Manifestations And Management of Disease In Neonatal Ruminants p302-338 Flashcards

1
Q

Septicemia is the third most common cause of calf mortality in the US. Behind what 2 other causes?

A

Diarrhea and respiratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The phagocytic and bacterial killing function of neutrophils (PMNs) is decreased in calves, compared to adults. List some reasons why.

A

Cortisol levels are increased for the first 10 days of life, depressing neutrophil function
Lymphokines produced by CD4+ cells, IL-2, IL-4 and IFN-gamma are essential to Ag-specific immunity. Cortisol levels also depress lymphocyte proliferation and IL-2 activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is the most common organism isolated from a calf blood culture.

A) Salmonella
B) Camplobacter
C) Klebsiella
D) E. coli

A

D) E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In regards to neonatal calf sepsis, the interaction between LPS and the immune system triggers and inflammatory cascade. Discuss some results of that cascade.

A

Production of arachidonic acid metabolites, release of myocardial depressant factors, activation of the complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most useful parameters for predicting septicemia in calves?

A

Presence of toxic neutrophils, FPT, focal infection or elevated serum creatinine concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The CSF is poorly defended against pathogens. Why is this?

A

Complement is not present in the CSF; there are a minimal amount of specific Abs, which leads to inadequate opsonization of meningeal pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Urinary reagent strips can be used to evaluate CSF, stall side. What should glucose levels be in the CSF?

A

Glucose levels should be trace or positive. If they are negative, this could suggest severe meningitis, or profound hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Calves with acidosis can have two different forms of lactate contributing to their metabolic derangement. What are these forms and where are the coming from?

A

D-lactate can come from bacterial fermentation of carbohydrates in the GI tract
L-lactate is endogenously produced, generally due to dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can hyponatremia lead to neurologic signs?

A

Hyponatermia leads to a fluid shift from the ECF to ICF, leading to cell swelling and eventually lysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the IV fluid treatment of hyponatremia differ between hypovolemic calves and normovolemic calves?

A

Hypovolemic calves need fluid resuscitation first with isotonic saline, to not exacerbate cerebral edema. Normovolemic calves can be treated with hypertonic saline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List 3 ways hypernatremia in calves can occur.

A
  1. Excessive loss of free water, due to dehydration, heat, sweating, water deprivation
  2. Iatrogenic administration of IV crystalloids without proper water consumption
  3. Excessive intake of sodium without proper water consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ruminal bloat is uncommon in calves less than 5 weeks of age. How can bronchopneumonia cause ruminal bloat?

A

Severe bronchopneumonia can cause swollen mediastinal lymph nodes, compressing the esophagus or compressing/inflammation of the vagus nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

There are 4 types of gastric ulcers in calves. Describe these types.

A

Type 1: Nonperforating ulcer - intraluminal hemorrhage is minimal, abomasal wall is not perforated

Type 2: Nonperforating with severe blood loss - a major blood vessel in the submucosa has been eroded

Type 3: Perforating ulcer with local peritonitis - peritonitis localized by fibrin deposition and and the abomasum becomes adhered to the peritoneum, the omentum or surrounding viscera

Type 4: Perforating ulcers with diffuse peritonitis - ulcer perforates and quickly spread throughout the rest of the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some treatments that can be used in calves for abomasal ulcers? Describe their MOA as well.

A

Antacids - Al(OH)3 or Mg(OH)2 bind bile acids protecting ulcerated areas from bile reflux
Al(OH)3 directly binds pepsin, thus decreasing proteolytic action of pepsin in the stomach

Histamine type 2 receptor antagonists - reduction of acid secretion of parietal cells by selective and competitive antagonism of histamine at H2 receptors on the parietal cells
Cimetidine and ranitidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some proposed causes of abomasal bloat in calves?

A

Addition of course roughage, abomasal bezoars, copper deficiency, various microorganisms i.e. C. perf type A has been isolated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some causes of delayed abomasal emptying in calves?

A

High osmolality milk replacers, feeding a large volume in a single daily feeding, poor mixing of milk replacers, offering cold milk, not offering water, erratic feeding schedules

17
Q

What is the treatment for abomasal bloat in calves?

A

Calf in dorsal recumbency, and trocarization.

18
Q

What is the most common location of intestinal atresia in calves?

A

Spiral loop of the ascending colon

19
Q

What are some proposed causes of colonic atresia in calves?

A

Palpation of the amniotic sac before 40 days of gestation, autosomal recessive inheritance in Holstein cattle

20
Q

Where is the most common location of intussusception in calves?

A) Duodenum
B) Jejunum
C) Ileum
D) Ileocecal junction

A

B) Jejunum

21
Q

Match the pathogenesis of diarrhea in calves with its corresponding pathogens.

Coronavirus, E. coli, Enteric viruses, Protozoa, R. equi, Rotavirus, Salmonella

A) Stimulation of the enteric nervous system
B) Compensatory hyperplasia of the crypt cells
C) Increased intestinal secretions due to stimulation of cyclic AMP or cyclic GMP, calm oculi or protein kinase activity
D) Destruction of absorptive villous epithelial cells

A

A) R. equi
B) Rotavirus, Coronavirus
C) Salmonella, E. coli
D) Protozoa, Enteric viruses

22
Q

Based on the MOA, and age of animal affected, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Observed in calves less than 3 d old
  • If concurrent infection with rotavirus, observed in calves 7-14 d old
  • Two virulence factors: fimbriae and enterotoxins (LT and STa, STb)

A) ETEC
B) AEEC
C) STEC
D) EPEC

A

A) Enterotoxigenic E. coli

23
Q

Based on the MOA, and age of animal affected, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Observed in 2 d-4 wk old calves
  • Cytotoxic damage to the intestinal mucosa by a Vero or HeLa toxin that induces a mucohemorrhagic colitis, with petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhages

A) ETEC
B) AEEC
C) STEC
D) EPEC

A

B) Attaching and effacing E. coli

24
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Induction of severe inflammation of the bowel mucosa leading to dysentery and passage of mucous and fibrin casts
  • Infects salivary glands and is shed in saliva and nasal secretions
  • Immunity changes rapidly during the first 3 months of life

A) E. coli
B) Salmonella
C) Clostridium
D) Camplyobacter

A

B) Salmonella, with typhimurium causing the most clinical disease

25
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Not a common pathogen causing neonatal calf diarrhea
  • Clinical disease due to management issues allowing proliferation of bacterial within the GI tract
  • Type A is associated with acute hemorrhagic abomasitis
  • Type B not commonly associated with neonatal diarrhea in calves

A) C. difficile
B) C. perf
C) Rotavirus
D) Salmonella

A

B) C. perf

Clostridium is a natural habitant of the calf GI tract
C. difficile has recently emerged as a pathogen in human and veterinary medicine, but the role as a primary pathogen has not been established

26
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Observed in calves 5 d - 2 weeks of age
  • Most common cause of neonatal diarrhea in calves
  • Targets villous enterocytes, leading to shedding of infected cells, and replacement with immature squamous and cuboidal cells from the crypts, thus villous blunting
  • Serogroup A most common in calves, serotype B is most common in lambs
  • Stable in fresh water; stable in feces for up to 9 months

A) BVDV
B) Coronavirus
C) Rotavirus
D) Torovirus

A

C) Rotovirus

27
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Observed in calves 5 days-1 month of age
  • Results in muco-hemorrhagic enterocolitis
  • Affects small and large intestine
  • Destruction of colonic ridges in spiral colon
  • Replication occurs in surface epithelium, along distal half of the villi = stunting and fusion of the villi and decreased absorption abilities
  • Often self-limiting use to crypt cells not being affected

A) BVDV
B) Coronavirus
C) Rotavirus
D) Torovirus

A

B) Coronavirus

28
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Causes diarrhea and thrombocytopenia
  • Calves also have oral ulcerations on the hard and soft palate

A) BVDV
B) Coronavirus
C) Rotavirus
D) Torovirus

A

A) BVDV

Ulcerations must be distinguished from papular stomatitis; BVDV ulcers do not have zones of epithelial proliferation as seen in papular stomatitis

29
Q

Based on the following, what cause of calf diarrhea is described?

  • Type 1 and Type 2 (zoonotic)
  • Infected 1-4 weeks of age, with clinical signs 4-14 days
  • Invasion of the superficial mucosa, but stays extraplasmocytic due to invagination of the host cell membrane
  • Epithelial destruction and mild-moderate villous atrophy with microvillous shortening and destruction
  • Increased mucosal prostaglandin secretion, leading to crypt secretion of chloride and bicarbonate

A) Salmonella
B) Clostridium
C) Giardiasis
D) Cryptosporidium

A

D) Cryptosporidium

Fecal-oral transmission of encysted sporulated oocyst

30
Q

What does bradycardia indicate in a diarrheic calf?

A

Hypothermia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia

31
Q

How can an isotonic solution of sodium bicarbonate be made?

A

13 grams of baking soda mixed with 1 L of water, provides 156 mmol/L of bicarb

32
Q

What is normal venous pH, bicarb and a base excess for calves?

A

pH 7.34
Bicarb 30 mmol/L
Base excess 5 mmol/L

33
Q

If a calf is acidotic and dehydrated, the base deficit can be corrected by administering what type of sodium bicarb?

A

Hypertonic 8.4% sodium bicarb at 10 ml/kg over 8 minutes

Must give isotonic fluids, orally, simultaneously

34
Q

What’s the best form of oral alkalinizing agent and why?

A) Acetate
B) Bicarb
C) Lactate
D) Citrate

A

A) Acetate - excellent alkalinizing ability, does not interfere with milk clotting in the abomasum

Bicarb binds to hydrogen ions directly, but reduces milk digestive lite and interferes with normal clotting of milk
Citrate binds calcium and interferes with normal clotting of milk in the abomasum

35
Q

What can be given to dams, prior to calving, to protect calves against ETEC?

A

6 and 3 weeks prior to calving, dams vaccinated with Abs against F5 (K99) Ag afford protection to calves against ETEC. HOWEVER, field trials have shown low efficacy, bc a single dose only has a short period of protection. Endemic farms should consider proper use of the vaccine