M2T3 OMM Final Flashcards

1
Q

Tendonitis usually occurs 1-4 inches above the calcaneal insertion due to ________.

A

Decreased blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The tarsometatarsal joint is also known as the ________ joint.

A

Lisfranc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pencil in cup deformity seen on X-ray is associated with ________.

A

Psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some ways to physically screen someone for scoliosis?

A

Static structural exam (levelness of structures)
Running hand down spinous processes
Adam’s forward bending test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three main ligaments of the lateral ankle? Which is most often torn?

A

Anterior talo-fibular, calcaneo-fibular, posterior talo-fibular

Anterior talo-fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some main differences between Legg-Calve_Perthes disease and a slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

Age:

  • LCP: young (4-8 y/o)
  • SCFE: older (11-15 y/o)

Treatment:

  • LCP: maintain ROM
  • SCFE: surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In sarcoidosis, ________ is reported in up to 70% of patients and is often precedes other manifestations of the disease.

A

Arthrlagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Scoliosis is officially named according to the direction of the ________ of the curve.

A

Convexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A severe eversion sprain can cause the ________ ligament to tear.

A

Deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does multiple myeloma lead to carpel tunnel syndrome?

A

Amyloid deposition in the carpal tunnel leading to compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the five cardinal symptoms is unique to the MSK system?

A

Stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During heel strike, the heel and ankle are responsible for ________ and ________.

A

Braking, adapting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the SICK in SICK scapula syndrome stand for?

A

S: scapular malposition
I: inferior medial scapular wining (weak middle/lower trapezius)
C: coracoid tenderness (tight pectoralis minor)
K: scapular dysKinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A benign growth of nerve tissue on the bottom of the foot is called ________ and most commonly occurs between the ________ and ________ metatarsals.

A

Morton’s neuroma, 3rd, 4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Ottawa ankle rules state that an x-ray of the ankle is required if you find any of the following: pain in the ________ zone, pain in the ________ zone, tenderness on the posterior edge of the ________, tenderness at the ________, tenderness of the ________, and inability to bear weight immediately and in the ED.

A

Malleolar, mid-foot, lateral/medial malleolus, base of the 5th metatarsal, navicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Asymmetry in knee heights when an infant is supine and knees and hips are flexed with the feet on the table is known as ________ sign. The side with the lower knee height is the ________ side.

A

Galeazzi, affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pronation of the ankle is made up of three motions: ________, ________, and ________

A

Dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An asymmetrical occipital flattening of an infants head is known as ________ and is most commonly associated with ________.

A

Positional plagiocephaly, torticollis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease usually presents as insidious onset of a ________ with associated pain and pain that often localized to the ________ or ________.

A

Limp, knee, thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stress fractures of the foot are most common at the ________ and ________ metatarsals along the diaphysis.

A

2nd, 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Osteoarthritis of the AC joint will have a positive ________ test.

A

Crossed arm adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Zone 3 of the 5th metatarsal is where ________ fractures occur.

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dorsiflexion of the ankle causes the talus to move ________ and places the ankle in its most ________ (unstable/stable) position.

A

Posteriorly, stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The proximal 5th metatarsal is affected by fractures in three distinct zones. Zone 1 involves the ________, zone 2 involves the ________, and zone 3 involves the ________.

A

Proximal tubercle, metaphysis-diaphysis junction, proximal diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How should a physical therapy prescription be written?

A

It should be specific.
Identify the specific diagnosisIdentify how long/how often they should be doing physical therapy
Identify what they should be doing at physical therapy

26
Q

OMT should focus on the ________, ________, ________, and ________ to treat torticollis and plagiocephaly.

A

SCM, cranial base, occipito-mastoid suture, temporal bones

27
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and ankle arthritis are the main features of ________. It may also include ________.

A

Lofgren syndrome, erythema nodosum

28
Q

Zone 2 fractures of the 5th metatarsal are also called ________ and are due to ________.

A

Jone’s fractures, low vascular supply (similar to the scaphoid)

29
Q

Zone 1 of the 5th metatarsal is where ________ fractures occur.

A

Avulsion

30
Q

The Ortolani maneuver is used to ________ the hip and the Barlow maneuver is used to ________ the hip.

A

Relocate, dislocate

31
Q

A dropped arch involves the ________ and the ________.

A

Cuboid, navicular

32
Q

How may children with asthma present?

A
Diffuse expiratory wheeze
Intermittent dyspnea
Cough 
Use of accessory muscles (intercostals, trapezius, SCM, scalenes)
Flaring of nostrils
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Posturing (tripod)
Prolonged expiratory phase 

(Sorry, this was a long one 🤦🏽‍♂️)

33
Q

The major disabling type of joint disease in SLE is ________. It is most often induced by ________.

A

Articular osteonecrosis, high dose corticosteroids

34
Q

Displacement of the femoral head in relation to the femoral neck through the growth plate is known as a ________.

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

35
Q

Stress fractures are aggravated by ________, therefore a ________ may be used to help diagnose them.

A

Vibrations, tuning fork

36
Q

The foot and ankle are most stable during ________ of the gait cycle.

A

Mid stance

37
Q

Upon internal rotation of the tibia and fibula, the lateral malleolus moves ________, and therefore the fibular head moves ________.

A

Anteriorly, posteriorly

38
Q

Psoriatic arthritis can manifest itself as pitting in the ________.

A

Nails

39
Q

The most common extraintestinal manifestation of IBD is ________.

A

Oligoarticular arthritis

40
Q

Web space compression or the foot squeeze are used to diagnose ________.

A

Morton’s neuroma

41
Q

The phenomenon in which MS patients cannot tolerate heat is known as ________’s phenomenon.

A

Uhthoff

42
Q

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head is known as ________ disease.

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes

43
Q

A positive talar tilt test indicates at least a grade ________ sprain.

A

2

44
Q

The three arches of the foot are the ________, ________, and ________.

A

Medial longitudinal, lateral longitudinal, transverse

45
Q

The most unstable position for the ankle is in ________ and ________.

A

Supination, inversion

46
Q

Supination of the ankle is made up of three motions: ________, ________, and ________

A

Plantar flexion, inversion, adduction

47
Q

Why are children more likely to get otitis media than adults?

A

The pharyngotympanic tube (Eustachian tube) is shorter and more horizontal

48
Q

A positive squeeze test of the ankle helps diagnose a tear of the ________.

A

Syndesmosis (high ankle sprain)

49
Q

A T-score of 2.5 or lower indicates that you are likely to have ________.

A

Osteoporosis

50
Q

In what step does propulsion occur in the gait cycle?

A

Toe-off

51
Q

What are the five cardinal symptoms of MSK disease?

A

Pain, swelling, erythema, warmth, stiffness

52
Q

Otitis media occurs due to blockage of the pharyngotympanic tube and build up of fluid inside the middle ear creating a ________ pressure.

A

Negative

53
Q

Shoulder pain with impingement is thought to be due to repetitive contact of the ________ tendons within local anatomic structures.

A

Rotator cuff (most common supraspinatus)

54
Q

What are the degrees of mild, moderate, and severe scoliosis?

A

Mild: 5-15 degrees (observation)
Moderate: 20-45 degrees (bracing)
Severe: >50 degrees (surgery)

55
Q

The most common type of torticollis is ________ and is acquired prenatally.

A

Congenital muscular torticollis

56
Q

________ is often the imaging modality of choice for screening for scoliosis. You can measure the ________ angle from the images.

A

X-ray, Cobb,

57
Q

A young child (4 y/o) who presents with leg pain and a left shift should be worked up for ________ leading to ________.

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia, avascular necrosis

58
Q

Osteoporosis, anemia, elevated ESR, and kidney disease all point towards the diagnosis of ________.

A

Multiple myeloma

59
Q

If a rib hump is present on a patient when they forward bend and it goes away with side-bending, rotation or further forward bending, it is called ________ scoliosis. If there is no reduction of the hump it is called ________ scoliosis.

A

Functional, structural

60
Q

A neonate with torticollis will present with a shortened ________ with ipsilateral ________ and contralateral ________.

A

Sternocleidomastoid, sidebending, rotation

61
Q

When is a slipped capital femoral epiphysis normally seen?

A

During periods of rapid growth in adolescence (11-15 y/o)

62
Q

What are the phases of rehab?

A

Phase I: decrease pain and swelling
Phase II: restore ROM
Phase III: strength training
Phase IV: neuromuscular control/proprioceptive training
Phase V: functional or sport specific training