MD3001 Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

congenitally corrected transposition of great vessels

A

defect where great arteries and ventricles both rotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

this heart disease may cause squatting

A

Fallot’s tetralogy can have this interesting presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maladie de Roger

A

restrictive VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rashkind

A

name for atrial septostomy (making hole in atrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blaylock shunt

A

shunt from subclavian to PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what congenital heart disease always causes cyanosis but never PH?

A

Fallot’s has these effects on cyanosis and PH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in Fallot’s, how is murmur from VSD and and pulmonary stenosis related?

A

in this congenital heart disease, murmur from VSD and degree of pulmonary stenosis are inversely related (bigger VSD, smaller murmur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Janeway lesions indicative of?

A

painless flat lesions on palm or sole indicative of infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes Malar flush?

A

mitral stenosis causes this symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 effects on eyes that raised cholesterol has

A
  1. xanthelasma (fatty deposits around eyes)

2. corneal arcus (white ring in iris)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what heart disease causes slow rising pulse?

A

aortic stenosis causes this type of pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what heart disease causes collapsing pulse?

A

aortic regurgitation causes this type of pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 manoeuvres to accentuate murmurs in CV exam

A
  1. bell on apex turned on L side in expiration (mitral stenosis)
  2. diaphragm on L axilla (mitral regurgitation)
  3. diaphragm on lower L sternal edge sitting upwards in expiration (aortic regurgitation)
  4. diaphragm on carotids (aortic radiation/carotid bruits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what type of murmur does aortic regurgitation cause?

A

this type of regurgitation causes diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what heart defect causes a continuous murmur?

A

patent ductus arteriosus causes this type of murmur?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 mutated genes in Down’s Syndrome (trisomy 21)

A
  1. DSCAM

2. COLRAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TBX1

A

a dimeric transcription factor sometimes absent causing DiGeorge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

xanthoma

A

visible cholesterol deposits found in familial hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

indication of definite familial hypercholesterolemia

A

cholesterol >7.5mM + xanthoma in patient or 1/2nd degree relative OR DNA confirmation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

indication of possible familial hypercholesterolemia

A

cholesterol >7.5mM + family history of MI <50yo in 2nd degree relative or <60yo in 1st degree relative OR family history of cholesterol >7.5mM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

compound heterozygote

A

presence of 2 diff mutant alleles at a gene l tocus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what directly causes decrease in coronary flow (3)?

A
  1. shortening diastole (eg. increase HR)
  2. increase L ventricular EDP (eg. aortic stenosis)
  3. reduce diastolic arterial pressure (eg. mitral/aortic valve incompetence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 types of angina

A
  1. chronic stable angina (fixed stenosis)
  2. unstable angina (thrombus)
  3. prinzmetal’s varient angina (vasospasm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2 beta blockers

A
  1. bisoprolol

2. atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
rate limiting Ca antagonists (2)
1. verapamil | 2. diltiazem
26
dihydropyridine Ca antagonists (2)
1. amlodipine | 2. lercanidipine
27
side effects of Ca antagonists (3)
1. headache 2. constipation 3. ankle oedema
28
what type of angina do dihydropyridine Ca antagonists treat?
this type of Ca antagonist Prinzmetal angina instead of BB and most anginas alongside BB
29
how are organic nitrates used for stable angina?
sublingual glyceryl trinitrate taken before exertion or isosorbide mononitrate taken long before treats this type of angina
30
how are organic nitrates used for unstable angina?
intravenous glyceryl trinitrate treats this type of angina
31
funny f-type Na+ channel inhibitor and its use
ivabradine used to treat angina
32
what organ gets the most blood flow per amount of tissue?
kidneys are very susceptible to drugs b/c of this
33
example of effect of weak acids binding to a saturable site on albumin
Warfarin and Aspirin bind to this specific site, thus ingesting Aspiring would release more Warfarin
34
cause of hyperalbuminemia
dehydration has this effect on albumin
35
causes of hypoalbuminemia (4)
1. burns 2. renal disease 3. hepatic disease 4. malnutrition has this effect on albumin
36
how do large lipophobic molecules pass capillary wall? (2)
1. fused invaginations | 2. sinusoids/discontinuous capillary
37
what entrances through capillary allow small but not large lipophobic molecules? (2)
1. tight junction | 2. fenestrated capillary
38
Hickman and Broviac lines
skin-tunnelled CVCs (2)
39
extravasation
harmful leakage of IV into extravascular tissue usually caused by vesicant
40
vesicant
blister agent
41
infiltration
harmless leakage of IV into extravascular tissue
42
why is vancomycin difficult to administer?
this drug is difficult to administer b/c it has a long half life so it takes a while to be effective, but can cause red man syndrome if given too quickly or too much
43
how to gauge how much vancomycin to administer?
stat loading dose
44
bioavailability
fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation
45
clearance
volume of blood/plasma cleared of drug in a unit time
46
plasma steady state conc (Css)
rate of drug administered (Ko)/clearance
47
what does elimination half-life (t1/2) depend on?
this directly depends on volume of distribution (Vd) and inversely on clearance (CL)
48
apparent volume of distribution (Vd)
total amount of drug in body/blood plasma concentration of drug
49
is primary or secondary hypertension more common
primary (idiopathic) cause of this CV condition is more common than secondary
50
possible causes of secondary hypertension
- renal disease (bad BP control) - diabetes thus damaged endothelium - endocrine disorders - coarctation of aorta - some drugs (contraceptives, NSAIDS, etc) - pregnancy (pre-eclampsia and eventually eclampsia)
51
top 2 most common deaths caused by hypertension
1. heart failure (50%) | 2. MI (20%)
52
how does hypertension cause heart failure? (2)
1. LV hypertrophy from increased TPR | 2. volume overload due to renal failure
53
each 2mmHg rise in systolic BP is associated w/ increased risk of mortality of what? (2)
1. stroke 10% | 2. heart disease (7%)
54
describe symptoms of class I hypertension
this class of hypertension has narrows retinal arteries
55
describe symptoms of class II hypertension
this class of hypertension has - some LV hypertrophy, L axis deviation - change in retinal veins - microalbuminuria
56
describe symptoms of class II hypertension
this class of hypertension has - marked LV hypertrophy, massive L axis deviation, inverted T waves - retinal oedema/haemorrhage - marked albuminuria - falling creatinine clearance
57
life expectancy of the 3 classes of hypertension
I: 38-40yrs II: 15-20yrs III: 8-10yrs
58
to which patients would you offer antihypertensive drugs? (2)
1. stage II hypertension | 2. stage I hypertension w/ either target organ damage or 10yr CV risk
59
to which hypertensive patients would you offer specialist referral?
you would offer this to patients <40yo w/ stage I hypertension
60
what would you offer to patients >40yo w/ stage I hypertension? (3)
1. lifestyle interventions 2. patient education 3. annual review to monitor BP, provide support, discuss
61
2 ACE inhibitors
1. ramipril | 2. lisinopril
62
an a-adrenoreceptor blocker
doxazosin
63
role of spironolactone
this drug is a K+ sparing diuretic and aldosterone antagonist
64
side effects of ACE inhibitors (4)
1. persistent dry cough 2. dizziness 3. tiredness 4. headaches
65
side effects of ARBs (3)
1. dizziness 2. headaches 3. back/leg pain
66
side effects of Ca2+ antagonists (4)
1. flushes 2. headaches 3. ankle oedema 4. dizziness
67
most common sites for central line insertion (2)
1. L internal jugular vein | 2. L subclavian vein
68
normal central venous pressure
3-8mmHg
69
nicorandil
combines activate not K+ ATP channels w/ nitrovasodilator actions so vascular smooth muscle harder to depolarize
70
type of drug administered by intermittent infusion (4)
1. unstable drug 2. long half life 3. concentration dependent effects 4. less compatibility concerns
71
most likely cause of RV failure
cardiomyopathy is most likely cause of this heart failure
72
shunt ratio
ratio b/w pulmonary and systemic flow Qp:Qs
73
Waterston shunt
shunt from central PA to aorta
74
polycythaemia
condition of too many RBCs
75
which type of ASD is often complicated by other lesions
ostium primum ASD differs from ostium second ASD in this way
76
treatments for TGA
- maintain arterial duct - atrial septostomy - radical switch procedure - mustard procedure
77
CATCH-22
``` Cardiac abnormalities Abnormal facies Thyme aplasia Cleft palate Hypothyroidism ```
78
what chromosome region is deleted in DiGeorge Syndrome?
22q11.2
79
what disease shows locus heterogeneity?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy shows this type of genetic mutation
80
what mutation occurs in long QT?
this disease is caused by channelopathy in either K+ or Na+ channels and delays ventricular repolarization
81
describe vasodilator effect of Ca antagonists for angina
this angina drug dilates resistance vessels, thus reducing after load, and coronary vessels (variant angina)
82
describe vasodilator effect of organic nitrates (glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide mononitrate)
this anti-anginal drug acts on veins to decrease cardiac preload and dilate collateral coronary vessels
83
define health promotion
process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health
84
methods of health promotion (5)
1. provide info (ex. pamphlets) 2. enhance motivation (ex. cognitive behavioural therapy) 3. behavioural methods (ex. exercise class) 4. health behaviour maintenance (ex. avoid tempting situations) 5. combined program (ex. weight watchers)
85
stage model of behavioural change (6)
1. pre-contemplation 2. contemplation 3. preparation 4. action 5. maintenance 6. relapse
86
concentration of albumin in plasma
this protein is 40g/L in plasma
87
volume of interstitial fluid in 70kg adult
12L of this fluid in a 70kg adult
88
volume of intracellular fluid in 70kg adult
27L of this fluid in a 70kg adult
89
volume of plasma in 70kg adult
3L of this fluid in a 70kg adult