M2T3 OMM Final

Question 1

Tendonitis usually occurs 1-4 inches above the calcaneal insertion due to ________.

Answer 1

Decreased blood supply

Question 2

The tarsometatarsal joint is also known as the ________ joint.

Answer 2

Lisfranc

Question 3

The pencil in cup deformity seen on X-ray is associated with ________.

Answer 3

Psoriatic arthritis

Question 4

What are some ways to physically screen someone for scoliosis?

Answer 4

Static structural exam (levelness of structures)
Running hand down spinous processes
Adam’s forward bending test

Question 5

What are the three main ligaments of the lateral ankle? Which is most often torn?

Answer 5

Anterior talo-fibular, calcaneo-fibular, posterior talo-fibular

Anterior talo-fibular

Question 6

What are some main differences between Legg-Calve_Perthes disease and a slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

Answer 6

Age:

• LCP: young (4-8 y/o)
• SCFE: older (11-15 y/o)

Treatment:

• LCP: maintain ROM
• SCFE: surgery

Question 7

In sarcoidosis, ________ is reported in up to 70% of patients and is often precedes other manifestations of the disease.

Answer 7

Arthrlagia

Question 8

Scoliosis is officially named according to the direction of the ________ of the curve.

Answer 8

Convexity

Question 9

A severe eversion sprain can cause the ________ ligament to tear.

Answer 9

Deltoid

Question 10

How does multiple myeloma lead to carpel tunnel syndrome?

Answer 10

Amyloid deposition in the carpal tunnel leading to compression

Question 11

Which of the five cardinal symptoms is unique to the MSK system?

Answer 11

Stiffness

Question 12

During heel strike, the heel and ankle are responsible for ________ and ________.

Answer 12

Braking, adapting

Question 13

What does the SICK in SICK scapula syndrome stand for?

Answer 13

S: scapular malposition
I: inferior medial scapular wining (weak middle/lower trapezius)
C: coracoid tenderness (tight pectoralis minor)
K: scapular dysKinesis

Question 14

A benign growth of nerve tissue on the bottom of the foot is called ________ and most commonly occurs between the ________ and ________ metatarsals.

Answer 14

Morton’s neuroma, 3rd, 4th

Question 15

The Ottawa ankle rules state that an x-ray of the ankle is required if you find any of the following: pain in the ________ zone, pain in the ________ zone, tenderness on the posterior edge of the ________, tenderness at the ________, tenderness of the ________, and inability to bear weight immediately and in the ED.

Answer 15

Malleolar, mid-foot, lateral/medial malleolus, base of the 5th metatarsal, navicular

Question 16

Asymmetry in knee heights when an infant is supine and knees and hips are flexed with the feet on the table is known as ________ sign. The side with the lower knee height is the ________ side.

Answer 16

Galeazzi, affected

Question 17

Pronation of the ankle is made up of three motions: ________, ________, and ________

Answer 17

Dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction

Question 18

An asymmetrical occipital flattening of an infants head is known as ________ and is most commonly associated with ________.

Answer 18

Positional plagiocephaly, torticollis

Question 19

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease usually presents as insidious onset of a ________ with associated pain and pain that often localized to the ________ or ________.

Answer 19

Limp, knee, thigh

Question 20

Stress fractures of the foot are most common at the ________ and ________ metatarsals along the diaphysis.

Answer 20

2nd, 3rd

Question 21

Osteoarthritis of the AC joint will have a positive ________ test.

Answer 21

Crossed arm adduction

Question 22

Zone 3 of the 5th metatarsal is where ________ fractures occur.

Answer 22

Stress

Question 23

Dorsiflexion of the ankle causes the talus to move ________ and places the ankle in its most ________ (unstable/stable) position.

Answer 23

Posteriorly, stable

Question 24

The proximal 5th metatarsal is affected by fractures in three distinct zones. Zone 1 involves the ________, zone 2 involves the ________, and zone 3 involves the ________.

Answer 24

Proximal tubercle, metaphysis-diaphysis junction, proximal diaphysis

Question 25

How should a physical therapy prescription be written?

Answer 25

It should be specific. Identify the specific diagnosisIdentify how long/how often they should be doing physical therapy Identify what they should be doing at physical therapy

Question 26

OMT should focus on the ________, ________, ________, and ________ to treat torticollis and plagiocephaly.

Answer 26

SCM, cranial base, occipito-mastoid suture, temporal bones

Question 27

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and ankle arthritis are the main features of ________. It may also include ________.

Answer 27

Lofgren syndrome, erythema nodosum

Question 28

Zone 2 fractures of the 5th metatarsal are also called ________ and are due to ________.

Answer 28

Jone’s fractures, low vascular supply (similar to the scaphoid)

Question 29

Zone 1 of the 5th metatarsal is where ________ fractures occur.

Answer 29

Avulsion

Question 30

The Ortolani maneuver is used to ________ the hip and the Barlow maneuver is used to ________ the hip.

Answer 30

Relocate, dislocate

Question 31

A dropped arch involves the ________ and the ________.

Answer 31

Cuboid, navicular

Question 32

How may children with asthma present?

Answer 32

``` Diffuse expiratory wheeze Intermittent dyspnea Cough Use of accessory muscles (intercostals, trapezius, SCM, scalenes) Flaring of nostrils Tachycardia Tachypnea Posturing (tripod) Prolonged expiratory phase ``` (Sorry, this was a long one 🤦🏽‍♂️)

Question 33

The major disabling type of joint disease in SLE is ________. It is most often induced by ________.

Answer 33

Articular osteonecrosis, high dose corticosteroids

Question 34

Displacement of the femoral head in relation to the femoral neck through the growth plate is known as a ________.

Answer 34

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Question 35

Stress fractures are aggravated by ________, therefore a ________ may be used to help diagnose them.

Answer 35

Vibrations, tuning fork

Question 36

The foot and ankle are most stable during ________ of the gait cycle.

Answer 36

Mid stance

Question 37

Upon internal rotation of the tibia and fibula, the lateral malleolus moves ________, and therefore the fibular head moves ________.

Answer 37

Anteriorly, posteriorly

Question 38

Psoriatic arthritis can manifest itself as pitting in the ________.

Answer 38

Nails

Question 39

The most common extraintestinal manifestation of IBD is ________.

Answer 39

Oligoarticular arthritis

Question 40

Web space compression or the foot squeeze are used to diagnose ________.

Answer 40

Morton’s neuroma

Question 41

The phenomenon in which MS patients cannot tolerate heat is known as ________’s phenomenon.

Answer 41

Uhthoff

Question 42

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head is known as ________ disease.

Answer 42

Legg-Calve-Perthes

Question 43

A positive talar tilt test indicates at least a grade ________ sprain.

Answer 43

2

Question 44

The three arches of the foot are the ________, ________, and ________.

Answer 44

Medial longitudinal, lateral longitudinal, transverse

Question 45

The most unstable position for the ankle is in ________ and ________.

Answer 45

Supination, inversion

Question 46

Supination of the ankle is made up of three motions: ________, ________, and ________

Answer 46

Plantar flexion, inversion, adduction

Question 47

Why are children more likely to get otitis media than adults?

Answer 47

The pharyngotympanic tube (Eustachian tube) is shorter and more horizontal

Question 48

A positive squeeze test of the ankle helps diagnose a tear of the ________.

Answer 48

Syndesmosis (high ankle sprain)

Question 49

A T-score of 2.5 or lower indicates that you are likely to have ________.

Answer 49

Osteoporosis

Question 50

In what step does propulsion occur in the gait cycle?

Answer 50

Toe-off

Question 51

What are the five cardinal symptoms of MSK disease?

Answer 51

Pain, swelling, erythema, warmth, stiffness

Question 52

Otitis media occurs due to blockage of the pharyngotympanic tube and build up of fluid inside the middle ear creating a ________ pressure.

Answer 52

Negative

Question 53

Shoulder pain with impingement is thought to be due to repetitive contact of the ________ tendons within local anatomic structures.

Answer 53

Rotator cuff (most common supraspinatus)

Question 54

What are the degrees of mild, moderate, and severe scoliosis?

Answer 54

Mild: 5-15 degrees (observation) Moderate: 20-45 degrees (bracing) Severe: >50 degrees (surgery)

Question 55

The most common type of torticollis is ________ and is acquired prenatally.

Answer 55

Congenital muscular torticollis

Question 56

________ is often the imaging modality of choice for screening for scoliosis. You can measure the ________ angle from the images.

Answer 56

X-ray, Cobb,

Question 57

A young child (4 y/o) who presents with leg pain and a left shift should be worked up for ________ leading to ________.

Answer 57

Acute lymphocytic leukemia, avascular necrosis

Question 58

Osteoporosis, anemia, elevated ESR, and kidney disease all point towards the diagnosis of ________.

Answer 58

Multiple myeloma

Question 59

If a rib hump is present on a patient when they forward bend and it goes away with side-bending, rotation or further forward bending, it is called ________ scoliosis. If there is no reduction of the hump it is called ________ scoliosis.

Answer 59

Functional, structural

Question 60

A neonate with torticollis will present with a shortened ________ with ipsilateral ________ and contralateral ________.

Answer 60

Sternocleidomastoid, sidebending, rotation

Question 61

When is a slipped capital femoral epiphysis normally seen?

Answer 61

During periods of rapid growth in adolescence (11-15 y/o)

Question 62

What are the phases of rehab?

Answer 62

Phase I: decrease pain and swelling Phase II: restore ROM Phase III: strength training Phase IV: neuromuscular control/proprioceptive training Phase V: functional or sport specific training