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MLT-MLS Fall 2022 > Micro Introduction > Flashcards

Micro Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

Bacterial morphology:

Spherical shaped and can appear singular or in pairs, chains, or clusters

A

Cocci

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2
Q

Bacterial morphology:

Rod shaped and can appear singular or in chains

A

bacillus

pl. bacilli

AKA rods

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3
Q

Bacterial morphology:

very short rods

A

coccobacilli

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4
Q

Bacterial morphology:

very long rods

A

Filamentous

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5
Q

Bacterial morphology:

tapered, pointed ends

A

Fusiform bacilli

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6
Q

Bacterial morphology:

Multiple shapes. The same organism may exhibit short rods, very long rods, or a variety of other shapes

A

Pleomorphic rods

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7
Q

Bacterial morphology:

helical shaped

A

Spirochetes

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8
Q

What are the reagents used in a gram stain?

A
  • Crystal violet
  • Gram’s iodine
  • Acetone-alcohol decolorizer (usually 1:1; acetone: 95% ethanol)
  • Safranin
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9
Q

If a organism stains purple/blue with the Gram stain, it is considered:

Positive
or
Negative

A

Positive

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10
Q

If a organism stains pink/red with the Gram stain, it is considered:

Positive
or
Negative

A

Negative

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11
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Diplococci

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12
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Bacilli

(streptobacilli)

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13
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Coccobacilli

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14
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Filamentous rod

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15
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Fusiform rods

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16
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Bacilli

(paslisade)

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17
Q

Identify the morphology:

A

Spirochete

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18
Q

What part of the bacterial structure causes the bacteria to keep the purple/blue color?

A

Peptidoglycan layer
-A thick peptidoglycan layer makes it more difficult to decolorize all of the crystal violet/iodine complex

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19
Q

During a gram stain, the decolorizer dissolves which part of the bacterial structure on gram negative microorganisms removing the crystal violet-iodine complex?

A

Phospholipid layer

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20
Q

Why do we heat fix smear?

(3)

A
  • Kills bacteria on slide
  • Prevents bacteria from washing off the slide
  • Smear takes up stain better
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21
Q

How long is Crystal violet left on the slide?

A

30-60 seconds

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22
Q

How long is iodine left on the gram stain slide?

A

30-60 seconds

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23
Q

What is the most important step in the Gram stain process? Why?

A

Decolorization
-Smears can be over- or under-decolorized

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24
Q

How long is safranin left on the slide?

A

30-60 seconds

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25
Q

Gram stains are always viewed under the microscope using what magnification?

A

100x oil immersion

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26
Q

Human cells should ALWAYS stain which color with Gram stain?

A

Pink

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27
Q

If human cells and bacteria appear washed out and gram positive bacteria appear negative or partially stained, what happend during the staining process?

A

Over-decolorization

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28
Q

If human cells appear dark red-purple and gram negative bacteria appear gram positive, what happened during the Gram staining process?

A

Under-decolorization

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29
Q

Doing what during fixation may distort cell morphology?

A

Overheating

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30
Q

Identify bacteria - CSF

A

Gram positive diplococci

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31
Q

Identify bacteria - Body Fluid

A

Gram positive cocci

(streptococcus)

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32
Q

Identify bacteria - Bone culture

A

Gram positive cocci

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33
Q

Identify bacteria - Blood culture

A

Gram positive bacilli palisade arrangement

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34
Q

Identify bacteria - Blood culture

A

Gram positive bacilli

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35
Q

Identify bacteria - Blood culture

A

Gram negative bacilli

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36
Q

Identify bacteria - Blood culture

A

Gram positive cocci

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37
Q

Identify bacteria - Abscess

A

Gram negative bacilli (pleomorphic)
AKA
Coccobacilli

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38
Q

Identify bacteria - Genital

A

Gram negative diplococci

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39
Q

At what temperature does polysaccharide melt?

A

100 C

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40
Q

Polysaccharide will stay liquid until what range of temperatures?

A

45-50 C

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41
Q

What is the most basic growth media for bacteria?

A

Nutrient media

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42
Q

Which media grows most organisms that do not have specific nutritional requirements?

A

Nutrient media

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43
Q

Supplemented media with various substances to encourage growth of fastidious organisms

A

Enriched media

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44
Q

What are 2 examples of enriched media often used in the clinical laboratory?

A

Blood Agar (BA or BAP)

&

Chocolate Agar (CHOC)

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45
Q

What is the most common type of blood agar?

A

Sheep blood

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46
Q

________ is only able to be determined on blood agar plates

A

Hemolysis

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47
Q

What is the main difference between CHOC and BA agar?

A

In chocolate agar, the red cells have been lysed

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48
Q

Examples of this type of media include Gram-Negative and Selenite which are used to isolate Salmonella and Shigella from fecal specimens.

A

Enrichment broth

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49
Q

Enriched media such as BA and CHOC are also known as _________ media because they have no antimicrobial substances and all growth of most organisms

A

Nonselective media

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50
Q

This type of media contains antimicrobial substances to allow growth of specific bacteria while inhibiting the growth of others

A

Selective media

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51
Q

PEA agar and CNA agar are selective media used to grow what specific bacteria?

A

Gram positive bacteria

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52
Q

MacConkey agar and EMB agar are examples of selective media used to grow which type of bacteria?

A

Gram Negative bacteria

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53
Q

What is in PEA agar?

A

Blood and Phenylethyl Alcohol

54
Q

What is in CNA agar?

A

Blood and Colistin and Nalidixic Acid

55
Q

What does MacConkey agar contain?

A

Bile salts and crystal violet dye

56
Q

What does EMB agar contain?

A

Dyes Eosin Y and Methylene Blue

57
Q

This media type is used to distinguish metabolic differences between organisms

A

Differential media

58
Q

This agar is nonselective (grows most microorganisms), is enriched (grows fastidious microorganisms), and is used for differential (hemolysis).

A

Blood Agar

59
Q

This agar is selective by growing gram-negative bacilli and can be used for differential (lactose fermentation)

A

MacConkey agar

(also EMB agar)

60
Q

Enriched media that grows fastidious microorganisms and is selective for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Modified Thayer-Martin Agar (MTM)

61
Q

Most cultures are incubated at this temperature (Body temp)

A

35 - 37 C

62
Q

This is considered room temperature

A

22 - 25 C

63
Q

This incubation temperature is typically used to isolate Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Room temperature
22 - 25 C

64
Q

Temperature at which Campylobacter jejuni typically grows

A

42 C

65
Q

This type of atmosphere is when oxygen is required for growth (21% O2)

A

Aerobic

66
Q

Type of atmosphere that requires no oxygen

A

Anaerobic

67
Q

What are microorganisms that can grow in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions known as?

A

Facultative anaerobes

68
Q

Atmospheric condition in which oxygen is decreased to 5-10% O2

A

Microaerophilic

69
Q

Atmospheric condition in which carbon dioxide is increased to 5-10% CO2 using either CO2 incubators or candle jars

A

Capnophilic

70
Q

Atmospheric condition where humidity is increased to 70-80%

A

Humidophilic

71
Q

Growth interpretation:

Few, sparse, or light growth

Has what grading?

A

1+

72
Q

Growth interpretation:

Moderate

Has what grading?

A

2+

73
Q

Growth interpretation:

Many or heavy growth

Has what grading?

A

3+

74
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa tends to grow best with normal oxygen levels (21%) this would classify it as liking what type of atmosphere?

A

Aerobic

75
Q

In order to grow Clostridium perfringens a GasPak is utilized to create this type environment

A

Anaerobic

76
Q

Staphylococcus aureus can grow in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions classifying it as what type of microorganism?

A

Facultative anaerobe

77
Q

Campylobacter jejuni tends to grow best in decreased oxygen conditions (5-10%) this is known as what type of condition?

A

Microaerophilic

78
Q

Haemophilus influenza tends to grow best in increased carbon dioxide (5-10% CO2)
What is this type of condition best known as?

A

Capnophilic

79
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi prefers which type of atmospheric condition?

A

Humidophilic

(70-80% humidity)

80
Q

Which type of hemolysis is known as incomplete and looks army green around/underneath colonies?

A

Alpha hemolysis

81
Q

Which hemolysis is known as complete hemolysis and is clear around/underneath colonies?

A

Beta hemolysis

82
Q

What is the term for no hemolysis around/underneath colonies on blood agar plates?

A

Gamma hemoloysis

83
Q

What are the proteins called that produce hemoloysis?

A

Hemolysins

84
Q

TRUE or FALSE

You can grade hemolysis on any agar plate

A

False - blood agar plate only

85
Q

What is alpha prime hemolysis?

A

Beta hemolysis surrounded by Alpha hemolysis

86
Q

What type of hemolysis?

A

Alpha hemolysis

87
Q

Type of hemolysis

A

Beta hemolysis

88
Q

Type of hemolysis?

A

Gamma hemolysis

89
Q

Type of hemolysis?

A

Alpha Prime hemolysis

90
Q

This type of sterilization technique burns and physically destroys microorganisms

A

Incinerating

91
Q

This type of sterilization technique kills all microorganisms (3 - 30 minute intervals)

A

Intermittent boiling

92
Q

This sterilization technique uses steam under pressure (15 psi at 121C for 15 minutes)

A

Autoclaving

93
Q

What are the specifications for autoclaving? (psi, time, temperature)

A

15 psi
15 minutes
121 C

94
Q

Sterilization technique that uses a hot oven set to 160 C for 2 hours

A

Dry heat

95
Q

Sterilization technique that destroys and distorts microorganisms nucleic acids using UV lamps, Gamma radiation, or Electron beam radiation

A

Irradiation

96
Q

Sterilization technique that physically removed bacterial cells from liquids, gases, and air (ex. HEPA filters)

A

Filtration

97
Q

Which biosafety level is considered the highest risk?

A

Biosafety Level 4

98
Q

What BSL?

Microorganisms do not cause disease for normal healthy adults

A

BSL-1

99
Q

What BSL?

Microorganisms most commonly seen in clinical specimens

Microorganisms not transmitted by inhalation

A

BSL-2

100
Q

What BSL?

Indigenous or exotic microorganisms

Microorganisms are transmitted by inhalation

A

BSL-3

101
Q

What BSL?

Dangerous and exotic microorganisms

High risk of aerosol-transmitted infections

A

BSL-4

102
Q

All of the following are typical practices for BSL-1 EXCEPT:

  • Standard precautions
  • Aseptic technique
  • Handwashing
  • PPE (as needed)
  • Bench disinfecting
  • Work on open bench
  • Decontaminate materials
A

-Decontaminate materials

(This starts with BSL-2)

103
Q

All of the following are typical practices for BSL-2 EXCEPT:

  • All BSL-1 practices
  • Limited access to laboratory
  • PPE
  • Class II Biological safety cabinet (BSC)
  • Decontaminate materials
  • Laboratories under surveillance
A

-Laboratories under surveillance

(This typically starts at BSL-3)

104
Q

All of the following are practices for BSL-3 EXCEPT:

  • BSL-2 practices
  • Laboratories under surveillance
  • Negative pressure in lab
  • Respirators required at all times
  • Restricted and controlled access
A

-Respirators required at all times

(Respirators may be required but not at all times)

105
Q

All of the following are practices for BSL-4 EXCEPT:

  • BSL-3 practices
  • Take a shower after leaving the lab
  • Change clothes before entering the lab
  • Decontaminate all materials
  • Class II BSC or positive air pressure suit
A

-Class II BSC or positive air pressure suit

A class III BSC is required for BSL-4

106
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

A BSL-4 lab has dedicated air supply, exhaust, and decontamination systems

A

TRUE

107
Q

An organism is said to be an ___________ pathogen when it can cause disease in compromised patients

A

Opportunistic pathogen

108
Q

Microorganisms which can cause disease in healthy individuals are known as __________

A

Pathogens

109
Q

Term for the pathogenicity of a bacteria

A

Virulence

110
Q

What types of alcohols can be used for disinfection? (2)

A

Ethyl
or
Isopropyl alcohol (60-90%)

111
Q

What are the 5 categories of chemical agents that can be used as disinfectants?

A
  1. Alcohols (ethyl or isopropyl)
  2. Aldehydes (glutaraldehyde)
  3. Phenolics (chemically modified phenols)
  4. Quaternary ammonium compounds (“quats”)
  5. Halogens (bleach and iodophores)
112
Q

What type of human-microbe interactions:

  • Human and microbe benefit
  • Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from ingested food; some organisms produce vitamin K which is used by humans
A

Mutualism

113
Q

What type of human-microbe interaction:

  • Microbe benefits while human is unaffected
  • Normal flora organisms are often this type
A

Commensalism

114
Q

What type of human-microbe interaction:

  • Microbe benefits at the expense of the human host
  • Examples: disease causing organisms (Group A streptococci)
A

Parasitism

115
Q

Term for an individual infected with an organism which can be transmitted to another person. Usually asymptomatic.

A

Carrier

116
Q

Term for an animal infectious disease transmitted to humans

A

Zoonosis

117
Q

Term for protein toxins that are released from viable bacteria

A

Exotoxins

118
Q

What do exotoxins do to human cells?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis in human cells

Harm host cells by damaging the membrane or by interfering with normal metabolic functions.

119
Q

Term for protein toxins that are released upon bacterial lysis
-found in gram negative bacteria only

A

Endotoxins

120
Q

What do endotoxins tend to do?

A

Can cause fever, shock, bleeding, and death

121
Q

What is the name of the toxin contained in the lipopolysaccharide of gram negative cell wall?

A

Lipid A

122
Q

Trypticase soy broth is an example of what type of agar?

A

Nutrient agar

123
Q

Gram-Negative (GN), Selenite, LIM, and Trans-Vag are all examples of what type media?

A

Enrichment broths

124
Q

This media type contain antimicrobial substances (ex. dyes, antibiotics, and certain chemicals) Examples include PEA and CNA agar

A

Selective media

125
Q

This type of media does not contain antimicrobial substances and allows growth of many organisms. Examples include BAP and CHOC.

A

Nonselective media

126
Q

This type of media allows organisms to be distinguised by metabolic differences. Examples include carbohydrate fermentation media and enteric media

A

Differential media

127
Q

What is another term you may hear for microaerobic?

A

Microaerophilic

128
Q

Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Gram-positive microorganisms?

a. Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood
b. Eosin methylene blue
c. Modified Thayer-Martin
d. Trypicase soy agar with 5% sheep blood

A

a. Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood

129
Q

Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Gram-negative microorganisms?

a. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood
b. Modified Thayer-Martin
c. Eosin methylene blue
d. Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood

A

c. Eosin methylene blue

130
Q

A technician notes that the nuclei of all the nutrophils of a sputum gram stain are staining dark blue. What would be the best explanation for this finding?

a. Sputum smear was prepared too thin
b. Cellular components have stained as expected
c. Iodine was omitted from the staining procedure
d. Slide was inadequately decolorized with acetone/alcohol

A

d. Slide was inadequately decolorized with acetone/alcohol

131
Q

What medium aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance?

a. Enriched
b. Selective
c. Specialized
d. Differential

A

​d. Differential

132
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Organisms transmitted through aerosols belong in biosafety level 2 and above

A

FALSE

Biosafety level 3 and above

MLT-MLS Fall 2022 (10 decks)

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