01SUSHI_MICROBIO Flashcards

1
Q

Gram + aerobic cocci

A

[SMS]

Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Streptococcus

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2
Q

Gram - aerobic cocci

A

[NM]

Neisseria
Moraxella

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3
Q

Gram + anaerobic cocci

A

[SPP]

Sarcina
Peptococcus
Peptostreptococcus

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4
Q

gram - anaerobic cocci

A

Veilonella

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5
Q

gram + aerobic bacilli

A

[BCELL - MN]

Bacillus
Corynebacterium
Erysipelothrix
Listeria
Lactobacillus
Mycobacterium
Nocardia

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6
Q

gram + anaerobic bacilli

A

[CAP]

Clostridium
Actinomyces
Propionobacterium

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7
Q

gram - anaerobic bacilli

A

[FBPP]

Fusobacterium
Bacteroides
Prevotella
Porphyromonas

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8
Q

MacConkey pH indicator

A

neutral red

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9
Q

SSA pH indicator

A

neutral red

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10
Q

culture media with phenol red as pH indicator

A

[MX CUT]

MSA
XLD
CTA
UREASE
TSI

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11
Q

culture media with bromthymbol blue as pH indicator

A

[CHOTS]

Citrate
HEA
OF Hugh Leifson
TCBS
SCA

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12
Q

LIA pH indicator

A

bromcresol purple

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13
Q

ideal specimen for recovery of Pneumocystis carinii

A

BAL

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14
Q

sp of choice for Aspergillus recovery

A

BAL

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15
Q

specimens that cannot be refrigerated

A

CSF
blood
gonorrhea swab

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16
Q

specimens that can be refrigerated within 1 hr at 4C

A

urine
sputum
stool
swab except genital swab

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17
Q

microorganisms that SPS inhibits

A

G. vaginalis
S. moniliformis
P. anaerobius
Neisseria

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18
Q

BACTEC 9120 TAT

A

5 days

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19
Q

CSF centrifugation setting

A

2000 rpm, 10 mns

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20
Q

Sputum centrifugation setting for TB culture

A

3000g for 15 mns

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21
Q

Leprosy specimen

A

Tissue juice

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22
Q

Stains for metachromatic granules

A

Burke’s modification of GS
Loeffler’s Alkaline Methylene Blue (LAMB)

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23
Q

Modification of GS stain used for demonstration of fungi

A

Hucker’s

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24
Q

stain and rgt used to enhance polychromatic effect in Hucker’s test

A

crystal violet; ammonium oxalate

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25
Q

decolorizer in modified AFS

A

1% H2SO4

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26
Q

counterstain in fluorescent staining for AFB

A

0.5% KMnO4 (quenching agent)

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27
Q

Preservative in trichrome stainine

A

PVA

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28
Q

B. anthracis capsule stain

A

McFadyean’s

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29
Q

Stains for capsule

A

Hiss
Tyler
Muir
India ink

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30
Q

Soil transmitted parasites

A

[HATS]

Hookworm
A. lumbricoides
T. trichiura
S. stercoralis

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31
Q

Food transmitted parasites

A

[TTT]

Taenia (pork/beef)
Trichinella (pig/rat)
Toxoplasma (cat)

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32
Q

Contact transmitted parasites

A

[ET]

Enterobius
Trichomonas

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33
Q

Parasites with Cockroach vector

A

Ascaris
Trichuris

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34
Q

Parasites with intranasal entry

A

[HAN]

Hartmanella
Acanthamoeba
Naegleria

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35
Q

Parasites that can be transmitted transmammary

A

Strongyloides
A. duodenale

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36
Q

Parasites with urine exit

A

T. vaginalis
S. haematobium

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37
Q

Parasites with sputum exit

A

[APEEECT]

ASH: larva
Paragonimus: egg
E. granulosus: cyst
E. histolytica: troph
E. gingivalis: trum
C. parvum: oocyst
T. tenax: troph

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38
Q

Diseases that can be diagnosed through muscle biopsy

A

Trichinosis (T. spiralis)
Sparganosis (D. latum)
Cysticercosis (T. solium)

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39
Q

Diseases diagnosed via rectal biopsy

A

Amebiasis
Schistosomiasis

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40
Q

Parasites with granuloma formation

A

[SAG]

Schistosoma
Anisakis
GAE

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41
Q

Aphasmid nematodes

A

[TCT]

Trichuris
Capillaria
Trichinella

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42
Q

Negative stains

A

India ink
Anthony’s

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43
Q

Stains for metachromatic granules

A

Alvert
Neisser
Lindergren’s
LAMB
Burke’s

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44
Q

Stain for bipolar bodies

A

Wayson stain

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45
Q

Stains for flagella

A

FLGSC

Fisher & Conn
Leifson
Gray
Silver technique
Caesares Gil

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46
Q

Stains for endospores

A

Dorner’s
Schaeffer Fulton’s
Wirtz Conklin

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47
Q

Stain for spirochetes

A

[FL]

Fontana Tribondeau
Levaditi silver impregnation

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48
Q

Stain for mycoplasma

A

Dienes

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49
Q

Stain for cell wall

A

Victoria blue

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50
Q

Stain for DNA

A

Feulgen

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51
Q

Stain for acid fast bacilli

A

Ziehl Neelsen
Kinyoun
Pappenheim’s (TB red SMEG blue)
Baumgarten’s (TB blue LEPRAE red)
Wadefite

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52
Q

Protozoan staining using iodine

Troph:
Chromatoidal bodies:
Cyst cytoplasm:

A

Troph: Destroyed
Chromatoidal bodies: Unstained
Cyst cytoplasm: Yellow brown

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53
Q

Glycogen color using trichrome

A

colorless

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54
Q

Chromatoidal bodies color using trichrome stain

A

bright red

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55
Q

Parasite nucleus color using trichrome

A

red-purple

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56
Q

Charcot-Leyden color using trichrome

A

bright-red

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57
Q

Excessive concentrations of ____________ can result in false resistance to sulfonamides and trimethoprim

A

Thymidine

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58
Q

Decreased pH effect on aminoglycosides and tetracycline

A

low pH = decreased activity of aminoglycosides, erythromycin, clindamycin and increased activity of tetracycline

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59
Q

Biphasic medium for Brucella blood culture

A

Castaneda

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60
Q

Media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain

A

Sorbitol

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61
Q

N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis both grown in CAP. Which of the two will grow on BAP?

A

N. meningitidis

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62
Q

AST media for Neisseria

A

GC agar

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63
Q

Carbohydrate fermentation media for Neisseria

A

Cysteine trypticase agar + phenol red

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64
Q

Transport media for N. meningitidis

A

Amies with charcoal

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65
Q

Which of the following culture media are clear?

GC
Modified TMA
Martin Lewis
New York City

A

New York city (yeast extract based)

Others: CAP based

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66
Q

Corynebacterium appearance in tellurite:

A

gray-black

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67
Q

Corynebacterium appearance in tinsdale

A

black with brown halo

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68
Q

Corynebacterium appearance in cystine tellurite:

A

gun-metal gray

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69
Q

Small intestine inhabiting nematodes

A

CASH

Capillaria
Ascaris
Strongyloides
Hookworm

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70
Q

Large intestine inhabiting nematodes

A

[ET]

Enterobius
Trichuris

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71
Q

Nematodes in Meninges

A

Angiostrongylus (eosinophilic ME)
Naegleria (PAM)
Acanthamoeba (GAE)

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72
Q

Most frequently isolated nematodes

A

ATE

Ascaris
Trichuris
Enterobius

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73
Q

3 layers of Ascaris egg

A

AGV

Albuminoid
Glycogen
Vitelline

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74
Q

Parasites capable of autoinfection

A

CHEST

Capillaria
Hymenolepis nana
Enterobius
Strongyloides
Taenia solium

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75
Q

Parasites with heart-lung migration

A

ASH

Ascaris (loeffler’s)
Strongyloides (Loeffler’s)
Hookworm (Wakana)

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76
Q

Parasites that utilize xenodiagnosis

A

TsTc

Trichinella spiralis
Trypanosoma cruzi

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77
Q

Visceral larva migrans

A

Toxocara canis

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78
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans

A

Hookworm

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79
Q

Bachmann Intradermal

A

Trichinella

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80
Q

Casoni skin test

A

Echinococcus

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81
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

cauliflower

A

M. tuberculosis

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82
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

coral red fluorescence on Wood’s light with porphyrin

A

C minutissimum

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83
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

dew drop

A

Haemophilus

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84
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

golden (better at 25-30)

A

Staphylococcus

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85
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

hockey puck

A

Moraxella

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86
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

molar tooth

A

A. israelii

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87
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

Nonpigmented

A

Streptococcus

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88
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

Snow flake on BG agar

A

Salmonella

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89
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

string of pearls (media with penicillin)

A

B. anthracis

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90
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

Bamboo pole, medusa head

A

B. anthracis

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91
Q

COLONY APPEARANCE:

Wrinkled

A

N. sicca

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92
Q

MOTILITY

Corkscrew

A

Spirochetes (axial filaments)

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93
Q

MOTILITY

Darting

A

Campylobacter

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94
Q

MOTILITY

Gliding

A

Capnocytophaga
Mycoplasma pnuemoniae

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95
Q

MOTILITY

Rapid darting/shooting star

A

Vibrio

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96
Q

MOTILITY

Spinning

A

Leptospira

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97
Q

MOTILITY

Tumbling

A

Listeria

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98
Q

MOTILITY

Twitching

A

Kingella
Bartonella

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99
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Lumpy jaw

A

A. israelii

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100
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Black eschar

A

B. anthracis

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101
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Ragpicker’s/Woolsorter’s
Gastroenteritis and bloody diarrhea

A

B. anthracis

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102
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Eye infection in heroin addicts

A

B. cereus

103
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

104
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Flat sour spoilage

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

105
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Hemodialysis contaminants

A

Bacillus other than A/C

106
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Undulant fever, Contagious abortion

A

Brucella

107
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Bull neck appearance, pseudomembrane in tonsils

A

C. diphtheriae

108
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Erythrasma

A

Corynebacterium minutissimum

109
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Conjunctivitis

A

Corynebacterium xerosis

110
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Pink eye

A

H. aegyptius

111
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Proctitis, Sepsis in homosexual mean, enteritis

A

Helicobacter cinaedi
Helicobacter fenneliae

112
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Ulcerative chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

113
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Peptic ulcer

A

Helicobacter pylori

114
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Legionnaire’s Pontiac

A

Legionella pneumophila

115
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Weil’s disease

1st week: Blood/CSF

A

Leptospirosis

116
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Coleslaw food poisoning

A

Listeria

117
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Lady Windermere Syndrome

A

Mycobacterium avium

118
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Otitis media (3rd)

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

119
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Hansen’s disease

A

Mycobacterium leprae

120
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Swimming pool granuloma

A

Mycobacterium marinum

121
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Crohn’s

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

122
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Buruli ulcers

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

123
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Gonococcal urethritis (clap)
Opthalmia neonatorium, PID, arthritis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

124
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen, DIC

A

Neisseria meningitidis

125
Q

1 cause of neonatal meningitidis

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Streptoccocus agalactiae

Granada medium, Todd-Hewitt for fluorescence

126
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Major pathogen of newborn

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

127
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Ritter’s disease

A

Staph aureus

128
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Number one cause of TSS and SSS

A

Staph aureus

129
Q

1 cause of wound infection

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Staph aureus

130
Q

1 cause of skin infection

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Staph aureus

131
Q

1 cause of ocular pathogen

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Staph aureus

132
Q

1 cause of osteomyelitis

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Staph aureus

133
Q

1 cause of nosocomial infections

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

A

Staph aureus

134
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Colon cancer

A

Streptococcus bovis

135
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Blood bag contam at RT

A

Streptococcus epidermidis
Bacillus cereus

136
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Dental plaque

A

Streptococcus mutans

137
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Bacterial meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae

138
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Adult bacterial meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

139
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Lobar pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

140
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

most common cause of otitis media

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

141
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Scarlet fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

142
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Erysipelas

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

143
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Puerperal sepsis
Main cause of Impetigo

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

144
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Flesh eating bacteria, Childbed fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

145
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Erysipeloid

A

Erysipelothrix

146
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Streptococcus sanguis

147
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

UTI in young females

A

Staph saprophyticus

148
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Penicillin resistant associated with wound infections

A

Strep D: Enterococcus

149
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Colon cancer (Strep group)

A

Strep D: Strep bovis

150
Q

ASSOCIATED DISEASE:

Blood bag contamination at 4C

A

Yersinia enterocolitica
Pseudomonas fluorescens
Serratia liquefaciens

151
Q

PARA

round base ulcer

A

Balantidiasis (B. coli)

152
Q

PARA

flask shaped ulcer

A

Amoebiasis (E. histolytica)

153
Q

PARA

No cyst stage

A

Trichomonas vaginalis
Dientamoeba fragilis
Naegleria

154
Q

PARA

Parasites that can be transmitted via anal sex

A

Giardia lamblia
Entamoeba histolytica

155
Q

PARA

Cervical alae

A

Toxocara canis

156
Q

PARA

Cephalic alae

A

Enterobius vermicularis

157
Q

Coolie itch

A

Necator americanus

158
Q

Gulf coast itch

A

Schistosoma japonicum

159
Q

DRUGS

inhibits cell wall synthesis

A

Beta-lactams

Penicillin
Cephalosporin

160
Q

DRUGS

Beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

161
Q

DRUGS

inhibit protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides

162
Q

DRUGS

inhibit folic acid synthesis

A

Sufonamides

163
Q

DRUGS

inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis

A

Glycopeptides

164
Q

DRUGS

What type of drug is vancomycin

A

Glycopeptide

165
Q

DRUGS

inactivate DNA gyrase

A

Quinolones

Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin

166
Q

DRUGS

disrupt plasma membranes

A

Polymyxins

Polymyxin B, E

167
Q

DRUGS

Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin are what type of drugs?

A

Quinolones

168
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Bang’s bacillus

A

Brucella abortis

169
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Anthrax bacillus

A

Bacillus anthracis

170
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Glander’s bacillus

A

Burkholderia mallei

171
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Whitmore bacillus

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

172
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Hay bacillus

A

Bacillus subtilis
Mycobacterium phlei

173
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Canned good bacillus

A

Clostridium botulinum

174
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Kleb-Loeffler’s bacillus

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

175
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Gas bacillus

A

Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium welchii

176
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Hoffman’s bacillus

A

Corynebacterium pseudodipthericum

177
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Tackhead or drumstic bacillus

A

Clostridium tetani

178
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Colon bacillus

A

Escherichia coli

179
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Corroding bacterium

A

Eikenella corrodens

180
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Koch-Weeks bacillus

A

Haemophilus aegyptius

181
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Ducreyi’s bacillus

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

182
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Pfeiffer’s bacillus

A

Haemophilus influenzae

183
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Friedlander’s bacillus

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

184
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Wiga agent

A

Legionella bozemanii

185
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Pittsburg pneumonia agent

A

Legionella micdadei

186
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Tap water bacillus

A

Mycobacterium gordonae

187
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Battey bacillus

A

Mycobacterium intracellulare

188
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Yellow bacillus

A

Mycobacterium kansasii

189
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Hansen’s bacillus

A

Mycobacterium leprae

190
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Eaton’s agent

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

191
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Raddish bacillus

A

Mycolicibacter terrae

192
Q

Koch’s bacillus

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

193
Q

Tubercle bacillus

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

194
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Pleuropneumonia-like organism (PPLO)

A

Mycoplasma

195
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Gonococcus

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

196
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Meningococcus

A

Neisseria meningitidis

197
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Bacillus pyocyaneus

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

198
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Neucastle-Manchester bacillus

A

Shigella boydii

199
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Shiga’s bacillus

A

Shigella dysenteriae

200
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Gartner’s bacillus

A

Salmonella enteritidis

201
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Flexner’s bacillus

A

Shigella flexneri

202
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Strong’s bacillus

A

Shigella flexneri

203
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Bacillus prodigiosus

A

Serratie marcescens

204
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Paratyphoid bacillus

A

Salmonella paratyphi

205
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Pneumococci

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

206
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Beta-hemolytic strep

A

Strep pyogenes

207
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Duval’s bacillus

A

Shigella sonnei

208
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Typhoid bacillus

A

Salmonella typhi

209
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Eberth’s bacillus

A

Salmonella typhi

210
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Preiz Nocard’s bacillus

A

Salmonella typhimurium

211
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

alpha hemolytic strep

A

Strep viridans

212
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

comma bacillus

A

Vibrio cholera

213
Q

[COMMON NAMES]

Plague bacillus

A

Yersinia pestis

214
Q

Pneumococcal antibody skin test

A

Francis Test

215
Q

Scarlet fever skin test

A

Dick’s test

(+): red

216
Q

Scarlet fever immunity test

A

Schultz Charlton Test

(+): rash fades

217
Q

Test that detects Protein A

A

Coagglutination test

218
Q

Diphtheria skin test

A

Schick Test

219
Q

Precipitin test for anthrax antigen

A

Ascoli

220
Q

TB skin test 5-10 mm induration

A

Mantoux Test

221
Q

Leprosy skin test

A

Lepromine test

222
Q

VECTOR

Wuchereria

A

Aedes
Anopheles

223
Q

VECTOR

Mansonia

A

Brugia

224
Q

VECTOR

Chrysops

A

Loa loa

225
Q

VECTOR

Tabanid

A

Loa loa

226
Q

VECTOR

Loa loa

A

Chrysops
Tabanid

227
Q

VECTOR

Simulium blackfly

A

Onchocerca

228
Q

VECTOR

Onchocerca

A

Simulium blackfly

229
Q

VECTOR

Simulium blackfly

A

Onchocerca

230
Q

VECTOR

Culicoides

A

Dipetalonema
Mansonella

231
Q

VECTOR

Biting midges
Gnats

A

Dipetalonema
Mansonella

232
Q

VECTOR

Dipetalonema
Mansonella

A

Biting midges
Gnats

233
Q

VECTOR

Phlebotomus sandfly

A

Leishmania

234
Q

VECTOR

Kissing bug/Reduviid bug

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

235
Q

VECTOR

Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Reduviid bug
Kissing bug

236
Q

VECTOR

Trypanosoma brucei

A

Tsetse
Glossina

237
Q

VECTOR

Tsetse

A

T. brucei

238
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Calabar

A

Loa loa

239
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Chiclero

A

Leishmania braziliensis

240
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Kerandel’s

A

Trypanosoma brucei

241
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Nagana

A

T. brucei

242
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Winterbottom’s sign

A

T. brucei

243
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Romana’s

A

T. cruzi

244
Q

LESION/DISEASE

Chagoma

A

T. cruzi

245
Q

HSV

Oral herpes

A

HSV 1

246
Q

HSV

Genital herpes

A

HSV 2

247
Q

HSV

Chickenpox

A

HSV 3

248
Q

HSV

Shingles

A

HSV 3

249
Q

HSV

Infectious mononucleosis

A

HSV 4

250
Q

HSV

Cytomegaly

A

HSV 5

251
Q

HSV

Roseola infantum

A

HSV 6

252
Q

HSV

Exanthema subitum

A

HSV 6

253
Q

HSV

Less common exanthema

A

HSV 7

254
Q

HSV

Kaposi sarcoma

A

HSV 8