M1T1 OMM Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Before engaging in palpation, what should you ask/tell the patient?

A

Ask for permission to palpate. After receiving permission, inform the patient what you are going to do

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2
Q

What are characteristics of deep fascia?

A

Partitions muscles into groups
Densely packed (thin and strong)
Most extensive
External investing and deep investing layers

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3
Q

What vertebral level does the umbilicus approximate?

A

T10

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4
Q

What vertebral level does the sternal angle approximate?

A

T4

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5
Q

Fascia is composed of ________ and ________ fibers and a ground substance composed of ________ and ________.

A

Collagen, elastin, thin gel, mineral salts (in bone)

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6
Q

________ occurs when there is an increased frequency of action potentials (which can lead to tetany or maximal sustained contraction).

A

Frequency summation

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7
Q

80% of healthy individuals have an alternating Zink fascial pattern. What is this pattern starting from the head?

A

OA: ease leftCT: ease rightTL: ease leftLS: ease right

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8
Q

Which model was J. Gordon Zink a champion of?

A

Respiratory-circulatory model

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9
Q

A ________ is a functional limit within the anatomical range that diminishes the normal physiological range.

A

Restrictive barrier

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10
Q

What are the characteristics of an acute somatic dysfunction?

A

Pain: acute, severe, sharp
Vasculature: vasodilation and inflammation
Skin: warm, moist, red/inflamed
Tissues: edema, boggy
Musculature: increase in local tone (hypertonic) leading to contraction, spasm, or poor quality of motion
Viscera: minimal somatovisceral effects

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11
Q

What is the definition of touch?

A

Physical contact involved in palpation

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12
Q

What are the spaces between muscle fibers filled with and what does it contain?

A

Sarcoplasm. K, Mg, PO4, enzymes, lots of mitochondria, sarcoplasmic reticulum

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13
Q

Define elasticity and plasticity.

A

Elasticity: ability to resume original shape after deformationPlasticity: ability to retain shape after deformation

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14
Q

What happens when a muscle is at rest?

A

The muscle receives impulses from the spinal cord so a certain amount of tautness remains in the muscle at all times

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15
Q

How far do muscle fibers span and how many neurons innervate one fiber?

A

The entire length of the muscle and only 1 neuron per fiber

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16
Q

Small motor units are recruited initially followed by larger motor units (if necessary) is a process known as ________.

A

Multiple fiber summation

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17
Q

What adds new sarcomeres to the ends of muscles?

A

Stretching

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18
Q

What is the term for “bow-legged”?

A

Genu varus

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19
Q

Myofascial release, myofascial unwinding, and ligamentous articular strain are all ________ techniques.

A

Indirect

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20
Q

If loss of signal from neurons causes atrophy in muscle, what will eventually happen over time if there is no recovery?

A

Replacement by fibrous and fatty tissue which contracts over time

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21
Q

A force generated by skeletal muscle that is spread throughout the connective tissue (fascia) is called a ________.

A

Epimuscular pathway

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22
Q

Unused muscle is degraded or muscle protein degraded faster than it is replaced are two ways that ________ can occur.

A

Muscular atrophy

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23
Q

When can you treat a somatic dysfunction?

A

Indication for OMMIndependent of other diagnosesDocumentableTrack improvement over timeBillable

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24
Q

Soft-tissue and myofascial release are both ________ techniques.

A

Direct

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25
The capability of a solid to continually yield under stress with a measurable rate of deformation is known as ________ (as a property of fascia).
Viscosity
26
What are characteristics of superficial fascia?
Attached to skin Dense at the scalp, back of neck, and palms of hands and feet Loose everywhere else Holds the vast majority of interstitial fluid
27
What is a cybernetic loop?
An unconscious reaction by the patient followed by a similar unconscious reaction by the physician
28
An ________ is the limit of passive motion (bony endpoint).
Anatomical barrier
29
A ________ is the limit of active motion and is ________ of being altered.
Physiological barrier, capable
30
Where was fascia first officially defined?
First International Fascia Research Congress
31
Lots of mitochondria, smaller, smaller nerves, extensive blood supply, and large supplies of myoglobin (red) are all characteristics of ________ type muscle fibers.
Slow
32
What is the term for "pigeon breast"?
Pectus carinatum
33
What is a spinal dysraphism?
An incomplete fusion or malformation of bone and neural structures of the spine region
34
Continued deformation of a visco-elastic material under constant load over time is also known as ________.
Creep
35
Fewer mitochondria, larger, extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum, minimal blood supply, less myoglobin (white), and glycolytic enzymes present are all characteristics of ________ type muscle fibers.
Fast
36
Detection of a mechanical problem, locating a problem, and measuring improvement are all reasons for why we perform ________. It is the most objective assessment tool for categorizing somatic dysfunction.
Motion testing
37
How much energy from nutrients gets used to make ATP and how much of nutrients can be converted to Work, under optimal conditions?
50% and 25%
38
A ________ is all muscle fibers that are innervated by a single neuron.
Motor unit
39
How can hypertrophy be described in muscle?
Existing muscle fibers gain more actin and myosin. New muscle fibers are not created
40
When is phosphocreatine used and for how long?
At the beginning of contraction (maximal) for approximately 5-8 seconds
41
What are I bands and how do they appear under a light microscope?
Regions composed entirely of actin and appear white
42
Why was touch "lost" in patient-physician interactions during the dark ages?
Physicians avoided touching patients due to the plague
43
What is the "ideal structure" of the human body?
Symmetry in all three planes
44
The normal thoracic spine ROM degrees are ________ (T1-T4), ________ (T5-T8), and ________ (T9-T12) for lateral flexion and ________ (T9-T12) for rotation.
5-25, 10-30, 20-40, 30-45
45
What does troponin inhibit and what prevents troponin from doing so?
Cross-bridging and Ca++ (troponin has a high affinity for Ca++)
46
What are the two types of contractions and their respective subdivisions?
Isometric: contraction where muscle does not change length Isotonic: - eccentric: contraction where muscle gets longer - concentric: contraction where muscle gets shorter
47
Name the different types of mechanoreceptors.
Pacinian corpuscles, Meissner's corpuscles, Ruffini corpuscles, Merkel's discs
48
How much of the ECM is water?
90%
49
For multistage exams for somatic dysfunction, what should you do and in what order?
Screening - general impression (whole body)Scanning - scan regions identified by screening (ex. thoracic region)Local examination - specific tissue characteristics
50
Stress applied to a body is proportional to the strain produced as long as the limit of elasticity is not exceeded. This is known as ________ law.
Hooke’s
51
Which vertebral level does the spine of the scapula approximate?
T3 (spinous process and transverse process)
52
Where are the transition zones?
OccipitoatlantalCervicothoracicThoracolumbarLumbosacral
53
What metabolic pathway supplies 95% of sustained contraction?
Oxidative phosphorylation
54
________ can be defined as all the collagenous-based soft-tissues in the body, including the cells that create and maintain that network of extra-cellular matrix.
Fascia
55
When do "cross-overs" occur? Where does this typically occur?
Whenever the postural line crosses the gravitational line. At transition zones
56
The perceived quality of motion as an anatomical/physiologic restrictive barrier is approached is known as ________.
End-feel
57
What is the smallest size the fingers are able to discriminate?
1-2mm
58
________ involves the way a system is held together by its connecting elements to create/maintain balance between stability and strength.
Tensegrity
59
Somatic dysfunction is named for it’s ________.
Ease
60
There are ________ contraindications to myofascial release techniques.
No
61
When do we stop making elastin?
Around 12-13
62
How was fascia described in the past?
Something that separated one organ from another, something that was dissected through, or something that was discarded,
63
What is the term for "knock-kneed"?
Genu valgus
64
What is hyperextension of the knee called?
Genu recurvatum
65
What are the objective diagnostic findings of somatic dysfunction?
TART:Tissue texture changeAsymmetryRestricted Range of MotionTenderness
66
What are the causes of Cushing's Disease/Syndrome? What are some signs and symptoms?
Excessive amounts of cortisol for a long period of time (either due to corticosteroid medication or endogenous overproduction)Hypertension, diabetes, osteoporosis, moon face, buffalo hump, depression, mood swings
67
________ motor muscles have motor units consisting of a few muscle fibers whereas ________ motor muscles have motor units consisting of many muscle fibers.
Fine, gross
68
How is fascia related to each of the models of osteopathic care?
Structural: plays a role in Dx and TxRespiratory-Circulatory: may act as a barrier to circulation, respiration pulls all fascia Neurologic: reflects physiological stateBehavioral: myofascial reflection of inner emotion Metabolic: directs forces, metabolic activity takes place in fascia
69
Define somatic dysfunction.
Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system: skeletal, arthrodial, and myofascial structures, and related vascular, lymphatic, and neural elements
70
A ________ is a form of a restrictive barrier in which permanent restriction of joint motion is associated with a pathological change in tissues.
Pathological barrier
71
Medial and lateral winging of the scapula are caused by damage to what muscles/nerves?
Medial winging: serratus anterior - long thoracic nerveLateral winging: rhomboids and trapezius - dorsal scapular and spinal accessory nerves
72
What links Z disks with myosin filaments?
Titin
73
What is believed to attach tropomyosin to actin?
Troponin
74
What vertebral level does the iliac crest approximate?
L4 (spinous process) - malesL5 (spinous process) - females
75
What vertebral level does the nipple line approximate?
T4
76
What is the definition of palpation?
Diagnostic and therapeutic "touch" as combined with OMT
77
What are A bands and how do they appear under a light microscope?
Composed of myosin filaments, either alone or overlapping with I bands. They appear dark
78
What are Z disks and what is the region between 2 Z disks called?
The anchoring site of actin. Sarcomere
79
In relation to the interconnectedness of fascia, what happens when your inhale/exhale?
Inhale: spinal curves straighten, extremities externally rotateExhale: spinal curves are exaggerated, extremities internally rotate
80
________ is a sense of resistance to light traction applied to the skin.
Skin drag
81
Where do mechanoreceptors orient themselves?
Along fascial architecture
82
How does each head of myosin act when "walking" across the actin?
Independently
83
What vertebral level does the inferior angle of the scapula approximate?
T7 (spinous process), T8 (transverse process)
84
What are the 3 types of motion used in OMM?
Active, passive, inherent Sub-classification of active/passive: regional, intersegmental
85
What are the five fascial functions?
PackagingPassagewaysProtectionPowerProprioception/Nociception
86
What is special about the hip drop test?
It is a passive test that utilizes active motion
87
What does fascia need to function properly?
Water
88
What is the term for foot pronation?
Pes planus
89
What does inelastic fascia assist with and where is it found?
Increased pressure within a compartment to aid in blood and lymph circulation. Anterior compartment of the crus
90
What are the characteristics of a chronic somatic dysfunction?
Pain: dull, achy, itching, crawling, gnawing, burning Vasculature: vasoconstriction due to hypersympathetic tone Skin: cool, pale due to chronic increase sympathetic vascular tone Tissues: chronic congestion, stringy, ropy, fibrotic, contracture, thickened Musculature: hypotonic, mushy, limited range of motion due to contracture Viscera: somatovisceral effects common
91
What is the term for "funnel chest"?
Pectus excavatum
92
The normal cervical spine ROM degrees are ________ for flexion/extension, ________ for lateral flexion, and ________ for rotation.
45-90, 30-45, 70-90
93
What is the term for foot supination?
Pes cavus
94
With active and passive motion testing, in what order should you test the patient?
Active and then passive
95
How many myofibrils is each muscle fiber composed of?
Hundreds to thousands (approximately 1500 myosin filaments and 3000 actin filaments)
96
A relative palpable freedom of motion of an articulation or tissue is known as ________.
Ease
97
What does TART stand for?
Tissue texture changes, asymmetry, restricted range of motion, tenderness
98
What are the three classes of molecules contained within the ECM?
Structural proteins (collagen and elastins)ProteoglycansAdhesive glycoproteins (fibronectins and laminins)
99
In what order should you proceed with an examination regarding OMT?
Static structural examRegional range of motionLayer-by-layer palpationInter-segmental motion testing
100
What are the four types of mechanoreceptors?
Meissner's corpuscle, Pacinian corpuscle, Ruffini corpuscle, Merkel disks
101
The normal lumbar spine ROM degrees are _________ for flexion, ________ for extension, and ________ for lateral flexion.
70-90, 30-45, 20-35
102
A ________ is a normal physiological mechanism via an action potential and Ca++ release, whereas a ________ is tightening due to collagenous bands laid down by fibroblasts.
Contraction, contracture
103
The range between the physiological barrier and anatomical barrier is known as an ________. This is where ________ occurs before tissue disruption.
Elastic barrier, passive ligamentous stretching
104
What order should be followed for layer-by-layer palpation?
``` Observation Temperature Skin (scarcely touching) Fascia (no blanching of fingernails) Muscle (some blanching) Bone, tendon, ligament (complete blanching) Erythema friction rub ```
105
What anaerobic method of ATP production can be used to supply muscle? How long does it last?
Glycolysis. Approximately 1 min
106
What is required for Ca++ to be pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
ATP