Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Networks > MC questions > Flashcards

MC questions Flashcards

1
Q

The strength of the electromagnetic waves being radiated from an antenna is referred to as gain, which involves a measurement of both direction and efficiency of a transmission. Gain is commonly measured using the dBi unit of measure.(t/f)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When a wireless channel uses more than one frequency, the transmission method is called a ________ spectrum.

  • broad
  • multi
  • long
  • spread
A

spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is not a variation of spread-spectrum technology?

  • DSSS
  • FHSS
  • DFSS
  • OFDM
A

DFSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

WLANs use a technology called carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD).(t/f)

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following wireless standards operate at a maximum bandwidth of less than 20 Mbps? (Choose two.)

  • 802.11
  • 802.11a
  • 802.11b
  • 802.11g
A
  1. 11

802. 11b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WLANs can be categorized based on their use of wireless APs. The three main categories are ________, ________, and ________.

  • HBSS, BSS, ESS
  • IBSS, BSS, RSS
  • HBSS, BSS, IBSS
  • IBSS, BSS, ESS
A

IBSS, BSS, RSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the 802.11 2.4-GHz band channel width?

  • 22 MHz
  • 40 MHz
  • 5 MHz
  • 12 MHz
A

22 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which channel is not one of the non-overlapping channels when using the 802.11 2.4-GHz band?

  • 1
  • 5
  • 6
  • 11
A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An omnidirectional antenna radiates power at relatively unequal power levels in all directions (somewhat similar to the theoretical isotropic antenna).(t/f)

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which is not a security threat for WLANs?
Warchalking
- Rogue access point
- Wardialing
- WEP and WPA security
- cracking
A

Wardialing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To protect WLAN traffic from eavesdroppers, a variety of security standards and practices have been developed, including all of the following except what?

  • Enabling SSID broadcast
  • MAC address filtering
  • Preshared key
  • IEEE 802.1X
A

Enabling SSID broadcast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is not a WLAN security standard?

  • WEP
  • WAP
  • WPA
  • WPA2
A

WAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WPA2 uses Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) for integrity checking and Data Encryption Standard (DES) for encryption.(t/f)

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

WLAN security based on a PSK technology is called ________ mode.

  • personal
  • private
  • home
  • WEP
A

personal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following are broad categories of wireless antenna that are based on coverage? (Choose two.)

  • WLAN
  • SSID
  • Omnidirectional
  • Unidirectional
  • Wired Equivalent Protocol (WEP)
A

Omnidirectional

Unidirectional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a variation of spread-spectrum technology use in wireless local-area networks? (Choose three.)

  • WEP
  • Wi-Fi
  • WPA - 2
  • Direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS)
  • Frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS)
  • Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)
A
  • Direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS)
  • Frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS)
  • Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What transmission method is used with IEEE 802.11ac?

  • DSSS
  • FHSS
  • OFDM
  • FHDM
A

OFDM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which IEEE standard is used to authenticate wireless clients?

  • 802.11i
  • 802.3ac
  • 802.2af
  • 802.1X
A

802.1X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the encryption mechanism that is used with the WPA2 security standard?

  • AES
  • RC4
  • SHA-1
  • MD5
A

AES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The data rate for a T3 link is ________.

  • 45.736 Mbps to 51.84 Mbps
  • 44.736 Mbps to 52.84 Mbps
  • 44.736 Mbps
  • 40 Mbps to 50 Mbps
A

44.736 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following are not examples of wireless media?

  • Cellular phone
  • LTE
  • HSPA+
  • DSL
A

DSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If the bandwidth of an OC-1 link is 51.84 Mbps, what is the bandwidth of an OC-3 link?

  • 155 Mbps
  • 51.84 Mbps
  • 155.52 Mbps
  • 1.54 Mbps
A

155.52 Mbps

23
Q

Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), a cell-switched connection technology that uses 53-byte fixed-length cells, is often categorized as a packet-switched connection technology.(t/f)

A

true

24
Q

Which of the following is a common Layer 2 protocol that could run over a dedicated leased line?

  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
  • Internetwork Packet Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange (IPX/SPX)
  • Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
A

Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

25
Q

A service level agreement (SLA) is used to specify the specific performance metrics (for example, available bandwidth and maximum delay) that are guaranteed for a service over a certain percentage of time.(t/f)

A

true

26
Q

Which type of ISDN circuit provides 23 B channels and 1 D channel?

  • BRI
  • IDSL
  • PRI
  • SDSL
A

PRI

27
Q

What is the name of the digital modem device that is used to terminate a T1 circuit?

  • SmartJack
  • Network interface
  • CSU/DSU
  • ESU
A

CSU/DSU

28
Q

What are the two different supported frame formats that are used when deploying a T1 leased line?

  • Super Frame
  • Extended Super Frame
  • Multi Frame
  • Distributed Frame
A

Extended Super Frame

Super Frame

29
Q

A common Layer 2 protocol used on dedicated leased lines is ________.

  • PPP
  • CHAP
  • TCP/IP
  • IPsec
A

PPP

30
Q

Which is not a primary feature offered by Link Control Protocol (LCP)?

  • Looped-link detection
  • Error detection
  • Authentication
  • Packet detection
A
  • Packet detection
31
Q

A demarc is the point in a telephone network where the maintenance responsibility passes from a telephone company to the subscriber (unless the subscriber has purchased inside wiring maintenance).
(t/f)

A

true

32
Q

MPLS inserts a 32-bit header between Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers. Because this header is ________ between the Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers, it is sometimes referred to as a(n) ________ header.

  • inserted, insert
  • added, addon
  • inserted, proxy
  • shimmed, shim
A

shimmed, shim

33
Q

What are the two commonly available PPP authentication mechanisms?

  • PAP
  • RADIUS
  • TACACS+
  • CHAP
A

CHAP

34
Q

What is the name of the protocol that is commonly used to authenticate devices that connect via DSL?

  • SLIP
  • PPPoE
  • PPP
  • ROAM
A
  • PPPoE
35
Q

What is the maximum distance that an ADSL modem (client) can be from a provider’s DSLAM?

  • 14,000 feet
  • 15,000 feet
  • 18,000 feet
  • 22,000 feet
A
  • 18,000 feet
36
Q

What is the theoretical maximum downstream speed of ADSL?

  • 4 Mbps
  • 1.544 Mbps
  • 52 Mbps
  • 8 Mbps
A

8 Mbps

37
Q

What is the name of the specification that indicates the frequencies that are dedicated for data transmission over cable lines?

  • DOCSIS
  • EIA/TIA 568a
  • SONET
  • IEEE 802.6
A

DOCSIS

38
Q

What is the purpose of a default gateway?

  • ARP resolves the MAC address to a NetBIOS name.
  • ARP resolves an IP address to a hostname.
  • ARP locates the default gateway of the network.
  • ARP resolves the IP address of a Host to its MAC address.
A

ARP resolves the IP address of a Host to its MAC address.

39
Q

At the moment, PC1 cannot reach the Internet. You add a static default route to R1 that sends all traffic to an unknown destination out S1/1 and add a static default route to R2 that sends all traffic to unknown destination out S1/0. Can a user on PC1 access the Internet?

  • Yes, PC1 has Internet access.
  • No, packets will not make it past R1.
  • No, packets can make it to the Internet, but they will never make it back to PC1.
  • No, packets will stop at R2.
A

No, packets can make it to the Internet, but they will never make it back to PC1.

40
Q

What is the administrative distance of a directly connected network?

A

0

41
Q

What is the administrative distance for an internal EIGRP route?

  • 1
  • 90
  • 110
  • 170
A

90

42
Q

What are the two methods used to prevent loops in a distance vector routing protocol?

  • Split horizon and hold-down timer
  • Split horizon and poison reverse
  • Poison reverse and hop count
  • Split horizon and hop count
A

Split horizon and poison reverse

43
Q

Which of the following is an exterior gateway protocol?

  • BGP
  • RIP
  • OSPF
  • EIGRP
A

BGP

44
Q

Which of the following is a distance vector routing protocol that uses a metric of hops?

  • IS-IS
  • OSPF
  • EIGRP
  • RIP
A

RIP

45
Q

For static NAT to work, how many inside global addresses are needed for inside local addresses?

  • One inside global addresses for unlimited inside local addresses
  • Two inside global addresses for every inside local address
  • Ten inside global addresses for unlimited inside local addresses
  • One inside global address for every inside local address
A

One inside global address for every inside local address

46
Q

R1 is using both NAT and PAT. What is the purpose of the port numbers in the translation table?

  • Basic NAT uses the port numbers to track separate communication flows.
  • PAT uses the port numbers to track separate communication flows.
  • The port numbers are not used.
  • PAT only uses the destination port to track separate communication flows.
A

PAT uses the port numbers to track separate communication flows.

47
Q

Which of the following is a multicast routing protocol?

  • PIM
  • IGMP
  • IS-IS
  • OSPF
A

PIM

48
Q

What is the hop count that is used by RIP to indicate an unreachable metric?

  • 16
  • 0
  • 15
  • 255
A

16

49
Q

What factors are used to calculate the OSPF cost?

  • Bandwidth, delay
  • Bandwidth
  • Delay
  • Bandwidth, MTU
A

Bandwidth

50
Q

What factors are used in the calculation of the default EIGRP metric?

  • Delay
  • Bandwidth
  • Bandwidth, delay
  • Bandwidth, MTU
A

Bandwidth, delay

51
Q

Which message type was added with IGMP Version 2?

  • Join
  • Prune
  • Combine
  • Leave
A

Leave

52
Q

Which feature was added with IGMPv3 that allowed a client to specify the joining of a group and a specific source server?

  • SSM
  • SRM
  • SME
  • SMJ
A

SSM

53
Q

Which mode of PIM uses a source distribution tree?

  • Sparse mode
  • Dense mode
  • Broadcast mode
  • Source mode
A
  • Dense mode
54
Q

Which mode of PIM uses a rendezvous point (RP)?

  • Broadcast mode
  • Dense mode
  • Sparse mode
  • Source mode
A

Sparse mode

Networks (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions