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Medical Technology Test Flashcards

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1
Q

Heart Rate (Pulse)

A

a wave of blood flow that expands an artery created by a contraction of the heart

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2
Q

What is the heart rate assessed as?

A

beats per minute (BPM)

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3
Q

How is the heart rate counted?

A

counted for 15, 20, 30, or 60 seconds

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4
Q

Normal Heart Rate (adults)

A

Healthy Resting HR = 60 – 100 BPM

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5
Q

Where is the Radial Pulse sight located?

A

inside the wrist, near the thumb

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6
Q

Where is the Brachial Pulse sight located?

A

in the antecubital space of the arm (the bend of the elbow) in adults

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7
Q

Where is the Apical Pulse sight located?

A

ausculated with a stethoscope on the chest wall. The pulse is found at the apex of the heart

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8
Q

Device used to measure heart rate?

A

stethoscope

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9
Q

Electrocardiograph (ECG/EKG)

A

an electrocardiograph record the electrical activity of your heart

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10
Q

P Wave

A

arterial depolarization (atrial contraction)

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11
Q

QRS Wave

A

depolarization of ventricles (ventricular contraction)

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12
Q

T Wave

A

repolarization or recovery of the ventricles

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13
Q

Blood Pressure (BP)

A

the pressure or tension exerted by the circulating volume of blood on the arterial walls

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14
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)

A

the higher number; represents the pressure exerted on the arteries during the contraction phase of the heartbeat

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15
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

A

the second number; represents the resting pressure on the arteries as the heart relaxes between contractions

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16
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

Difference between the systolic and diastolic; 40 is normal and healthy

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17
Q

What is the normal range for blood pressure?

A

120/80 mmHg

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18
Q

Device used for measuring blood pressure?

A

sphygomomanometer or a BP cuff

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19
Q

The most common site for reading BP?

A

Brachial artery: taken on the upper arm

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20
Q

Radial Artery (BP Site)

A

taken on the lower arm; possible site for infants or clients who have ver large upper arms

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21
Q

Popliteal Artery (BP Site)

A

taken on the thigh

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22
Q

Dorsalis Pedis and Posterior Tibial (BP Site)

A

taken on the lower leg

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23
Q

Hypertension

A

a condition that can be caused by high blood pressure

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24
Q

Hypotension

A

a condition that can be caused by low blood pressure

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25
Q

Respiratory Rate

A

number of breaths per minute

1 breath = 1 inhalation and 1 exhalation

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26
Q

Normal range for respiration rate

A

12 – 20 breaths per minute

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27
Q

Hyperventilation

A

an increased respiratory rate

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28
Q

Hypoventilation

A

a decrease in respiratory rate and depth

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29
Q

Tidal Volume (TV)

A

500 mL or 0.5 L

normal volume moved in or out of the lungs during quiet (resting) breathing

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30
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

A

2900 mL or 2.9 L

inhaling deeply to increase lung volume

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31
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

A

1400 mL or 1.4 L

increasing expiration by contracting our thoracic and abdominal muscles

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32
Q

Vital Capacity (VC)

A

the total of TV + IRV + ERV

it is called vital capacity because it is vital for life, and the more air you can move the better off you are

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33
Q

Total Lung Capacity

A

6000 mL or 6 L
VC + RV

the amount of air in the lungs after a deep inhalation

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34
Q

Spirogram

A

term that depicts a graph of lung capacities

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35
Q

Device used to measure lung capacities

A

respirometer

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36
Q

Spirometry

A

a method of assessing lung function by measuring the volume and speed flow of air in and out of the lungs

Pulmonary Function Test (PFT)

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37
Q

Spirometer

A

device used to perform spirometry

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38
Q

Respiratory Disease Classifications

A

Obstructive Lung Disease

Restrictive Lung Disease

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39
Q

Obstructive Lung Disease

A

conditions that makes it hard to exhale all the air in the lungs

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40
Q

Obstructive Lung Disease Examples

A
  • COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)
  • Emphysema
  • Asthma
  • Cystic Fibrosis
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41
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease

A

conditions that makes it difficult to fully expand the lungs with air due to lung stiffness or muscle weakness

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42
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease Examples

A
  • ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)
  • Muscular dystrophy
  • Scoliosis
  • Interstitial Disease (pulmonary fibrosis)
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43
Q

Homeostasis

A

the condition of the body maintaining a “steady state” where the internal environment within the body remains stable despite the influence of external factors

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44
Q

Negative Feedback System

A

works by reducing or eliminating the stimulus that is causing the change

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45
Q

A negative feedback system controls what?

A

blood sugar levels, temperature, and blood pH level

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46
Q

Positive Feedback System

A

enhances the effect of the stimulus pushing it further away from its normal range

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47
Q

A positive feedback system is used for what?

A

to produce a desired result or achieve a final goal

Example: childbirth and lactation

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48
Q

Thermoregulation

A

the ability to maintain the internal body temperature so that cells can function properly

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49
Q

Normal range for body temperature

A

37ºC or 98.6ºF

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50
Q

Body Temperature

A

a measure of your body’s ability to make and get rid of heat

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51
Q

Device used to measure body temperature

A

electronic thermometers

glass thermometers

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52
Q

Oral Temperature Site

A

within the mouth or under the tongue

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53
Q

Axillary Temperature Site

A

in the armpit

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54
Q

Tympanic Temperature Site

A

in the ear canal

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55
Q

Rectal Temperature Site

A

through the anus, in the rectum

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56
Q

Tachycardia

A

the pulse is faster than 100 BPM

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57
Q

Tachycardia may result from what?

A

shock, hemorrhage, exercise, fever, acute pain, and drugs

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58
Q

Symptoms of Tachycardia

A

dizziness, fainting, chest pain, light headedness, shortness of breath, heart palpitations, rapid pulse rate

59
Q

Bradycardia

A

the pulse is slower than 60 BPM

60
Q

Bradycardia may result from what?

A

unrelieved severe pain, drugs, resting, and hearth blockage

61
Q

Symptoms of Bradycardia

A

dizziness, fainting or near-fainting, shortness of breath, chest pains, easily tiring during physical activity, fatigue, weakness, confusion, memory problems

62
Q

What does hypertension cause?

A
  • can lead to stroke by damaging and weakening the brain’s blood vessels
  • can weaken the heart leading to congestive heart failure
63
Q

What does hypotension cause?

A
  • light headedness, dizziness, weakness or fainting
64
Q

Hyperthermia

A

an elevated body temperature due to failed thermoregulation ( > 40ºC or 104ºF)

65
Q

Causes of Hyperthermia

A
  • prolonged exposure to heat (heat stroke)

- adverse reaction to drugs

66
Q

Symptoms of Hyperthermia

A
  • hot, dry skin
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • headaches
  • low BP
  • fainting
67
Q

Hypothermia

A

when the body loses heat faster than it can produce heat, causing a dangerously low body temperature ( < 35ºC or 95ºF)

68
Q

Causes of Hypothermia

A
  • prolonged exposure to cold
  • major trauma
  • severe cases of anorexia nervosa
69
Q

Symptoms of Hypothermia

A
  • shivering
  • mental confusion
  • difficulty speaking
  • stumbling
  • amnesia
  • inability to use hands
  • increase in BP
70
Q

Factors that affect Heart Rate

A
  • exercise
  • illness
  • injury
  • emotions
71
Q

Factors that affect Blood Pressure

A
  • cardiovascular disorders
  • neurological conditions
  • kidney and urological disorders

(exercise, stress, diet, medications, alcohol, and drugs can affect a reading)

72
Q

Factors that affect Respiration Rate

A

age (increases with age)

73
Q

Factors that affect Temperature

A
  • time of day
  • allergic reaction
  • illness
  • stress
  • exposure to heat or cold
  • exercise
  • menstrual cycle
74
Q

Use of Ultrasound

A

use of sound above human hearing range to image body structures, including soft tissues

  • view the uterus and fetus during pregnancy
  • evaluate blood flow
  • examine lumps within soft tissue (organs)
  • guide a needle for biopsy or tumor treatment)
75
Q

Function of Ultrasound

A

an ultrasound transducer (probe) is a device that produced sound waves that bounce off body tissues and make echos. The transducer also receives the echoes and sends them to a computer that uses them to create an image called a sonogram

76
Q

Function of X-rays

A

high energy electromagnetic waves that pass through soft tissue but are absorbed by dense tissue

77
Q

Use of X-rays

A
  • dental x-rays
  • used to view breakages or fractures of bones
  • can be used to see soft tissues with the help of stains
78
Q

Function of CAT/CT Scans

Computerized Axial Tomography Scan

A

an x-ray machine that rotates around the patient taking hundreds of individual pictures from many angles

computer re-assembles the picture into a 3D image, allowing for organs to be viewed section-by-section

79
Q

Use of CAT/CT Scans

A
  • examine internal and bone injuries
  • diagnose spinal problems and skeletal injuries
  • detect cancers and determine the extent of tumours
80
Q

Function of Nuclear Medicine

A

measures radiation emitted from within the body and provides information about the function of the organ, not just its structure

uses radioisotopes (unstable atoms) that are injected into the target organ for imaging. large amounts of isotopes collect at a site of damage “lighting” it up

81
Q

Use of Nuclear Medicine

A
  • diagnose bone, heart or other organ problems

- radioactive materials are used to kill cancerous tissue, shrink a tumor or reduce pain

82
Q

Function of PET Scans (Positron Emission Tomography)

A

illustrates how the organs/tissues inside your body are really functioning

83
Q

Use of PET Scans

A

detect:

  • cancer
  • heart problems
  • brain disorders
  • other central nervous system disorders
  • blood flow
  • oxygen use
  • glucose metabolism
  • cellular level metabolic changes occurring in an organ or tissues
84
Q

Function of MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) Scans

A

uses magnetic and radio waves to produce images of almost all the different types of tissues in the body

85
Q

Use of MRI’s

A
  • finding tumors in the brain
  • finding abnormal tissue
  • finding brain bleeds
  • takes pictures of heart defects
  • takes pictures of joints, spine and sometimes soft tissue (organs)
86
Q

Con of X-rays

A

can be damaging to our DNA

87
Q

Con of CAT/CT Scans

A
  • full body scans are still not routinely done due to high incidence of “incidentalomas”, not real issues that show up as issues on the scan
  • known to increase chances of cancer
88
Q

How do PET Scans work?

A

the PET machine detects and records the energy given off by the radiotracer that is injected into an arm vein and a computer sonverts this energy into 3D pictures

89
Q

Pros of PET Scans

A
  • a physician can look at cross-sectional images of the body organ from any angle
  • can detect cellular metabolic changes occurring in an organ and tissue unlike a CT or MRI
90
Q

How do MRI’s work

A

radio waves, 10,000-30,000x stronger than the magnetic field of the earth, are sent through the body, forcing the body’s atoms’ nuclei into a different position, and send out radio waves of their own. The scanner picks up these signals and a computer turns them into a picture

91
Q

Pros of MRI’s

A

no exposure to x-rays or any other damaging forms of radiation

92
Q

Organ Transplant

A

a surgical procedure in which a failing or damages organ in the human body is removed and replaced with a functioning one

93
Q

Autograft

A

a transplant of tissue from one to oneself

Ex. skin grafts, blood, stem cells

94
Q

Allograft

A

a transplant between 2 genetically non-identical members of the same species

95
Q

Complications of an Allograft

A

requires immunosuppressants to prevent an autoimmune response but these drugs make the body vulnerable to pathogens

96
Q

Isograft

A

(a sub-category of allografts)
involves a transplant from a donor to a genetically identical recipient (ex. identical twins)

  • does not trigger an immune response
97
Q

Xenograft and Xenotransplantation

A

a transplant from one species to another

ex. porcine (pig) heart valve transplants

98
Q

Organ Harvesting

A

Organs are taken from living or deceased individuals without their consent and sold for transplantation

99
Q

Transplant Tourism

A

wealthy individuals go to poorer nations and buy organs for transplantation

100
Q

Deceased (Cadaveric Organ Donation) Organ Donors

A

people who have been declared brain-dead and whose organs are kept viable by ventilators or other mechanical mechanism until they can be excised for transplantation

101
Q

Living Organ Donors

A

the donor remains alive and donates a renewable tissue, cell or fluid or donates an organ (primarily single kidney donation, partial donation of liver, lung lobe)

102
Q

Complications with Organ Donations

A
  1. increased risk of the non-compatibility
  2. rejection
  3. disease carried in the tissue
103
Q

Role of Blood

A
  • transports nutrients, respiratory gases, hormones, and wastes
  • has a role in thermoregulation
  • defends against infection
  • ability to form clots and prevents blood loss
104
Q

Percentage of the Liquid Phase/ Plasma in Blood

Plasma consists of what?

A

55%

water, proteins, sugars, vitamins, minerals, and waste products

105
Q

Percentage of the Solid Phase in Blood

Consists of what?

A

45%

erythrocytes (RBC’s), leukocytes (WBC’s), and thrombocytes (platelets)

106
Q

Erythrocytes:

  • percentage
  • function
  • protein
  • nucleus?
A
  • 45% of the total blood volume
  • transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
  • hemoglobin
  • no nucleus
107
Q

Leukocytes:

  • percentage
  • function
  • protein
  • nucleus?
A
  • less than 1% of the total blood volume
  • defend the body from foreign invaders
  • formin
  • has a nucleus
108
Q

Thrombocytes:

  • percentage
  • function
  • nucleus
A
  • less than 1% of the total blood volume
  • clot blood when blood vessels become damaged ( forms platelet plugs; releases chemicals necessary for blood clotting)
  • no nucleus
109
Q

Leukocytes are classified by? What are the 2 different classifications?

A

Classified by the presence of granules

  1. Granulocytes
  2. Agranulocytes
110
Q

Granulocytes

A

irregularly shapes WBC with several lobes and characterized by the PRESENCE of granules in their cytoplasm that are filled with enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals

111
Q

What are the 3 types of Granulocytes?

A
  1. Basophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Neutrophils
112
Q

Basophils

percentage of WBC concentration

A

1%

release histamines and are involves in inflammatory responses

113
Q

Eosinophils

percentage of WBC concentration

A

4%
releases chemicals that reduce inflammation; attacks certain worm parasites
–––> phagocytosis at inflammatory sites

114
Q

Neutrophils

percentage of WBC concentration

A

65%
immune defense; engulf pathogens and debris in damaged or infected tissue
–––>phagocytizes microorganisms and other substances

115
Q

Agranulocytes

A

have compact nuclei and are characterized by the ABSENCE of granules in their cytoplasm

116
Q

What are the 2 types of Agranulocytes?

A
  1. Monocytes

2. Lymphocytes

117
Q

Monocytes

percentage of WBC concentration

A

5%
phagocytic cell in the blood; leaves the blood and becomes a macrophage, which phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells, cell fragments and other debris within tissues

118
Q

What do Monocytes do for T cells?

A

they keep pieces of the pathogen so that the pathogens can be recognized again and killed
(think of a vaccine)

119
Q

Lymphocytes

percentage of WBC concentration

A

23%

produces antibodies and other chemicals responsible for destroying microorganisms; regulate the immune system

120
Q

What are the 2 types of Lymphocytes?

A
  1. T Cells

2. B Cells

121
Q

T Cells

A

determine the specificity of immune response to antigens (foreign substances) in the body

122
Q

B Cells

A

produce antibodies that bind to invading pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and toxins to enable their destruction

123
Q

What are the 3 types of T Cells?

A
  1. Helper T Cells (CD4+)
  2. Natural Killer Cells (NK)
  3. Cytotoxic T Cells
124
Q

Helper T Cells

A

initiate the immune response

125
Q

Natural Killer Cells

A

are able to kill cells of the body that are infected by a virus as well as tumor cells. Part of the INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM, which means they are always turned on

126
Q

Cytotoxic T Cells

A

are able to kill cells of the body that are infected by a virus as well as tumor cells (induce apoptosis in cells). Part of the ADAPTIVE IMMUNE RESPONSE, which means they are only switched on to deal with persistent viruses

127
Q

Agglutinogens (Antigens)

A

a protein found on the surface of erythrocytes

128
Q

Characteristics of Agglutinogens

A
  • used to name blood type

- have a large, globular shape

129
Q

Agglutinins (Antibodies)

A

a substance that recognizes and attacks foreign molecules. It causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass

130
Q

Characteristics of Agglutinins

A
  • found in the plasma
  • develop after birth
  • Y-shaped
131
Q

Similarities between Agglutinoges and Agglutinins

A
  • both are protein molecules

- components of blood, and related to immunity

132
Q 
Blood Stereotyping: Type A
Antigen:
Antibodies:
Can donate to:
Can receive from:
A

Antigen: A
Antibodies: Anti-B
Can donate to: A and AB
Can receive from: A and O

133
Q 
Blood Stereotyping: Type A
Antigen:
Antibodies in Cerum:
Can donate to:
Can receive from:
A

Antigen: A
Antibodies in Cerum: Anti-B
Can donate to: A and AB
Can receive from: A and O

134
Q 
Blood Stereotyping: Type B
Antigen:
Antibodies in Cerum:
Can donate to:
Can receive from:
A

Antigen: B
Antibodies in Cerum: Anti-A
Can donate to: B and AB
Can receive from: B and O

135
Q 
Blood Stereotyping: Type O
Antigen:
Antibodies in Cerum:
Can donate to:
Can receive from:
A

Antigen: Neither A or B
Antibodies in Cerum: Both Anti-A and Anti-B
Can donate to: EVERYONE
Can receive from: O ONLY

136
Q 
Blood Stereotyping: Type AB
Antigen:
Antibodies in Cerum:
Can donate to:
Can receive from:
A

Antigen: Both A and B
Antibodies in Cerum: NONE
Can donate to: AB
Can receive from: EVERYONE

137
Q

Agglutination

A

the clumping together of cells or particles

138
Q

Rh is expresses as positive or negative

A

either you have it or you don’t

139
Q

Where is the Rh factor found?

A

like other antigens, it is found on the surface of the red blood cells

140
Q

Rh Compatibility

A

Rh+ is dominant
Rh– is negative
85% of people are Rh+

141
Q

Rh+ blood types can only give blood to other Rh+ carriers

Rh– blood types can give blood to both Rh+ and Rh– carriers

A

Rh+ blood types can receive blood from both Rh+ and Rh– carriers

Rh– blood types can only receive blood from Rh– carriers

142
Q

What happens when an Rh- woman has an Rh+ child with an Rh+ man?

A

cells from the baby enter the woman’s blood stream and cause her to produce antibodies to protect her from the Rh+ antigen.

this does not cause any problems in the first pregnancy. But in the second pregnancy, if the child is Rh+, the Rh antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the baby’s RBC’s.

This can lead to HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA; a condition in which RBC’s are destroyed faster than the body can replace them

143
Q

What is the solution to an Rh+ pregnancy?

A

injections of an Rh IMMUNE GLOBULIN medicine can keep the body from making Rh antibodies, and helps prevent the problems of Rh incompatibility

Health Science (8 decks)

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