Meyer 2 Flashcards
You are evaluating a 26 year-old male patient status post arthroscopic surgery. The physician requests that you may evaluate the muscles that insert into the pes anserinus. You may have the patients flex the knee medially rotate the leg while the knee is flexed. Of the muscles listed below, which are you not evaluating?
A. Gracilis
B. Sartorius
C. Semimembranosus
D. Semitendinosus
C. Semimembranosus
The physician has sent a patient to the clinic for a brace that will assist in controlling knee rotation and adduction. Which of the following ligaments was not likely injured?
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
D. Lateral collateral ligament
D. Lateral collateral ligament
When performing ultrasound on a patient, it is important to be aware of the contraindications for its utilization. One contraindication is performing ultrasound over the epiphyseal or growth plate of a child. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the growth plate?
A. It serves as a site of progressive lengthening that is needed in the long bones
B. It lies between the epiphysis and diaphysis as a transverse disc
C. It is formed of cartilage
D. It is found in all bones
D. It is found in all bones
In a class on clinical pathology, the professor asks you what lupus erythematosus; scleroderma and dermatomycosis have in common. They can best be grouped together as which of the following?
A. Acute infection
B. Acute bacterial diseases
C. Collagen vascular diseases
D. Circulatory disorder
C. Collagen vascular diseases
In clinical pathology class, the professor describes a pathological disease that involves the arteries and veins of the lower extremity. The symptoms are inflammation, venous thrombosis, and ischemia of the feet. Which of the following diseases is being described by the professor?
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Thromboangiitis obliterans
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Pitting edema
B. Thromboangiitis obliterans
You are in a cardiology class studying the difference between cardiac muscle versus skeletal muscle. It is known that the cardiac muscle is physiologically different from skeletal muscle. Which of the following statement best describe this?
A. It has no bony attachment
B. The actin and myosin filaments produce a different type of striation
C. It does not develop a length-tension relationship
D. It divides into atrial and ventricular portions.
D. It divides into atrial and ventricular portions.
You are treating a patient who is complaining of right shoulder pain. The patient has been diagnosed with frozen shoulder. Which of the following would describe the capsular pattern of the glenohumeral joint?
A. External rotation, abduction, internal rotation
B. External rotation, internal rotation, abduction
C. Internal rotation, abduction, external rotation
D. Abduction, external rotation, internal rotation
A. External rotation, abduction, internal rotation
A patient is sent to physical therapy secondary to a lower extremity injury. Reading the patient’s past medical history, you note that the superficial peroneal nerve has been severed. Which of the following muscles would be emphasized in your treatment program?
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Peroneus tertius
C. Peroneus brevis
D. Extensor hallucis longus
C. Peroneus brevis
While studying cardiology you are learning about cardiac output. Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in a specific time period. Which of the following best describes cardiac output?
A. Blood pumped by the heart in a 24 hour period
B. Blood pumped by the heart in 1 hour
C. Blood pumped by the heart during a 60 second period
D. Blood pumped by the heart during an 8-hour period.
C. Blood pumped by the heart during a 60 second period
You are working with a patient who has small stroke volume and pulse pressure. Which of the following lesions does the patient most likely have?
A. Arterial sclerotic disease
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Myocardial infarction
B. Mitral stenosis
Which of the following is the most frequent location for a myocardial infarction to occur?
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
Which of the following actions of the drug digitalis is common in a patient with chronic congestive heart failure?
A. A decrease in heart rate
B. An increase in heart rate
C. A decrease in the strength of the contraction
D. No effect on heart rate
A. A decrease in heart rate
You are physical therapist at the site of the football game as a medical staff member. You watch one of the players fall from blow to the head and determined by a field evaluation that he has suffered a concussion. Which of the following best defined as a concussion?
A. Any severe blow to the head
B. A fracture of the skull
C. Swelling of the brain as a result of trauma
D. A temporary state of the paralysis of the nervous function, including loss of consciousness
D. A temporary state of the paralysis of the nervous function, including loss of consciousness
Rheumatoid arthritis can cause many symptoms in its later stages. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be common in patients who has had rheumatoid arthritis for a long period of time?
A. Radial deviation of the finger
B. Enlargement of the Heberden’s nodes
C. Ulnar deviation of the finger
D. Increase muscle strength
C. Ulnar deviation of the finger
You are studying the various types of arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis versus osteoarthritis. Which of the following would best describe the etiology of osteoarthritis?
A. Trauma to a joint recently
B. Under weight
C. Degeneration caused by aging
D. Recent injury to the joint.
C. Degeneration caused by aging
You are in physiology class studying tissue excitation. In regard to the strength/duration curve, which of the following is not a true statement?
A. It may be considered valuable in testing for nerve degeneration
B. It may be considered valuable in testing for nerve regeneration
C. It shows the relationship of a current intensity to the duration of the reaching expectation threshold
D. It exhibits development and fatigue during a prolonged stimulation
D. It exhibits development and fatigue during a prolonged stimulation
Which of the following definitions best describes the anatomical dead space?
A. The portion of the pulmonary tree that is inelastic and does not change size with inspiration or expiration
B. An area occupied in the airways that does not permit gas exchange
C. The pulmonary air with the least blood supply
D. The portion of the pulmonary tree that is not supplied with sensory nerves
B. An area occupied in the airways that does not permit gas exchange
In a class on physiology of exercise, you are studying the energy needed for muscle contractions. Which of the following statements is false in regard to energy for muscle contractions?
A. Energy is produced during aerobic metabolism
B. Energy is produced during anaerobic metabolism
C. Energy may be stored as a creatine phosphate
D. Energy is derived from ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
C. Energy may be stored as a creatine phosphate
You are studying diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus in your clinical pathology course. Which of the following statement is not true about diabetes mellitus, but best describes diabetes insipidus?
A. Is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism
B. It results from insulin deficiency
C. It is associated with the pancreas
D. It is associated with the pituitary gland
D. It is associated with the pituitary gland
Which of the following gestational timeframes is the most susceptible for injury to the fetal cardiovascular system? It is during this timeframe that the fetal cardiovascular system produces most congenital defects.
A. Third month
B. Sixth month
C. Between the 21st and 40th days
D. Conception and the 20th day
C. Between the 21st and 40th days
A patient comes to the clinic with an injury to the skin as a result of exposure to excessive heat. Which of the following listed below will be the first response to this type of skin injury?
A. The fluids will seep into the damaged tissue
B. The blood vessels will become dilated and more permeable secondary to inflammation
C. Phagocytic cells will remove dead cells and debridement of the area will occur
D. Blood clotting will occur
B. The blood vessels will become dilated and more permeable secondary to inflammation
The professor is presenting a lecture on the advantages and disadvantages of the following exercises: Isometric, isokinetic, isotonic, and eccentric contractions. The professor informs the class that some of the disadvantages of a particular exercise are that it loads muscle at the weakest point and the momentum factor in lifting. These disadvantages best describe which of the following classifications of exercise?
A. Isometric
B. Isotonic
C. Isokinetic
D. Free weights
B. Isotonic
The patient has experienced a lesion in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following would most likely be affected?
A. Vision
B. Sensory perception and interpretation
C. Personality and speech
D. Hearing and comprehension of speech
C. Personality and speech
A patient experiences an injury resulting in a lesion of the occipital lobe of the cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following are most likely involved?
A. Vision and interpretation of visual data
B. Sensory perception and interpretation
C. Intelligence and personality
D. Comprehension of speech and memory
A. Vision and interpretation of visual data
An 18-year-old male tests positive for shoulder dislocation. This patient may have complications as a result of this shoulder dislocation. Which of the following would most likely be involved if the patient were to have complications?
A. Axillary artery
B. Axillary nerve
C. Radial artery
D. Radial nerve
B. Axillary nerve
In studying physical therapy you are learning about the differences between various spina bifida disorders. You are specifically studying spina bifida myelocele. Which of the following would best describe this disorder?
A. A soft tissue tumor in the meninges
B. A soft tissue tumor in the spinal cord
C. The most severe form of spina bifida
D. A herniated sac contained within the spinal cord
C. The most severe form of spina bifida
A patient reports to physical therapy with a diagnosis of a lesion in the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the following would you most likely detect upon treatment of this patient?
A. Paralysis of the biceps, coracobrachialis, and finger flexors
B. Paralysis of the deltoid
C. Paralysis of wrist extension
D. Paralysis of the hand
A. Paralysis of the biceps, coracobrachialis, and finger flexors
In studying the pulmonary system of a patient, you are discussing site of gas exchange in the pulmonary system. Which of the following is the most likely site of gas exchange?
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchi
C. Brachialis
D. Trachea
A. Alveoli
You are performing physical therapy on a patient status post cerebrovascular accident. The patient is having difficulty with trunk control and transfers from supine to sit and left to right sidelying. In performing PNF techniques on this patient, which of the following would be best to utilize to assist this patient?
A. Hold and relax
B. Rhythmic initiation
C. Rhythmic stabilization
D. Slow reversal hold
B. Rhythmic initiation
You have a patient who has episodes of dyspnea and difficulty in expiration. Which of the following would your patient most likely be experiencing?
A. Asthma
B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Cystic fibrosis
A. Asthma
The client has been positioned on his side. You would anticipate that which of the following areas would be a pressure point in this position?
A. Sacrum
B. Occiput
C. Ankles
D. Heels
C. Ankles
The patient is a 26-year-old male, status post ankle fracture. The physician orders mobilization to increase joint range of motion. Which of the following is the maximum loose-packed position of the ankle joint?
A. 10° plantar flexion
B. 5° plantar flexion
C. 0° plantar flexion
D. 15° plantar flexion
A. 10° plantar flexion
You are treating a patient status post total hip replacement. You notice in the patient’s chart that the patient has received a cemented total hip replacement. Which of the following is not an advantage of a cemented hip?
A. It allows early weight bearing
B. Surgeons report a 90% success rate
C. There is less postoperative pain
D. It requires less bone tissue removal
D. It requires less bone tissue removal
Your patient is a 26-year-old paraplegic. You are observing the patient standing with braces for a prolonged time. For the paraplegic, prolonged standing with braces in a lordotic position may result in which of the following?
A. Stretching of the hip flexors
B. Stretching of the hip extensors
C. Stretching of the hip extensors and iliofemoral ligament
D. Stretching of the ischial femoral ligament
C. Stretching of the hip extensors and iliofemoral ligament
On the patient described above, you decide to measure normal expansion at the xiphoid process. Which of the following would be the normal value for expansion when measured at the xiphoid process?
A. 5 to 10 cm
B. 5 to 10 in
C. 5 to 1.0 cm
D. 5 to 1.0 in
A. 5 to 10 cm
You are performing a test on a patient for hip flexor length. Upon testing the hip, the extremity being tested abducts and remains slightly flexed when lowered to the table. Which of the following would you most likely suspect of muscle tightness?
A. Psoas major
B. Tensor fascia latae
C. Semitendinosus
D. Rectus femoris
B. Tensor fascia latae
You are performing a postural examination on a 16-year-old track and field star. Upon posture evaluation you notice that the patient has pronated feet. Which of the following would best describe this condition?
A. Lateral convexity of the Achilles’ tendon due to a medial weight line
B. Eversion of the calcaneus with lateral convexity of the Achilles’ tendon
C. Eversion of the calcaneus with a medial weight line
D. Inversion of the calcaneus with a medial weight line
C. Eversion of the calcaneus with a medial weight line
You are in rheumatology class studying degenerative joint disease. The instructor asks you where Heberden’s nodes are most frequently located as a result of degenerative joint disease. Which of the following is the correct answer?
A. Distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers
B. Distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes
C. Distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers
D. Distal interphalangeal joints of the toes
C. Distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers
You are performing a gait evaluation on a cross-country track runner who pulled a hamstring muscle. During which period of time in the patient’s gait cycle would the hamstring muscle be the most active?
A. Mid-stance to heel-off
B. Swing phase
C. Acceleration to mid-swing
D. Mid-swing to deceleration
D. Mid-swing to deceleration
You are performing palpation on a patient with general lower back pain. Which of the following landmarks would be most helpful to isolate the L4 vertebral level upon palpation of this patient?
A. Anterior superior iliac spine
B. Posterior superior iliac spine
C. Iliac crest
D. Greater trochanter
C. Iliac crest
Your patient is a 56-year-old female with a diagnosis of a herniated disc between vertebrae C6 and C7. During a conversation with the physician, he informs you that the patient has a C7 nerve root impingement. Upon testing this patient, you expect weakness in all of the following motor activities except for which one?
A. Wrist flexion
B. Finger flexion
C. Finger extension
D. Elbow extension
B. Finger flexion
You are performing ultrasound underwater to a patient’s left hand. In performing the ultrasound under water which of the following would be the most important safety factor to be considered?
A. Utilizing a plastic bucket instead of a metal whirlpool
B. Keeping the ultrasound head moving
C. Keeping the ultrasound watts per centimeters squared under 1.0
D. Connecting the ultrasound to a ground fault interruption circuit
D. Connecting the ultrasound to a ground fault interruption circuit
You have been called into the physical therapy department secondary to a patient being brought into the emergency room with severe burns on both posterior lower extremities. The physician instructs you to begin working with this newly admitted burn patient. Which of the following would be your first priority?
A. Performing an evaluation on the wound area
B. Splinting to control contractures and edema
C. Closing the wound
D. Beginning immediate wound cleaning, debridement, and sterile dressing
D. Beginning immediate wound cleaning, debridement, and sterile dressing
The physician has instructed you to perform ultrasound under water secondary to a patient experiencing foot pain in the medial arch. When administering ultrasound under water, which of the following would be the best position for the sound head?
A. The sound head should be in direct contact with the medial arch of the foot
B. The sound head should be approximately 3 inches away from the medial arch of the foot
C. The sound head should be approximately 1 inch away from the medial arch of the foot
D. The sound head should be approximately 9 cm from the medial arch of the foot
C. The sound head should be approximately 1 inch away from the medial arch of the foot
You are a physical therapist who has been instructed by a physician to lead an exercise group of 20 geriatric patients at the community center. The physician suggests that you emphasize areas that typically show reduced range of motion for geriatric patients. Which of the actions listed below would not be an emphasis of your program?
A. Hip flexion
B. Hip extension
C. Pectoralis muscle stretch
D. Chin glides, chin tucks
A. Hip flexion
During the swing phase, acceleration stage, which muscles remain active throughout the entire stage to help shorten the extremity so it can clear the ground by holding the ankle in a neutral position?
A. Tibialis posterior, peroneus brevis
B. Tibialis anterior, peroneus tertius
C. Tibialis anterior, peroneus tertius, extensor hallucis longus
D. Tibialis posterior, peroneus tertius, extensor hallucis longus
C. Tibialis anterior, peroneus tertius, extensor hallucis longus
During the swing phase, deceleration stage, which muscles contract to slow down the swing phase just prior to heel strike, thus, permitting the heel to strike quietly in a controlled manner?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Hamstring
D. Quadriceps
C. Hamstring
Your patient is an 18-year-old male who was seriously injured in a motorcycle accident. The radiology examination reveals a fracture described as one in which the ends are driven into each other. Of the choices listed below, what is the typical name for this type of fracture?
A. Comminuted
B. Impacted
C. Displaced
D. Intraarticular
B. Impacted
Muscular contraction of the cardiac chambers is different from the electrical conduction system. The normal conduction pathway for muscular contraction of the heart to follow is which of the patterns listed below?
A. Left atrium, right atrium, ventricles
B. Right atrium, left atrium, ventricles
C. Right ventricle, left ventricle, atrium
D. Left ventricle, right ventricle, atrium
B. Right atrium, left atrium, ventricles
The sinus node acts as the cardiac pace maker in the heart. The sinus node is a group of cardiac cells that discharges an impulse. Where is the sinus node located in the heart?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
A. Right atrium
Several muscles in the body have dual innervation, which is innervation by more than one nerve. Which of the following muscles does not have dual innervation?
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Flexor carpi ulnaris
C. Flexor pollicis brevis
D. Lumbricals
B. Flexor carpi ulnaris
In a class on gross anatomy the professor asks you to dissect the muscles that attach to the ischial tuberosity. Which group of muscles listed below attaches to the ischial tuberosity?
A. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus
B. Semimembranosus, biceps femoris
C. Semimembranosus, biceps femoris, semitendinosus
D. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus
C. Semimembranosus, biceps femoris, semitendinosus
A patient enters the clinic with a prescription for direct current electrical stimulation. Upon reading the order you notice that the patient’s diagnosis is Bell’s palsy. Of the following, which nerve would you determine to be injured in this patient?
A. Trigeminal
B. Trochlear
C. Facial
D. Vagus
C. Facial
You are evaluating a patient with a repetitive motion injury from work. You have tested the patient’s pronation/supination of the forearm and wrist flexion/extension. Which of the following muscles does not assist in pronation of the radioulnar joint?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Flexor carpi radialis
C. Pronator quadratus
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris
A butcher is responsible for processing meat packaging. In the process of carving the meat he injures the second and third digits of his hand. The hand surgeon reports that the nerves in the second and third digits have been permanently injured. Which nerve/nerves would be injured?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Ulnar/median
B. Median nerve
When studying upper motor neuron lesions in neuroanatomy, you determine that which of the following is not a characteristic typically seen with this type of lesion?
A. Muscle atrophy
B. Spasticity
C. Hyperreflexia
D. Babinski sign possible
A. Muscle atrophy
A 26-year-old triathlete has just completed a competitive event in swimming, biking, and running. The patient has extreme muscle fatigue after this event. Which of the following may build up in the body and cause muscle fatigue?
A. Glycogen
B. Lactic acid
C. Fatty acids
D. Glucose
B. Lactic acid
In determining a target heart rate for a 62-year-old patient, you would use the calculation for maximum heart rate. Which of the following best describes the calculation for maximum heart rate?
A. Pulse rate for 60 seconds
B. Count pulse for 15 seconds x 4, plus age
C. (220 plus age)
D. (220 minus age)
D. (220 minus age)
A patient undergoes open-heart surgery at a prestigious heart hospital. The patient is being evaluated 1 day postoperative for possible placement in the acute inpatient cardiac rehab program. The patient’s blood pressure reading indicates hypertension. Which of the following readings would be considered indicative of hypertension?
A. 120/80
B. Above 120/80
C. Above 140/90
D. Under 120/90
C. Above 140/90
A patient comes to you from the hand surgeon with a request to specifically evaluate the anatomical snuffbox. The hand surgeon is concerned that the patient might have suffered an injury to the nerve crossing the anatomical snuffbox. Of the following nerves which would you need to evaluate?
A. Radial
B. Median
C. Ulnar
D. Musculocutaneous
A. Radial
An 8-year-old male enters the clinic with a diagnosis of fracture of the distal radius. The patient’s mother reports that the patient was riding his bicycle down a steep hill when he fell
off. The physician sends the patient to you for evaluation because he is concerned about possible nerve damage. A fracture of the distal radius will result in possible nerve damage to which nerve?
A. Musculocutaneous
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
D. Median
B. Radial
A patient comes to you status post ankle sprain, which is healing well. The patient needs to increase range of motion to resume full activity. Of the following, which movement will take place in the ankle subtalar joint?
A. Pronation/supination
B. Eversion/inversion
C. Adduction/abduction
D. Dorsiflexion
B. Eversion/inversion
A patient comes to the clinic with a swollen right thumb. He reports that he was at work operating a press machine when the press closed and caught his thumb. The patient will need joint immobilization to restore range of motion; otherwise he has escaped with minimal injury. The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb is classified as what type of joint?
A. Uniaxial
B. Biaxial
C. Saddle
D. Hinge
C. Saddle
A muscle is known to have a proximal and distal attachment. It is necessary to know the attachments for palpation and manual muscle tests. Which of the following is the proximal attachment of a limb muscle?
A. Tendon
B. Insertion
C. Belly of muscle
D. Origin
D. Origin
A patient enters the clinic with what appears to be pinched nerves in the cervical spine area. The patient is reporting radiating symptoms into the left upper extremity that follow no particular dermatome pattern. The patient reports that he is going to have a test in which some type of electrodes are inserted into the muscle to test which nerves are injured. Based on this information, which of the following tests is the patient most likely having?
A. Electromyogram
B. Arthroscopy
C. EKG
D. Myelogram
A. Electromyogram
Your neuroanatomy professor lectures on the divisions of the brain. The brain is divided into three major divisions. Which of the following is not one of the three major brain regions?
A. Brainstem
B. Midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Cerebrum
B. Midbrain
A pregnant patient is advised to avoid the Valsalva maneuver during her pregnancy. What effect listed below does the Valsalva maneuver have?
A. Increase in intrathoracic pressure
B. Decrease in intrathoracic pressure
C. Pressure remains the same, no effect
D. Increase in inspiration needs
A. Increase in intrathoracic pressure
You are in physiology class studying the difference between erythrocytes and leukocytes in the body. Each one has a primary function to perform so that the body functions normally. Which of the following would be a primary function of erythrocytes in the body?
A. Transport oxygen
B. Carry iron
C. Produce calcium
D. Produce red blood cells
A. Transport oxygen
You are continuing your studies in neurology on abnormal reflexes. You are now focusing on the reflex called the flexor withdrawal. The flexor withdrawal integration level is spinal. Where would the stimulus be applied to test the flexor withdrawal?
A. Sole of the foot with lower extremity in extension
B. Sole of the foot with lower extremity in flexion
C. Forefoot with the lower extremity in extension
D. Forefoot with the lower extremity in flexion
A. Sole of the foot with lower extremity in extension
You are testing the tonic labyrinthine reflex of a patient. You have positioned the patient supine. Which of the following would you consider to be a positive response to this position?
A. Increased extensor tone
B. Increased flexor tone
C. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities and flexor tone
D. Increased flexor tone in upper extremities and extensor tone in lower extremities
A. Increased extensor tone
You are testing a patient for the negative support reaction. The integration level for the negative support reaction is the brainstem. You bounce the patient several times on the soles of the feet but you do not allow her to bear weight. Which of the following would you anticipate as the patient’s response?
A. Increased extensor tone in lower extremities
B. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities
C. Increased flexor tone in lower extremities
D. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities
C. Increased flexor tone in lower extremities
A physician informs you that he feels that the patient is pretending to be ill to arouse sympathy for his condition. He suspects that the patient is slow to recuperate because he continues to receive benefits from the insurance company during a slow recovery. Which of the following most likely describes this individual?
A. Patient is negligent
B. Patient is a hypochondriac
C. Patient is a malinger
D. Patient is paranoid
C. Patient is a malinger
A patient comes to physical therapy for further instructions on crutch ambulation. Upon observation you notice that the patient moves the left crutch first, then the right leg, then the right crutch, then the left leg. Of the following, which type of crutch gait have you most likely observed?
A. Three point gait
B. Two point gait
C. Swing through
D. Four point gait
D. Four point gait
A patient is referred to physical therapy several months status post hip burn. The patient reports that he had an allograft over the burn area. Which of the following does this describe?
A. The graft skin is from the same species
B. The graft skin is from the same individual
C. The graft skin is from an animal
D. A surgical incision in the form of letter Z, the length of the graft
A. The graft skin is from the same species
You are evaluating a patient with a diagnosis of Marie-Strumpell disease. The physician instructs you to evaluate the patient and determine an appropriate treatment program. Which of the following would be the best treatment program for this patient?
A. Rest and medication
B. Joint mobility, heat, and postural instructions
C. Aspirin in high dosages
D. Resistive exercises and stretching
B. Joint mobility, heat, and postural instructions
According to the American Physical Therapy Association Standard of Care, the initial evaluation should include all of the following except?
A. Diagnosis
B. Social environment needs
C. Functional status
D. Medication
D. Medication
You have a 42-year–old female status post removal of the lymphatic system in the axillary region secondary to cancer. The physician wants you to work on edema through measurement for a pressure garment and massage 1-day post surgery. How should the massage be performed for best results?
A. You decide not to do massage but Jobst compression pump
B. Massage the proximal segment first
C. Massage the distal segment first
D. Order a garment and check on the patient daily
B. Massage the proximal segment first
A patient postoperative removal of the lymphatic system in the axillary region is very concerned about the cancer spreading. You read in her chart that the physician has not removed all of the cancer; it has spread. At the next treatment session she asks you if the surgery was successful. Since the physician is inaccessible, what do you tell her?
A. You are deeply sorry, but it was not 100% successful
B. You are deeply sorry, but you are sure the doctor did the best he could, as he is one of the top surgeons
C. You have no idea whether or not surgery was successful
D. Tell her you are not able to provide that information; she will have to discuss it with her surgeon
D. Tell her you are not able to provide that information; she will have to discuss it with her surgeon
You have a 26-year-old female 2 days post hand laceration. The doctor orders paraffin treatments and range of motion. What should be the typical treatment temperature for paraffin?
A. 50°C
B. 30°C
C. 40°C
D. 126°C
A. 50°C
You are working at a hospital that has not approved the SOAP note format, but instead uses the problem-oriented medical record format. What are the four major components of the POMR format?
A. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
B. Subjective, objective, progress, potential for rehabilitation
C. Subjective, laboratory test with physician medical history, assessment, prognosis for rehabilitation
D. Subjective, treatment plan, assessment, prognosis
A. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan