MICRO - Virology Flashcards

1
Q

Questions

A

Answers

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2
Q

What are the families of DNA viruses?

A
Hepadnavirus
Herpesvirus
Adenovirus
Parvovirus
Papovavirus
Poxvirus
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3
Q

ssDNA virus

A

Parvovirus

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4
Q

Circular DNA virus (2)

A

Hepadnavirus
Papovavirus (supercoiled)

“HooP or HeaP or Hep Pap”

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5
Q

dsRNA

A

Reovirus

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6
Q

DNA virus that is not icosahedral

A

Pox (too big)

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7
Q

DNA virus that does not replicate in the nucleus

A

Pox (carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)

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8
Q

Naked DNA viruses

A

Parvo
Adeno
Papova

“Naked for a PAP smear”

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9
Q

Enveloped DNA viruses

A

Hepadna
Pox
Herpes

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10
Q

What host cell receptor does HIV gp120 bind?

A

CD4+

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11
Q

What host cell receptor does EBV gp350 bind?

A

CD21

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12
Q

What host cell receptor does Parvovirus B19 bind?

A

Erythrocyte P antigen

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13
Q

What is the pathway of DNA replication in HBV?

A

dsDNA -> Template + RNA -> Progeny dsDNA

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14
Q

What virus is not a retrovirus but has reverse transcriptase?

A

HBV

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15
Q

What does HSV-1 cause?

A

Oral (and some genital) lesions

Keratoconjunctivitis

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16
Q

What does HSV-2 cause?

A

Genital (and some oral lesions)

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17
Q

What does HHV-6 cause?

A

Roseola (exanthem subitum)

*3-day fever following a rash

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18
Q

1 cause of hemorrhagic cystitis in children

A

Adenovirus

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19
Q

What does adenovirus cause?

A

Febrile pharyngitis
Pneumonia
Conjunctivitis (“pink eye”)

*Found in swimming pools!

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20
Q

Where does Parvovirus replicate?

A

Bone marrow

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21
Q

What are the 2 types of papovavirus?

A

HPV

JC (PML)

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22
Q

What is caused by poxvirus?

A

Small pox
Vaccinia (cowpox, “milkmaid’s blisters”)
Molluscum contagiosum (umbilicated papules)

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23
Q

What are the 5 Picornaviruses?

A
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
HAV

“PERCH”

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24
Q

What are the 2 Caliciviruses?

A

HEV

Norwalk virus

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25
Q

What are the 2 Reoviruses?

A

Reovirus

Rotavirus

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26
Q

What are the 5 Flaviviruses?

A
HCV
Yellow fever
Dengue fever
St. Louis encephalitis
West Nile virus
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27
Q

What are the 3 Togaviruses?

A

Rubella (German measles)
Eastern/Western equine encephalitis

“East and West German togas”

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28
Q

What are the Orthomyxoviruses?

A

Influenza virus

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29
Q

What are the Paramyxoviruses?

A

Parainfluenza
RSV
Measles
Mumps

“PaRaMyxovirus”

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30
Q

What are the 2 Retroviruses?

A

HIV

HTLV

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31
Q

What family contains the Rabies virus?

A

Rhabdovirus

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32
Q

What family contains the Ebola virus?

A

Filovirus

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33
Q

What are the 4 Bunyaviruses?

A

California encephalitis
Sandfly/Rift Valley fevers
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
Hantavirus

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34
Q

What are the 3 families of RNA viruses that are NONenveloped?

A

Calicivirus
Picornavirus
Reovirus

“Naked CPR”

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35
Q

What is the only enveloped virus that does not acquire its membrane from the host plasma membrane?

A

Herpesvirus, uses nuclear membrane

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36
Q

What virus is diploid?

A

Retrovirus

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37
Q

What type of vaccines induce both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

A

Live attenuated vaccines

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38
Q

What type of vaccines induce only humoral immunity?

A

Killed vaccines

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39
Q

What 7 viruses have live attenuated vaccines?

A
Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
Sabin polio
VZV
Yellow fever
Smallpox
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40
Q

What 4 viruses have killed vaccines?

A

Rabies
Influenza
HAV
Salk polio (SalK = Killed)

41
Q

What virus has a recombinant vaccine?

A

HBV

42
Q

What is reassortment?

A

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments
Can cause worldwide pandemics

*Ex: Influenza A

43
Q

What are the 4 families of viruses that can have reassortment?

A

Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus
Arenavirus
Reovirus

“BOAR”, all segmented genomes

44
Q

What is complementation?

A

Nonmutated virus “complements” the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses

45
Q

How does Rubella present?

A

Low-grade fever
Maculopapular rash (head -> feet)
Posterior auricular lymphadenopathy
Sequelae include polyarthritis

46
Q

Triad of Congenital Rubella

A

Sensorineural deafness
Cataracts
Cardiac malformations (PDA)

47
Q

What does Echovirus cause?

A

Aseptic meningitis

48
Q

What does Coxsackievirus cause (4)?

A

Aseptic meningitis
Herpangina (febrile pharyngitis)
Hand, foot, and mouth disease
Myocarditis

49
Q

What does Reovirus cause?

A

Colorado tick fever

50
Q

What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children?

A

Rotavirus

51
Q

What is carried by the vector Aedes aegypti (mosquito)?

A

Yellow fever (Flavivirus)

52
Q

What family of viruses has a double icosahedral capsid?

A

Reovirus

53
Q

What are the 2 diseases caused by slow virus infections?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE, 6-15yrs post-measles)
PML (JC virus)

54
Q

What family is most notable for making one huge polypeptide, cleaved by proteases?

A

Picornavirus

But, generally can be done by all SS+ linear RNA viruses

55
Q

What is the only acid-labile picornavirus?

A

Rhinovirus

56
Q

What does Rhinovirus bind to?

A

ICAM-1

57
Q

How many serotypes do each of the PaRaMyxoviruses have?

A
Parainfluenza = 4
RSV = 2
Measles/Mumps = 1
58
Q

What virus carries its own polymerase in its capsid, and loses its virulence without it?

A

Reovirus

59
Q

What are the symptoms of Mumps?

A

Meningitis
Orchitis
Parotitis

“MOP”

60
Q

What are the 3 C’s of Measles?

A

Cough
Coryza (acute rhinitis)
Conjunctivitis

61
Q

What are the 2 possible sequelae of Measles?

A

SSPE

Giant cell pneumonia

62
Q

What is another name for Measles?

A

Rubeola

63
Q

What is the use of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir?

A

Neuramidase inhibitors used for influenza A and B

64
Q

What are the 2 antigens of influenza viruses?

A

Hemagglutinin

Neuraminidase

65
Q

What are the 3 symptoms of Yellow fever

A

Fever
Jaundice
Black vomitus

66
Q

Bone marrow suppression (“Breakbone fever”)
Antibodies to virus ENHANCE viral uptake
Hemorrhagic fever

A

Dengue fever (flavivirus)

67
Q

What 3 families are included under the title Arbovirus?

A

Flavivirus
Togavirus
Bunyavirus

*All transmitted by arthropods (mosquito, tick)

68
Q

What hepatitis virus is worse if contracted at a young age?

A

Hepatitis B

69
Q

Why is there no effective immunity to Hepatitis C?

A

Antigenic variety of HCV envelope proteins

70
Q

What do each of the pnemonics stand for in the Hepatitis viruses?

A
A = Asymptomatic (usually)
B = Blood borne
C = Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carriers
D = Defective, Dependent on HBV
E = Enteric, Epidemics, Expectant mothers
71
Q

What are the 2 viral diseases that present with posterior auricular lymphadenopathy?

A

Mono

Rubella

72
Q

Neonatal encephalitis

A

Herpesviruses (95% HSV-1)

73
Q

Best test to detect active Hepatitis A

A

IgM HAVAb

74
Q

HBsAg

A

Continued presence indicates carrier state

75
Q

HBsAb

A

Immunity to Hepatitis B

76
Q

HBcAb

A

Positive during window period

77
Q

HBeAg

A

Also in HBV core
Indicator of transmissibility
Increases vertical transmission

78
Q

HBeAb

A

Indicates LOW transmissibility

79
Q

What is the Rx for babies of mothers with Hepatitis B?

A

Give hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) followed by active immunization with recombinant HBV vaccine

80
Q

What protein is the rectangular nucleocapsid protein of HIV?

A

p24

81
Q

What does the HIV gene POL encode?

A

Reverse transcriptase
Integrase
Protease

82
Q

What does the HIV gene ENV encode?

A

gp160

83
Q

What does the HIV gene REV encode?

A

Transports unspliced viral transcripts out of nucleus

84
Q

What does the HIV gene TAT encode?

A

Activates other genes

“Virulence gene”

85
Q

What does the HIV gene NEF encode?

A

Increases viral replication via downregulation of CD4 and MHC-I

86
Q

Which 2 HIV genes are required for viral replication?

A

REV

TAT

87
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

ELISA (sensitive)

Western blot for glycoproteins (specific)

88
Q

How is HIV monitored?

A

PCR

Viral load tests

89
Q

What 2 genes confer immunity against HIV

A

CCR5
CXCR4

“4 and 5”

90
Q

What gene confers rapid progression to AIDS?

A

CXCR1

91
Q

Angiosarcoma-like proliferation of stromal cells

A

HHV-8 (Kaposi’s sarcoma)

92
Q

How do you treat Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex?

A

Azithromycin

93
Q

“Hat-shaped” cells in AIDS patient

A

PCP

94
Q

What are 3 protozoan infections seen in AIDS?

A

Toxoplasmosis
Cryptosporidiosis
Isospora belli (Rx = TMP-SMX)

95
Q

A pregnant woman is exposed to parvovirus at 8 weeks gestation. What will be the effect on the fetus?

A

Aplastic anemia, resulting in non-immune hydrops fetalis

96
Q

What layer of the epidermis is infected by HPV?

A

Stratum basale

97
Q

What mediates the attachment of mumpsvirus to epithelial cells?

A

Hemagglutinin-neuraminidase (HN) glycoprotein

98
Q

What are the preferred drugs for herpes zoster?

A

Famciclovir
Valacyclovir

*Use of acyclovir would require large doses

99
Q

What are the 4 enteroviruses that cause meningitis?

A

Coxsackievirus
Echovirus
Poliovirus
Enterovirus