Micro Flashcards

1
Q

what mycobacteria are considered rapid growers?

A

M. fortuitum
M. chelonae
M. abcessus

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2
Q

What is a photochromogen?

A

Turns yellow on plate when grown in light

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3
Q

What mycobacteria are photochromogens?

A

M. kansasii
M. marinum
M. asiaticum

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4
Q

What is a scotochromogen?

A

Turns yellow on plate with growth in light or dark

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5
Q

What mycobacteria are scotochromogens?

A

M. gordonae
M. scrofulaceum
M. xenopi

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6
Q

which mycobacteria are considered non-chromogens?

A

MAC
M. ulcerans
M. haemophilum
MTB**although classification does not technically apply

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7
Q

What serogroups of vibrio cholera cause disease?

A

O1 and O139

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8
Q

What type of E. coli produces shiga-like toxin?

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

*most common strain O157:H7

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9
Q

What bacteria is most common cause of Guillan-Barre?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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10
Q

3 major caauses of pneumonia in COPD patients?

A

H. flu, moraxella catarrhalis, legionella pneumophilia

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11
Q

What are HACEK organisms

A

Causes of culture negative endocarditis

Haemophilus, Aggregetibacter, cardiobacterium, eikenella, Kingella

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12
Q

ideal protocol for blood cultures

A

3 sets, drawn at separate times (1-8 hrs apart), each paried with adequate volume (20-30cc)

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13
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis in neonates

A

GBS, gram - bacilli, listeria

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14
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis in kids

A

N. meningitidis, S. pneumo, H. flu type B

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15
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumo, N. meningitidis

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16
Q

Causes of meningitis in AIDS pts

A

S. pneumo, MTB, cryptococcus neoformans

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17
Q

Cause of rate bite fever (fever, rash, b/l ankle + shoulder pain)

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

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18
Q

what are the hemadsorption/hemagglutinin tests? What viruses can they detect?

A

hemagglutinins adsorb guinea pig RBCs

influenza and parainfluenza viruses

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19
Q

Name the 1 ssDNA non-enveloped viruses

A

Parvovirus

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20
Q

2 dsDNA non-enveloped viruses

A

adenovirus
papillomavirus
polyomavirus

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21
Q

3 dsDNA enveloped viruses

A

herpes virus
hepadnavirus (HBV)
poxvirus

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22
Q

ssRNA non-enveloped viruses

A

Picornaviridae (polio virus, enterovirus, HAV, rhinovirus)
calciviridae (norovirus)
Hepeviridae (HEV)

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23
Q

dsRNA non-enveloped virus

A

reoviridae (rotavirus)

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24
Q

ssRNA enveloped virus

A
  • Flaviviridae (HCV, yellow fever, WNV, dengue)
  • Togaviridae (rubella, EEE, WEE)
  • Retroviridae (HIV, HTLV)
  • Orthomyxoviridae (influenza)
  • Paramyxoviridae (RSV, parainfluenza, mumps, measles)
  • Rhabdoviridae (Rabies)
  • Coronavridiae
  • Arenaviridae
  • Bunyaviridae (hantavirus, california encephalitis)
  • Delta virus (HDV)
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25
HBV is what type of virus?
enveloped dsDNA
26
HCV is what type of virus?
enveloped ssRNA
27
What subtypes of adenovirus are associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
11 and 12
28
What subtypes of adenovirus are associated with childhood gastroenteritis?
40 and 41
29
What is antigenic drift and which virus shows this?
Antigenic drift=minor changes, due to point mutations in H&N genes influenza A
30
What is antigenic shift and which virus shows this?
Antigenic shift=major changes, due to genetic reassortment between strains (causes worldwide pandemics) Influenza A
31
What is name of measles virus?
morbillivirus
32
most common cause of viral meningitis
enterovirus
33
viral cause of myocarditis
coxsackie B
34
cause of hand, foot and mouth disease
coxsackie A
35
What is vector for dengue and yellow fever
Aedes mosquito
36
What is vector for WNV
culex mosquito
37
What is mechanism of MRSA?
mecA gene; encodes PBP2A; detected by latex agglutination tests
38
Which two types of malaria can remain dormant in liver?
P. vivax and P. ovale.
39
What parasites are cultured on a bed of e. coli?
Acanthamoeba and Naegleria
40
What does sandfly transmit?
Leismania | sandfly aka phlebotomus and lutzomyia
41
What stain detects microsporidia in stool sample?
modified trichrome
42
which type of malaria causes nephrotic syndrome?
P. malariae
43
which type of malaria shows CNS involvment?
P. falciparum
44
which type of malaria shows hemosidinuria, hemoglobinuria, and renal failure?
P. falciparum ("blackwater fever")
45
which type of malaria infect young red cells?
P. vivax and P. ovale
46
which type of malaria infect old red cells?
P. malariae
47
which types of malaria show schuffner dots (stippling)?
P. vivax and P. ovale
48
What nematode can cause iron deficiency anemia
hookworms-ancylostoma duodenale and necator americanus
49
What causes visceral larva migrans
toxocara canis (dog tapeworm) and cati (cat roundworm)
50
Which trematode (fluke) is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinesis/opisthorchis
51
What cestode (tapeworm) is associated with vit B12 def?
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)
52
Which type of fungus requires fungal medium overlaid with olive oil?
Malassezia furfur | *requires lipid supplementation for growth
53
Bird seed (niger seed) agar is used to identify which fungus
cryptococcus neoformans (demosntrates phenol oxidase activity)
54
Which species of aspergillus is resistant to amphotericin B
A. terreus
55
Positive germ tube test ID's which yeast?
Candida albicans
56
Rapid trelahose assimilation ID's which yeast?
C. glabrata
57
Urease test ID's which yeast?
cryptococcus
58
Phenol oxidase test ID's which yeast
cryptococcus neoformans
59
Which candida species shows "feet" around colonies
C. albicans
60
What 2 bacteria are PYR pos?
Group A strep (strep pyogenes) and enterococcus
61
What is buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) used to grow?
legionella
62
What is thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose (TCBS) agar used to grow
Vibrio spp.
63
which vibrio spp is sucrose fermenting?
Vibrio cholera
64
At what temperature does yersinia enterocolitica grow best?
25-30 deg
65
At what temp does campylobacter grow best
42
66
Which staph spp is novobiocin resistant/
S. saprophyticus
67
Which strep spp is susceptible to optochin (P disk)?
S. pneumo
68
Name 2 bacteria which produce CAMP factor
Group B strep (strep agalacticae) and Listeria monocytogenes
69
Name 2 bacteria which produce positive PYR test
Group A strep (strep pyogenes) and enterococcus
70
Which gram neg bacteria are oxidase pos
Neisseria, moraxella, pseudomonas, legionella, curved gram neg rods (campylobacter, vibrio, helicobacter)
71
Which gram neg bacteria are oxidase neg
enterobacteriaceae
72
which bacteria is positive for indole
E. coli
73
Which 2 bacteria are rapid urease pos?
H. pylori and proteus
74
Which bacteria are positive for hippurate hydrolysis
``` C. jejuni Listeria monocytogenes Strep. agalacticae Gardnerella vaginalis Legionella pneumophila ```
75
which staph spp is positive by slide coagulase test but negative by tube coagulase
S. lugdunensis
76
How can you tell apart group A vs group B strep
Both are beta hemolytic and catalase neg - Group A strep: PYR+ and bacitracin (A disk) susceptible - Group B strep: PYR-, Bacitracin (A Disk) resistant
77
What type of hemolysis does S. pneumo show
alpha
78
What type of hemolysis does enterococcus show
none! gamma-hemolytic
79
How can you differentiate Bacillus anthracis from bacillus cereus
B. anthracis: non-hemolytic and non-motile | B. cereus: beta hemolytic and motile
80
Which rapidly growing mycobacteria is NaCL tolerant
M. abcessus
81
Which rapidly growing mycobacteria uses citrate
M. chelonae
82
Which rapidly growing mycobacteria uptakes iron, is NaCL tolerant and uses nitrate
M. fortuitum
83
What causes roseola
HHV-6 | aka sixth disease