anaerobic

85
Q

In collection of blood or bone marrow aspirate, collection should be done at time of what type of episode?

A

Febrile

86
Q

In collection of blood for blood culture, what is the volume for adults and infant px?

A

adult: >/= 20 mL/set

infants: 1-5 or 1-20 mL/set

87
Q

Ratio of blood to medium for blood cultures

A

1:10

88
Q

Best concentration of SPS for anticoagulation

A

0.025 to 0.030%

89
Q

Most common concentration of SPS for anticoagulation

A

0.025-0.050%

90
Q

Spx of choice for B. pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

91
Q

NPS transportation to the lab should be:

A

<2 hrs/RT

92
Q

Specimen recovered from NPS

A

H. influenzae
N. meningitidis
B. pertussis
MRSA

93
Q

Bartlets criteria of acceptable sputum sample

A

<10 EC/LPF

> 25 PMNS/LPF

94
Q

When testing for sputum, what spx is used for bedridden px

A

Gastric lavage

95
Q

Specimen of choice for detecting nontuberculous mycobacteria and other opportunistic pathogens in px with immune dysfunction

A

Bronchial lavage, washings, and brushings

96
Q

Spx of choice for mechanically ventilated adult px

A

Endotracheal aspirate (ETAs)

97
Q

Sp. of choice for P. jiroveci/P. carinii testing

A

BAL

98
Q

common causes of respiratory infection among immunosuppressed

A

P. jiroveci
P. carinii

99
Q

Factor used for 1 uL inoculated loop in urine colony count

A

1000

100
Q

Factor used for 10 uL inoculated loop in urine colony count

A

100

101
Q

volume discarded in using catheter for urine collection

A

first 15 mL

102
Q

Collection of urine for px with indwelling catheter

A

aspirate 5-10 mL of urine with needle and syringe

103
Q

Specimen of choice for urine anaerobic culture

A

Suprapubic aspiration

104
Q

Colony count that means patient has UTI?

A

> / = 100,000 CFU/mL

105
Q

UTI cause in 90% of cases

A

E. coli

106
Q

commonc cause of UTI among young females

A

S. saprophyticus

107
Q

medium used for stool culture

A

Cary blair

108
Q

common cause of diarrhea and gastroenteritis among children

A

Rotavirus

109
Q

common cause of diarrhea among adults (Norwalk virus)

A

Norovirus

110
Q

common cause of diarrhea among hospitalized px

antibiotic-assoc. diarrhea

A

C. difficile

111
Q

ecofriendly fixative for O & P

A

PVA

112
Q

Stool specimens containing these substances ar eunacceptable

A

MABBAN

Mineral oil
Antibiotic
Barium
Bismuth
Antimalarial agents
Non-absorbable antidiarrheal prep

113
Q

How long before specimen be collected after antibiotic/barium administration?

A

5-10 days

or at least 2 weeks

114
Q

Plating media for routine CSF analysis

A

BAP
CAP

115
Q

Plating media for CSF analysis (shunt)

A

BAP
CAP
THIOL

116
Q

CSF must be transported in the laboratory within:

A

15 mns

117
Q

CSF storage conditions

A

<24 hrs incubate at 37C

EXCEPT VIRUSES: 4C for 3 days

118
Q

Agent that causes increased eosinophils in CSF (fungal)

A

Coccidioides immitis

119
Q

causative agent of bacterial meningitis in newborns - 1 month

A

S. agalactiae and Gram -

120
Q

causative agent of bacterial meningitis in 1 month - 5 yo

A

H. influenzae (serotype b)

121
Q

causative agent of bacterial meningitis in in 5 yo to 29 yo

A

N. meningitidis

122
Q

causative agent of bacterial meningitis in >29 yo

A

S. pneumoniae

123
Q

causative agent of bacterial meningitis in in infants, and immunosuppressed px

A

L. monocytogenes

124
Q

Type of meningitis associated with normal lactate and glucose level

A

Viral

125
Q

Type of meningitis associated with pellicle formation

A

Tubercular

126
Q

Type of meningitis associated with increased WBC primarily neutrophils in CSF

A

Bacterial

127
Q

Type of meningitis associated with positive limulus lysate test

A

Bacterial

128
Q

Limulus lysate test rgt

A

Blood of horseshoe crab (limulus polyphemus)

129
Q

+ rxn in limulus lysate test

A

clumping

130
Q

Pellicle formation in tubercular meningitis can only be seen at what condition?

A

overnight refrigeration

131
Q

most common cause of aseptic meningitis

A

Enterovirus

(no growth of fungi and bacteria upon culture)

132
Q

resemble lymphocytes in CSF

A

C. neoformans

133
Q

resemble myelin globules in sputum

A

Blastomyces

134
Q

C. neoformans pattern in gram stain

A

classic starburst

135
Q

In fungal meningitis, this is the causative agent that shows positive rxn in india ink

A

C. neoformans

136
Q

Interference in latex agglutination for C. neoformans

A

Rheumatoid factor

Note: can be eliminated by boiling for 5 mns

137
Q

CSF collection tubes:

Test for each tube?

A
  1. Chem/Sero (frozen)
  2. Microbio (RT/37C)
  3. Hema/cell count (refrigerated)
  4. Microbio
138
Q

If only 1 tube of CSF collected, what is the order of priority of tests?

A
  1. Microbio
  2. Hema
  3. Chem

01LMR_MOTHER NOTES (11 decks)

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