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MSc Occupational Therapy - Year 1 > May Exam - Informing Sciences > Flashcards

May Exam - Informing Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

List the 5 parts of the brain

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal
  3. Occipital
  4. Temporal
  5. Cerebellum
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2
Q

Name 1 function for each part of the brain

A
  1. Frontal - Motor control
  2. Parietal - Sensory interpretation
  3. Occipital - Vision
  4. Temporal - Speech and audition
  5. Cerebellum - Balance and coordination
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3
Q

Which 3 arteries provide main blood supply to the brain?

A
  • Anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
  • Middle cerebral artery (MCA)
  • Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
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4
Q

How many ventricles are there in the brain? Can you name them?

A

4.

The ventricular system, consist of the left and right lateral ventricles, the third ventricle, and the fourth ventricle.

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5
Q

What is the primary role of the hypothalamus?

A

Maintenance of body temperature and hormonal regulation (homeostasis)

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6
Q

What is a stroke?

A

Stroke occurs due to oxygen deprivation in the brain due to lacking sufficient blood supply, leading to the permanent damage if not death of concerned blood cells

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7
Q

What are the 2 primary forms of stroke?

A

Ischemic: the most common type of stroke. They happen when a blood clot blocks the flow of blood and oxygen to the brain. These blood clots typically form in areas where the arteries have been narrowed or blocked over time by fatty deposits known as plaques.

Hemorrhagic: when blood from an artery suddenly begins bleeding into the brain (ruptured blood vessel).

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8
Q

Fill in the blank:

“Strokes are the leading cause of … and thus, requires near-immediate levels of medical care after having one”

A

Preventable disability worldwide

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9
Q

Define spasticity

A

A positive motor symptom which results in increased muscle tone and/or stiffness in the areas affected

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10
Q

Name the 3 types of pain

A
  • Transient
  • Acute
  • Chronic
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11
Q

What is transient pain?

A

Due to it being the result of minimal tissue damage, this pain is typically experienced for a brief duration and a sharp sensation followed quickly by a dull one.

Functionally, should prevent further damage from the behaviour performed which caused it.

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12
Q

What is acute pain?

A

Pain of recent onset and usually time limited. Often associated with injury/disease which takes longer for the body to recover from when compared to events that lead to transient pain. If it lasts longer than 3 months, it may be considered chronic

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13
Q

What is chronic pain?

A

Pain that lasts for longer period, persisting beyond the healing of the once damaged tissue and often occurs in conditions that are chronic like joint disease, nerve damage and/or cancer.

However, chronic pain can be experienced in areas that haven’t even been damaged. This is thought to happen due to pain mechanisms and neural pathways becoming dysfunctional. Chronic pain is more than mere sensation and is multidimensional in nature.

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14
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

Voluntary movement, expressive language and managing higher level executive functions

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15
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

Processing somatosensory information from the body; this includes touch, pain, temperature, and the sense of limb position

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16
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

Responsible for interpreting incoming visual information

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17
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

Processing auditory information and with the encoding of memory

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18
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

Coordination of movement and balance

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19
Q

What is a FOOSH?

A

Fall On an OutStretched Hand

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20
Q

List 3 examples of early signs of dementia

A
  1. Seemingly erratic or illogical behaviour patterns that weren’t there before
  2. Starting yet never finishing tasks, both on own merit and when asked to do so
  3. General forgetfulness, concerning both dates/times and verbal recall
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21
Q

What age-related factors can lead to increased risk of fractures after a fall?

A
  • The risk of fractures following a fall also increases with age as the bone structure becomes less robust
  • Osteoporosis
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22
Q

Fill in the blanks:

“… leads to wider synaptic gaps and more issues with synaptic transmission”

What aspect of function can this impact?

A

The loss or thinning of CNS Myelin and shrinkage of dendrites

Motor control - causes slower movements

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23
Q

Name one age related change in the CNS that affects vision

A

The reduction of viable optic nerve fibres leads to reduced efficiency in perceptual processing, especially when combined with age-related changes in the eyes such as changes in shape/opacity of lens and changes in retina

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24
Q

Name one age related change in the CNS that affects memory

A

Caused by loss of viable nerve fibres and loss/death of brain cells in relevant areas

Affects prospective and more generally STM the most

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25
Q

Name one age related change that affects hearing

A

Cell loss/death within inner ear leads to issues with hearing higher pitched noises and possible impairments in discrimination of speech produced sounds

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26
Q

List the six areas of cognitive function which are screened for during relevant assessments such as Dementia

A
  1. Arousal and orientation
  2. Attention, working memory, processing speed, and psychomotor function
  3. Executive function
  4. Language
  5. Visuospatial function
  6. Memory function
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27
Q

Define arousal and orientation.

How could you assess it in the context of cognitive testing?

A

Arousal is concerned with the way and rate in which we respond to stimulus. Orientation is concerned with the ability to identify oneself and to know the time, the place, and the person one is talking to.

A = We can generally assess this informally by passively observing the SU, as it's how they respond to you.
O = Asking SUs about their knowledge regarding current location, aspects of time, persons present, and situation .
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28
Q

Define attention, working memory, processing speed, and psychomotor function.

A

These are “interrelated concepts” which are represented “diffusely in the brain” and generally decline during normal ageing.

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29
Q

Define executive function.

How could you assess it in the context of cognitive testing?

A

Refers to activities which are typically the responsibilities of the frontal lobes/systems, such as planning, organisation, inhibition, shifting from one task to another, fluency, and abstract reasoning.

Informal assessment can include “observing for signs of inhibition”, such as frequent interruptions and/or inappropriate comments made during social interaction(s). More formally, EF can be assessed through tasks such as “alternating between stating the letters of the alphabet starting at A and ending at Z and counting numbers from 1 to 26” and recording their ability to do so.

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30
Q

Define language.

How could you assess it in the context of cognitive testing?

A

This includes language used, comprehension of language used by others and talking/verbal processes themselves.

Can be as simple as asking an SU a question and observing how they interpret the question and respond to it

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31
Q

Define visuospatial function.

A

Cognitive processes necessary to “identify, integrate, and analyse space and visual form, details, structure and spatial relations” in more than one dimension. needed for movement, depth and distance perception, and spatial navigation.

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32
Q

How could you assess visuospatial function in the context of cognitive testing?

A

Brief assessments of visuospatial abilities are included in all of the standardised mental status examination tools. a basic screen for visuospatial problems may include instructing the patient to copy predrawn shapes on a page, starting with simple shapes and progressing to more complex shapes, building shapes with triangles or blocks, and drawing a clock. Simple visual perception can be tested by asking the patient to count the number of irregularly spaced dots on a card without using any fingers to point or count.

More complex visual perception, attention, and integration can be tested by showing the patient a picture and asking him to describe what he sees.

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33
Q

Define memory function.

How could you assess it in the context of cognitive testing?

A

The capacity to store, retain, and recall information and experiences.

All cognitive screening tools provide objective assessment of memory and include tasks on which the patient is asked to learn and recall (or recognise), after a delay in which the patient is mentally engaged and not allowed to rehearse the presented materials, a verbally presented word list or story, or to redraw a previously copied figure.

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34
Q

Define frailty

A

A syndrome which means those who are defined as this, if some things were to happen to them, they would be less likely to fully recover

Based on Clinical Ax

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35
Q

What is multi-morbidity?

A

Having more than 2 chronic conditions

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36
Q

What changes occur to the cardiovascular system during ageing?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Thickening of heart walls
  • Generally, more stress is put on the heart
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37
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

Cluster of conditions that occur together, increasing your risk of heart disease, stroke and type 2 diabetes.

These conditions include increased blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol or triglyceride levels

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38
Q

Define dementia

A

Dementia is an umbrella term, a syndrome that describes the signs and symptoms of several diseases that are linked to the degeneration or death of brain cells.

Diagnostic guidelines define dementia as a decline in memory and thinking. This in turn impacts on activities of daily living and is progressive in nature. Dementia mainly affects older people although its onset can be under the age of 65 years

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39
Q

Define type 2 diabetes

A

The exact causes of type II diabetes are not known and probably vary for different individuals. Environmental factors, including obesity, inactivity, and diet appear to be factors in its development because its incidence is rapidly increasing. Age 40+ = higher risk

Defects in insulin secretion and insulin action (either of which may be the main feature) and liver glucose production result in the high blood glucose.

Over many years, diabetes causes a variety of effects on different parts of the body associated with damage to blood vessel walls.

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40
Q

Define Osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis is a health condition that weakens bones, making them fragile and more likely to break. It develops slowly over several years and is often only diagnosed when a fall or sudden impact causes a bone to break (fracture).

Losing bone is a normal part of ageing, but some people lose bone much faster than normal. This can lead to osteoporosis and an increased risk of broken bones.

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41
Q

Why does ageing cause musculoskeletal problems

A

Muscle fibres reduce in number and shrink in size.

Muscle tissue is replaced more slowly and lost muscle tissue is replaced with a tough, fibrous tissue.

Changes in the nervous system cause muscles to have reduced tone and ability to contract.

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42
Q

What does ICF stand for?

A

International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health

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43
Q

What are the 6 domains of the ICF?

A
  • Health condition(s)
  • Body structure and function
  • Activity
  • Participation
  • Personal factors
  • Environmental factors
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44
Q

What are the general functions of the nervous system?

A

sensory, integrative, and motor functions

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45
Q

Finish the sentence:

“Motor functions can be divided into 2 groups…”

A

Somatic and autonomic systems

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46
Q

What motor function is the somatic nervous system responsible for?

A

Voluntary (conscious) control; skeletal muscles

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47
Q

What motor function is the autonomic nervous system responsible for?

A

Involuntary control; cardiac & smooth muscle, and glands

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48
Q

What can a neuron be referred to in regards to NS function?

A

A structural block

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49
Q

List the 4 parts of a neuron

A
  • Axon
  • Dendrite
  • Synapse
  • Action potential
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50
Q

What is an axon?

A

The transmitting part of the neuron

A long, thin structure in which action potentials are generated

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51
Q

What is a dendrite?

A

The receiving part of the neuron (receives synaptic inputs)

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52
Q

What is a synapse?

A

Junction between axon and dendrite

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53
Q

What is the action potential?

A

Briefelectrical event generated in the axon causing the release of neurotransmitters

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54
Q

What is a myelin sheath?

A

An insulating layer, or sheath that forms around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord.

Allows electrical impulses to transmit quickly and efficiently along the nerve cells. If myelin is damaged, these impulses slow down.

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55
Q

Where do you find myelin sheaths?

A

On larger diameter axons

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56
Q

What is Neuroglia?

A

Cells that provide nutrients, insulation, and physical support for neurons

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57
Q

Name the 3 functional classifications of neurons

A
  • Motor (efferent)
  • Sensory (afferent)
  • Interneurons
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58
Q

What do these 4 acronyms stand for?

CNS
ANS
PNS
SNS

A
  • CNS = Central Nervous System
  • ANS = Autonomic Nervous System
  • PNS = Peripheral Nervous System
  • SNS = Somatic Nervous System
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59
Q

What are the characteristics of the CNS?

A
  • The Brain & spinal cord
  • Nerve axons are much shorter
  • Does not have this ability to regrow
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60
Q

What are the characteristics of the PNS?

A
  • Part of the nervous system that lies outside of the brain and spinal cord
  • 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves (sensory, motor and mixed cells)
  • Nerve axons can be up to 1 meter long
  • Ability to regenerate
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61
Q

What are the functions of the basal ganglia?

A

Control of voluntary motor movements, procedural learning, and decisions about which motor activities to carry out.

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62
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

Broad band of nerve fibres joining the hemispheres allowing them to communicate

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63
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

Almond-shaped nuclei deep within the temporal lobe, involved in decision-making, memory, and emotional responses; particularly negative emotions

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64
Q

What is the hippocampus?

A

Storage for LTM

65
Q

What is the spinal cord?

A
  • 31 pairs of spinal nerves
  • Each nerve emerges in two short branches (roots)
  • Motor or anterior root
  • Sensory or posterior root
66
Q

What 2 NS form the PNS?

A

Somatic and Autonomic

67
Q

Define Myotomes

A

Group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve

68
Q

Fill in the blank:

“Strokes are classified as a … disorder of the nervous system”

A

Vascular

69
Q

According to Bamford stroke classification, how many variations are there?

A

4

70
Q

What is The Bamford classification?

A

Divides people with stroke into four different categories, according to the symptoms and signs with which they present.

Useful for understanding the likely underlying pathology, which in turn gives information on treatments likely to be useful and the prognosis.

71
Q

Define hypertonia

A

The resistance encountered when the joint of a relaxed patient is moved passively - a state of muscle tension

72
Q

Define neuroplasticity

A

Capacity of the central nervous system to adapt to functional demands and therefore to the capacity to reorganise. Includes process of learning.

73
Q

Define muscle rigidity

A

Another type of hypertonia in which the muscles have the same amount of stiffness independent of the degree of movement. Involves both antagonists and agonists.

74
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

75
Q

What is COPD?

A

The umbrella term attributed to conditions which affect the lungs and cause breathing difficulties. Largely concerned with Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis and sometimes (though rarer) Asthma.

These issues with breathing are caused due to inflammation and obstruction of the airways due to inflammation, mucus build-up and other issues

76
Q

Is COPD progressive?

A

Typically does progress and cause further breathing issues as the inflammation and mucus build-up in the airways also becomes worse

77
Q

Explain the difference between external and internal respiration

A
  • External: Gas exchange between the lungs and blood

- Internal: Gas exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues

78
Q

Describe the process by which inhalation occurs and how it is controlled

A

When we inhale, intercostal muscles contract, expanding the rib cage. Further increasing the size of the rib cage, the diaphragm contracts and pulls downward. The effect of these muscle movements is that the thorax/chest cavity expands and the increase in volume lowers the air pressure inside. The lowered air pressure around the lungs causes outside air to be pulled into the lungs.

It is usually controlled subconsciously by the respiratory centre at the base/stem of the brain.

79
Q

Why is the epiglottis an important structure for the protection of the lower respiratory tract?

A

Location is beneath the tongue at the back of the throat.

Its main function is to close over the windpipe/trachea while you’re eating to prevent food (and other liquids) entering your airway.

80
Q

Explain the differences between passive exhalation and active exhalation.

A

Both processes are virtually the same however during active expiration/exhalation there is an increased amount of involvement from the internal intercostal muscles which contract and cause the ribcage inwards, forcefully removing air from the lungs.

81
Q

What is the role of the alveoli?

A

Tiny air pockets/sacs at the end of the respiratory bronchi which is where the gas exchange between inhaled air and red blood cells occur

82
Q

Define proning

A

Repositioning a patient to ‘prone’ lying position, on their front.

This is used on intensive care units as this position has been found to help ventilation.

Helps prevent fluid buildup within the body as it helps the removal of CO2 from the body.

Typically requires the assistance of 5 staff members.

83
Q

What is the average resting systemic blood pressure (BP) for an adult?

A

120/80

84
Q

What is meant by the term ‘peripheral resistance’?

A

The resistance of the arteries to blood flow

85
Q

Describe how the velocity of blood flow changes as the blood travels through the systemic circulation, from the aorta, back to the vena cava.

A
  • Blood pressure and velocity drops and then evens out as the blood enters the capillaries, which is when gas and nutrient exchange occurs. The pressure being higher at arterial end favours bulk flow OUT into the tissues.
  • Blood pressure continues to drop but velocity increases as blood enters the venous system. Favours bulk flow INTO the capillaries and the increased velocity counteracts lack of pressure.
86
Q

State if each of the following would result in an increase or a decrease in blood pressure:

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Dehydration
  • High sodium intake
A

Vasoconstriction: Decreases
Dehydration: Decreases
High sodium intake: Increases

87
Q

Blood returns via the venous system to the heart at very low pressure, and largely against gravity.

Describe 3 mechanisms that assist venous return.

A
  • Movement/‘pumping’ of skeletal muscles
  • One-way valves
  • Negative pressure gradient in the thoracic cavity
88
Q

How does hypertension affect blood flow through the capillaries?

A

Your blood travels through blood vessels with more force than is considered healthy.

When blood pressure is high, it can damage artery and blood vessel walls over time.

89
Q

Define hypertension

A

High blood pressure to the point that it could cause detrimental health problems.

90
Q

Name at least 3 risks to health that are posed by hypertension?

A
  • heart disease
  • heart attacks
  • strokes
  • heart failure
  • peripheral arterial disease
  • aortic aneurysms
  • kidney disease
  • vascular dementia
91
Q

What does NEWS stand for?

A

National Early Warning Score

92
Q

What vitals are measured to obtain a NEWS score?

A
  • Respiration rate
  • O2 saturation (scale based on ventilation or not)
  • Systolic blood pressure
  • Pulse Rate
  • Consciousness
  • Temperature
93
Q

Who should the NEWS not be used for?

A

Should not be used in children (i.e. aged <16 years) or in women who are pregnant, because the physiological response to acute illness can be modified in children and by pregnancy

94
Q

Where does gas exchange in the lungs occur?

A

Alveoli

95
Q

What is the progression of the trachea and bronchial tree?

A

Trachea > Primary bronchi (right and left) > Secondary bronchi > Tertiary bronchi > Bronchioles > Terminal bronchioles

96
Q

How many lung lobes are there?

A

The right lung consists of three lobes: the right upper lobe (RUL), the right middle lobe (RML), and the right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: the left upper lobe (LUL) and the left lower lobe (LLL).

97
Q

Why does the left lung only have 2 lobes?

A

The left lung has only two formal lobes because of the space taken up in the left side of the chest cavity by the heart

98
Q

What is a healthcare-associated infection (HCAI)?

A

Infections that occur in a healthcare setting (such as a hospital) that a patient didn’t have before they came in. Factors such as illness, age and treatment being received can all make patients more vulnerable to infection.

99
Q

What are important ways hospitals can break the chain of viral infection?

A

o Frequent hand washing and disinfection
o Use of PPE
o Frequent and through cleaning and disinfection
o Isolation and cohort nursing

100
Q

What are the 3 parts of the cardiac system?

A
  • Heart
  • Blood Vessels
  • Blood
101
Q

What are the main functions of the cardiac system?

A
  • To deliver oxygen, nutrients, chemical messengers, immunity agents to organs and tissues
  • To remove CO2, waste, toxins from tissues (occurs in blue capillaries)
  • To transport between sites of processing, storage and use
  • To regulate temperature
  • To balance body fluids
102
Q

Outline main differences between veins and arteries

A

Veins are closer to the surface of your body, and arteries are deep inside your muscles. The walls of a vein are thinner than an artery. Veins carry blood from your organs and towards your heart. Arteries carry blood away from your heart.

103
Q

What is the general structure of the heart?

A

Two ATRIA - left+ right. They are pump primers.
Two VENTRICLES - left + right. On the left, the walls are thicker

– Between atria & ventricles: Bicuspid and Tricuspid
– Ventricles to arteries: Aortic valve and Pulmonary valve

104
Q

What are the main functions of the respiratory system?

A
  • Supplies the body (including organs and muscles) with oxygen and helps the body rid of CO2
  • Filters, warms and humidifies air
  • Influences speech
  • Allows for sense of smell
105
Q

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta?

A

Left ventricle

106
Q

What is role of baroreceptors for homeostasis

A

Detects stretches in blood vessel stretching, indicating BP changes (helps regulate BP)

107
Q

What structures make up the upper respiratory tract

A

The nose or nostrils, nasal cavity, mouth, throat (pharynx), and voice box (larynx)

108
Q

What structures make up the lower respiratory tract

A

The trachea, the bronchi and bronchioles, and the alveoli, which make up the lungs

109
Q

What are the 6 ‘F words’ regarding childhood disability

A
  • Function
  • Family
  • Fitness
  • Fun
  • Friends
  • Future
110
Q

What is function (6 f words)

A

Refers to what people do - how things are done is not what is important

111
Q

What is family (6 f words)

A

Represents the essential ‘environment’ of all children and youth

112
Q

What is fitness (6 f words)

A

Refers to physical and mental wellbeing

113
Q

What is fun (6 f words)

A

Includes activities that people enjoy

114
Q

What is friends (6 f words)

A

Refers to the friendships established with others

115
Q

What is future (6 words)

A

Is what life is all about - goals, aspirations, realistic aspirations

116
Q

What is cerebral palsy (CP)?

A

A group of neurological disorders which impacts the development of movement and posture due to the result of atypical brain development as a foetus or during infancy.

Although it is non-progressive, its implications can be.

117
Q

What function(s) does CP affect?

A

These disorders although primarily concerned with movement and related function, can also have an impact of “sensation, cognition, communication, perception, and/or behaviour, and/or by a seizure disorder.

118
Q

5 types of CP

A

i. Unilateral (hemiplegia)
ii. Bilateral (diplegia)
iii. Bilateral (quadriplegia)
iv. Dyskinesia
v. Ataxia

119
Q

Differences between diplegia or quadriplegia CP?

A

Quadriplegia – all four limbs are affected, from quad meaning four and plegia meaning paralysis, or impaired ability to move.

Diplegia – two limbs are affected, from di meaning two

120
Q

What is ataxic CP?

A

Poor control of movement and motor planning, particularly sequencing affecting balance and gait

121
Q

What is dystonic CP?

A

Involuntary muscle contractions that cause slow repetitive movements or abnormal postures

122
Q

What is GMFCS?

A

Gross Motor Function Classification System

Describes the gross motor function of people with cerebral palsy on the basis of self-initiated movement abilities

123
Q

What is family centred practice?

A

Acknowledging that a child is part of a family unit (however that may take form) and considering their thoughts, feelings and experiences during the OT process.

It is a newer approach to practice involving younger Service Users.

124
Q

What is the AHA?

A

The Assisting Hand Assessment (AHA) is a test of hand function in children with difficulties using one of their hands.

The AHA measures how effectively the affected hand and arm is used in bimanual performance. An assessment is performed by observing the child’s spontaneous handling of toys in a relaxed and playful session.

125
Q

Who is the AHA suitable for?

A

Children. Specifically, those who are observed having difficulty using one hand – unilateral weakness.

126
Q

What are some assumptions of the developmental frame of reference?

A

a. Development is linear and typically/should happens at set rates of progression – ‘one size fits all’
b. Lack of consideration of environmental influences
c. Bottom-up approach

127
Q

What is the dynamic systems theory of development and how does this relate to a child’s culture?

A

Development is non-linear and individualised in nature.

There isn’t a certain way that development should happen, rather, ideally certain things should be achieved within certain age milestones.

Acknowledges that culture can also influence development.

128
Q

If a person has diplegic cerebral palsy which limbs are most affected?

A

ULs

129
Q

Outline broad stages of play

A
  1. Unoccupied (0-3 months)
  2. Solitary (0-2 years)
  3. Spectator/Onlooker behaviour (2 years)
  4. Parallel (2+ years)
  5. Associate (3-4 years)
  6. Cooperative (4+ years)
130
Q

When do babies typically begin crawling?

A

8-9 months

131
Q

When do babies typically begin walking?

A

Between 9-16 months

132
Q

When do toddlers typically graduate to heel-to-toe gait and can slowly climb stairs?

A

18 months

133
Q

When can toddlers typically walk backwards and run with ease?

A

2 years

134
Q

Regarding mobility, what should a toddler be able to do by 3 years-old?

A
  • Jump with both feet
  • Stand on one foot for seconds
  • Independently use stairs?
135
Q

When should a baby be able to sit unsupported?

A

9 months

136
Q

How does blood travel through the heart?

A

Oxygen-poor blood enters the heart through the Inferior Vena Cava or the Superior Vena Cava. It enters the right atrium and flows through the Tricuspid Valve into the right ventricle. The left ventricle pumps the blood through the aortic (semilunar) valve to the Aorta, where the oxygen-rich blood returns to the body.

137
Q

Define autism

A

A developmental disorder of variable severity that is characterised by difficulty in social interaction and communication and by restricted or repetitive patterns of thought and behaviour

138
Q

What 3 domains is the DSM-V concerned with regarding socialisation and ASD?

A
  • Social-emotional reciprocity
  • Nonverbal communicative behaviour
  • Developing, maintaining and understanding of relationships
139
Q

List at least 3 areas of atypical function in relation to ASD from a strictly medical perspective

A
  • Social deficits
  • Communication
  • Restricted interests + routines
  • Sensory sensitivities
  • Understanding and comprehension
140
Q

Define social-emotional reciprocity in relation to ASD

A

We often understand how socialising is a back-and-forth and how that can impact our emotions. Those with ASD may struggle to engage with this and such impacts.

141
Q

Define nonverbal communicative behaviour in relation to ASD

A

ASD may lead to problems with interpreting these behaviours and gestures and also not engage with them personally

142
Q

Define developing, maintaining and understanding of relationships
in relation to ASD

A

Due to deficits in S-E reciprocity and nonverbal communication, this may lead to listed issues with interpersonal relationships

143
Q

Finish the sentence:

“ASD severity can be determined by…”

A

ASD severity can be determined by…

…restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, activities

144
Q

Outside of intensity of restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, activities, what other factors can help determine severity of ASD

A
  • Age of symptom presentation
  • Not explained by intellectual disabilities
  • Extent of impairment in social, occupational functioning
145
Q

Differences between ASD diagnosis in ICD and DSM?

A

The ICD-11 provides detailed guidelines for distinguishing between autism with and without intellectual disability. The DSM-5, by contrast, simply acknowledges that autism and intellectual disability can co-occur

In ICD-10, the ‘spectrum’ is divided into three subtypes. DSM-5 has relinquished subtypes such as Asperger in favour of a single continuous spectrum, reflecting the variability of symptoms and how they are expressed.

146
Q

What is the neuroscientific approach to research on ASD?

A

Examines ways in which brain structures are different, causing differences and may lead to ASD

147
Q

What is the neurophysiological approach to research on ASD?

A

Not as concerned with brain structures itself but the mechanisms and interactions between the structures

148
Q

What is the genetic approach to research on ASD?

A

Ways in which our genetics can influence and lead to symptoms of ASD - to what extent does our biological make up cause it?

149
Q

How can the amygdala differ for those with ASD?

A

Smaller, linked to anxiety issues

150
Q

How can the cerebellum differ for those with ASD?

A

Decreased brain tissues in cerebellum, linked to issues in cognition and social interaction

151
Q

How can the cortex differ for those with ASD?

A

Different patterns of thickness

152
Q

How can the corpus callosum differ for those with ASD?

A

Underdeveloped, linked to difficulties in connectivity between two hemispheres of brain

153
Q

How can the amygdala differ for girls specifically with ASD?

A

Enlarged amygdala in girls with ASD, difficulties in emotion regulation

154
Q

How is intellectual disability also referred to in the UK?

A

Learning disability

155
Q

Fill in in the blank:

“ID is the most…”

A

Most common form of developmental disability

156
Q

True or false?

Most individual with intellectual disabilities have difficulty from birth

A

True - allows for early screening and intervention

157
Q

What is a generic definition for LD?

A

A reduced intellectual ability and difficulty with everyday activities which affects someone for their whole life.

People with a learning disability tend to take longer to learn and may need support to develop new skills,
understand complicated information and interact with other people.

158
Q

What are the 4 key causes of LD?

A
  • Prenatal
  • Perinatal
  • Postnatal
  • Genetic
159
Q

What are the 4 broader categories that represent adaptive skills?

A
  • Social skills
  • Language and communication
  • Living skills (ADL/IADL)
  • Community participation

MSc Occupational Therapy - Year 1 (8 decks)

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