Male reproductive disorders Flashcards
androgen deprivation therapy (ADT):
surgical (orchiectomy) or medical castration (e.g., with luteinizing hormone–releasing hormone agonists)
benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH):
noncancerous enlargement or hypertrophy of the prostate; the most common pathologic condition in older men
brachytherapy:
delivery of internal radiation therapy to a localized area of tissue
circumcision:
excision of the foreskin, or prepuce, of the glans penis
cystostomy:
surgical creation of an opening into the urinary bladder
epididymitis:
infection of the epididymis that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea, chlamydia, or Escherichia coli
erectile dysfunction:
the inability to either achieve or maintain an erection sufficient to accomplish sexual intercourse; also called impotence
hydrocele:
a collection of fluid, generally in the tunica vaginalis of the testis, although it also may collect within the spermatic cord
orchiectomy:
surgical removal of one or both of the testes
orchitis:
acute inflammation of the testes (testicular congestion) caused by pyogenic, viral, spirochetal, parasitic, traumatic, chemical, or unknown factors
phimosis:
condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans; can occur congenitally or from inflammation and edema
priapism:
an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis from either neural or vascular causes, including medications, sickle cell thrombosis, leukemic cell infiltration, spinal cord tumors, and tumor invasion of the penis or its vessels
prostatectomy:
surgical removal of the entire prostate, the prostate urethra, and the attached seminal vesicles plus the ampulla of the vas deferens
prostate-specific antigen (PSA):
substance that is produced by the prostate gland; is used in combination with digital rectal examination to screen for prostate cancer
prostatitis:
inflammation of the prostate gland caused by infectious agents (bacteria, fungi, mycoplasma) or various other problems (e.g., urethral stricture, prostatic hyperplasia)
retrograde ejaculation:
during ejaculation, semen travels to the urinary bladder instead of exiting through the penis
spermatogenesis:
production of sperm in the testes
testosterone:
male sex hormone secreted by the testes; induces and preserves the male sex characteristics
transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP):
resection of the prostate through endoscopy; the surgical and optical instrument is introduced directly through the urethra to the prostate, and the gland is then removed in small chips with an electrical cutting loop
varicocele:
an abnormal dilation of the veins of the pampiniform venous plexus in the scrotum (the network of veins from the testis and the epididymis, which constitute part of the spermatic cord)
vasectomy:
ligation and transection of part of the vas deferens, with or without removal of a segment of the vas, to prevent the passage of the sperm from the testes; also called male sterilization
What are some of the causes of urinary incontinence in males?
medications, neurologic disease or benign prostatic hyperplasia, erectile dysfunction
At what age should men start receiving prostate exam, in patients without family history or ethinic influence?
Age 50 years, family history or african american males should start at age 45 years
What is the name of the blood test a male takes to determine prostate cancer?
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
What are some psychogenic causes of erectile dysfunction?
anxiety, fatigue, depression, pressure to perform sexually, negative body image, absence of desire, and privacy, as well as trust and relationship issues.
What are some organic causes of erectile dysfunction?
cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease (diabetes, pituitary tumors, testosterone deficiency, hyperthyroidism, and hypothyroidism), cirrhosis, chronic kidney injury, genitourinary conditions (radical pelvic surgery), hematologic conditions (Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia), neurologic disorders (neuropathies, parkinsonism, spinal cord injury [SCI], multiple sclerosis), trauma to the pelvic or genital area, alcohol, smoking, medications, and drug abuse.
What are three types of PDE-5 inhibitors? What are PDE-5 inhibitors used for?
sildenafil (Viagra), vardenafil (Levitra), and tadalafil (Cialis)
Erectile dysfunction.
What alpha-adrenergic blocker is used to promote bladder and prostate relaxation?
tamsulosin (Flomax)
What is the second most common cancer?
Prostate cancer
What is the most common type of surgical treatment for BPH?
TURP, Transurethral resection of the prostate. removal of the inner portion of the prostate through an endoscope inserted through the urethra; no external skin incision is made
How soon after prostatectomy will a patient ambulate?
The following day.
After testicular torsoin, how long does a male have before there is loss of the testicle?
6 hours
What is the most common type of tumor in testicular cancer?
Germinal tumors, 90%
What race is most at risk for testicular cancer?
Caucasian-American
What is cryptorchidism?
undescended testicles
Hypospadias
condition in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis, instead of at the tip
Epispadias -
rare type of malformation of the penis in which the urethra ends in an opening on the upper aspect (the dorsum) of the penis
Phimosis –
condition in which the foreskin cannot retract
Penile cancer
Bowen’s disease
Priapism –
persistent penile erection not related to sexual stimulation
Peyronie’s disease –
fibrous plaques, cause curvature of penis when erect, painful
Urethral stricture –
narrowing of the urethra, dilation
Circumcision –
surgical excision of the foreskin
Two tumor markers that may be elevated in testicular cancer are
human chorionic gonadotropin and alpha fetoprotein
