Medical Advances Flashcards

1
Q

biochemical pregnancy is defined as

A

an eleavtion in BhCG

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2
Q

approximately 60% of all +hCG…

A

never devlope to live birth

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3
Q

clinical pregnancy is defines as the first presence of

A

a heartbeat

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4
Q

pre-implantation genetic testing (PGT) involves removal of cells as early as the

A

blastomeres of the ICM

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5
Q

pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is looking for a

A

specific disease

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6
Q

pre-implantation genetic screening (PGS) is looking for

A

chromosomal normalcy and not a specific disease

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7
Q

define congenital malformations

A

anomalies and distruptions to the normal development

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8
Q

congenital malformations occur in

A

utero prior to birth

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9
Q

congenital malformations are often a result of “genetic abnoralities” particularly mutations of genes for

A
  • transcription factors
  • transduction factors
  • inducing factors
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10
Q

down syndrom is aka

A

trisomy 21

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11
Q

down syndrome results from an extra chromosomal segment at position

A

21

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12
Q

the incidence of down syndrom increases significantly at what maternal age?

A

35+

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13
Q

define pleiotropy

A

phenotypic effects produced by one gene expression

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14
Q

mosaic pleiotropy is when an abnormal gene

A

independently affects different orangs/systems

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15
Q

relational pleiotropy is when an abornmal gene

A

only affects a single organ development but then that organ’s development affects other organs

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16
Q

define infertility

A

the inability to concieve after on full year of attempts

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17
Q

what are lab techniques used to assist in fertilization

A

assisted reproductive technologies (ART)

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18
Q

what are examples of ART?

A
  • drug therapy
  • in-vitro fertilization
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19
Q

in-vitro fertilization (IVF) was first done by

A

louise brown in 1978

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20
Q

what are 2 other examples of modifes versions of IVF involving retrival of eggs?

A
  1. gamete intrafallopisn transfer (GIFT)
  2. zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
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21
Q

GIFT & ZIFT are considered faster processe because of the

A

timing of the transfers (implantation)

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22
Q

what do GIFT and ZIFT require that IVF does not

A

a surgical procedure to access the fallopian tubes

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23
Q

explain the process of GIFT

A

sperm & eggs are mixed in-vitro and re-implanted into the fallopian tube hoping fertilization occurs

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24
Q

explain the process of ZIFT

A

fertilization occurs in-vitro then the zygote is placed into the fallopian tube

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25
Q

intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a procedure where

A

sperm is injected into the eggs in-vitro to create a fertilized egg

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26
Q

under what circumstances is ICSI typically used in cases of male factor infertility such as

A

Kartagerner’s Syndrome

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27
Q

which drugs hyperstimulate the ovaries to increase the quality and quantity of egg production

A
  • gonal F
  • follistim
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28
Q

charactersistics of Gonal F

A
  • less expensive
  • produces more eggs
  • makes uterus less receptive to implantation
29
Q

characteristics of follistim

A

produces better quality eggs than gonal F

30
Q

better media has beenn developed that will mimic the ________ ________ during the in-vitro period of fertilization

A

ampulla region

31
Q

the improved media allows for the embryo to be kept in the dish for an extended period of time ____ days or until the ________ stage

A

2-3

balstocyst

32
Q

uterus transplants are used in the cases of

A
  • uterine cancer
  • removed uterus
  • excessive fibroid tissue
33
Q

micro-TESE is used to identify the areas of the

A

testicle that has the best sperm production

34
Q

an improvement in these categories can improve the gamete production and fertility in both women and men

A
  • diet
  • exercise
  • sleep
  • lifestyle
35
Q

pre-eclampsia typically presents with

A
  • high BP
  • high protein levels in urine

- indicates kidney damage, organ failure or damage

36
Q

why was the definition of pre-eclampsia rewritten?

A

b/c some pregnant women only presented with organ damage and not the other symptoms

37
Q

although the causes of pre-eclampsia are not well known what are thought to be some causes?

A
  • poor blood flow
  • improper functioning of placenta
  • high fat diet
  • poor nutrition
38
Q

what was found to reduce the chances of developing pre-eclampsia?

39
Q

a high dosage of aspirin intake can also lead to

A
  • bleeding
  • loss of pregnancy
  • congenital birth defects
40
Q

define trachelectomy

A

a surgical removal of the uterine cervix

41
Q

define vitrification

A

fast freezing

42
Q

in the process of vitrification water molecules are removed and replaced w/

A

higher preserving solution before being placed in liquid nitrogen

freezing occurs in miliseconds

43
Q

in the process of vitrification water molecules are removed and replaced w/

A

higher preserving solution before being placed in liquid nitrogen

freezing occurs in miliseconds

44
Q

vitrification can help prevent cell degradation during what processes

A

thawing, fertilization. transfer

45
Q

define teratology

A

the study of birth defects

46
Q

teratogens are

A

exogenous agents responisble for genetic abnormalities

47
Q

at what period during development is the most susceptible to teratogens?

A

3rd-8th week

48
Q

why is the 3-8 week the period of time where susceptibility to teratogens is the highest?

A

b/c of the massive amount of gene segments that are expressed for commitment of stem cells to specific cell types

49
Q

list examples of teratogenic agents

A
  • drug
  • chemicals
  • antibiotics
  • viruses
  • radiation
  • hyperthermia
  • metabolic conditions
50
Q

what is the most commonly occurring teratogen that affects gestational development?

A

FAS

fetal alcohol syndrome

51
Q

what is the most commonly occurring teratogen that affects gestational development?

A

FAS

fetal alcohol syndrome

52
Q

developmental cancer is a composite of cells that are developing ____________ and are generally…

A
  • abnormally
  • unresponsive to their environment
53
Q

teratocarciniomas are malignant cells within the embryo that mimic or behave like the

A

ICM

affect normal organ development

54
Q

what are 5 cancer implications on development?

A
  1. change environment for normal development
  2. communication between cells is disrupted
  3. cadherin levels decrease (allows metastasis)
  4. abnormal physiology
  5. expresses anti-apoptosis gene
55
Q

what is a product similar to VEGF that is secreted by tumor cells to stimulate angiogenesis?

A

TAF

tumor angiogenesis factor

56
Q

what is the difference between normal capillaries and those that feed the carcinoma

A

carcinoma capillaries are more permeable

useful for chemotherapeutic agents

57
Q

explain the mechanism of multi-component anti-cancer drugs

A
  • bypass theh vasculature of healthly tissue
  • outer coat of drug blocks TAF
  • inner core of drug exerts cytotoxic componets
58
Q

give an example of multi-component anti-cancer drugs

A

nexavar

renal & liver carcinomas

59
Q

gene therapy is the ability to manipulate

A

gene segments during the gestational period

60
Q

somatic cell gene therapy involves altering the

A

gene product within the body cell DNA of the host

only affects individual recieving therapy

61
Q

germline gene therapy corrects

A

faulty gene segments in the host & offspring

62
Q

germline gene therapy would block the transmission of

A
  • genetically predisposed or inherited diseases/disorders
63
Q

what are the 4 sources of stem cells?

A
  1. embryonic stem cells
  2. adult stem cells
  3. umbilical stem cells
  4. maternal stem cells
64
Q

embryonic stem cells are

A

pluripotent

65
Q

embryonic stem cells are derived from the

A

ICM of the blastocyst

66
Q

adult stem cells are

A

multipotent in adults

only pluripotent in animals models

67
Q

umbilical stem cells are found in the cords blood that are

A

pluripotent

68
Q

maternal stem cells are

A

fetal stem cells within the maternal blood circulation