LRTI Flashcards

1
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms

Nasopharynx (5)

A
  • nasal hair
  • anatomy of upper airways
  • IgA secretion
  • mucociliary apparatus
  • fibronectin
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2
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms

Trachea/Bronchi (5)

A
  • cough
  • epiglottic reflex
  • anatomy of conducting airways
  • mucociliary apparatus
  • immunoglobulin
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3
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms

Oropharynx (3)

A
  • saliva
  • slough epithelial cells
  • complement production
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4
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms

Alveoli/Terminal Airways (4)

A
  • alveolar lining fluid
  • cytokines
  • macrophages + PMNs
  • cell-mediated immunity
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5
Q

What happens when the body doesn’t do its job?

Host interventions
- ___ and ___
- altered level of consciousness
- endotracheal tubes

Host Disease States
- immunosuppression
- ___
- asplenia
- ___

A
  • smoking, alcohol
  • dibetes mellitus
  • elderly
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6
Q

What happens when the body doesn’t do its job?

Pathogen Mediated
- surface ___
- pili
- ___
- enzymes

Defenses Gone Wrong
- alveolar macrophages
- phagocytosis + cytokine release → recruit neutrophils → acidic and hypoxic environment → ___ phagocytosis

A
  • adhesions
  • exotoxins
  • reduced
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7
Q

CAP - pneumonia that developed outside the hospital or within the first ___ hours of admission
- most ___ cause of infection related to hospitalization and mortality
- 10% hospitalized

A

48
common

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8
Q

Pathogenesis - Aspiration

  • most common for ___ pnemonia
  • common during ___
  • organisms usually clearned if host defenses functioning properly
  • disorders that impair consciousness and depress gag reflex result in increased inoculum
A
  • bacterial
  • sleep
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9
Q

Pathogenesis - Aerosolization

  • direct ___ of pathogen
  • primaryily ___ , TB, and endemic fungi
  • ___ nuclei = particles containing pathogen
A
  • inhalation
  • viruses
  • droplet
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10
Q

Pathogenesis - Bloodborne

  • translocate to ___ site
  • extremely unlikely
A
  • pulmonary
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11
Q

Which microorganism class is the most common pathogenic organism for CAP?
a) fungus
b) bacteria
c) virus
d) protozoa

A

virus

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12
Q

Common Bacterial Pathogens

  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae
  • atypical pathogens: ___ , ___ , and ___
  • S. aureus
A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Legionella pneumophilia
  • Chlamydia Pneumoniae
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13
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

increased prevalence and severity in pts with the following:
- asplenia
- DM
- immunocompromised
- HIV
- chronic cardiopulmonary/renal disease

Risk factors for drug resistance
- age < __ or > ___ yo
- prior Abx therapy
- co-morbid conditions
- day care
- recent hospitalization
- close quarters

PCN and Macrolide use
- ___ resistance - 3%
- ___ resistance - 45-50%

A
  • 6, 65
  • PCN
  • macrolide
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14
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

  • ___ pneumonia
  • ___ bacteria
  • spread by person-person contact (increased risk in close contact populations)
  • 2-3 week incubation period, ___ onset of symptoms
  • persistent, non-productive coughm fever, headache, sore throat, rhinorrhea, N/V, arthralgia
  • imaging usually more pronounced with patchy, interstitial infiltrates
A
  • walking
  • atypical
  • slow
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15
Q

Legionella pneumophila

  • ___ pathogen - found in water and soil
  • spread by ___
  • increased risk: older ___ , chronic bronchitis, smokers, and immunocompromised
  • characteristics: multisystem involvement (high ___ , relative ___ , multi-lobar involvement, mental status change, and increased LFTs + SCr)
A
  • atypical
  • aerosolization
  • males
  • fevers, bradycardia,
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16
Q

S. aureus

___ prevalence in CAP

important to get ___ ___ ___
- 95-99% negative predictive value for MRSA in CAP

Risk factors for MRSA
- 2-14 days post ___
- previous MRSA infection/isolation
- previous hospitalization
- previous use of ___ antibiotics

A
  • low
  • MRSA nasal PCR
  • flu
  • IV
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17
Q

Risk Factors for Certain Pathogens

S. pneumoniae, anaerobes, K. pnemoniae

A

Alcoholism

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18
Q

Risk Factors for Certain Pathogens

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella cattarhalis, Legionella spp.

A

COPD/smoker

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19
Q

Risk Factors for Certain Pathogens

S. pneumonia, S. aureus, H. influenzae

A

post influenza pneumonia

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20
Q

Risk Factors for Certain Pathogens

P. aeruginosa, S. aureus
(2)

A
  • structural lung disease (cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis)
  • recent Abx exposure
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21
Q

Clinical Presentation

  • sudden onset of fever, chills, pleurtitic chest pain, dyspnea, productive cough
  • ___ onset with ___ severity for mycoplasma and Clamydia pneumoniae

Elderly Pts
- classic symptoms may be ___ (afebrile, mild leukocytosis)
- more likely to have decrease in ___ status, weakness, and ___ status changes

Vitals: febrile, ___ cardia, ___ tensive, tachypnea

A
  • gradual, lower
  • absent
  • functional, mental
  • tachycardia, hypotensiver
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22
Q

Clinical Presentation

Chest X-ray
- recommended for all patients with suspicion for CAP
- dense lobar consolidation/infiltrates = ___ origin
- patchy, diffuse intersitital infiltrates = ___ or ____ pathogens

Sputum Characteristics
- color, amount, consistency, and odor observed

Gram stain
- only evaluate samples with > ___ PMNs and < ___ epithelial cells
- S. pneumoniae - gram ___ diplococci
- H. influenzae = gram ___ coccobacilli

A
  • bacterial
  • atypical, viral
  • 25, 10
  • positive
  • negative
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23
Q

Microbio Testing and Other Markers

Respiratory Culture
- ___ , can be done with more severe pts (false negatives)
- tracheal aspiration
- bronchoscopy
- bronchoalveolar lavage

Blood Culture
- get __ sets

___ with differential
___, BUN, electrolytes, LFTs
Pulse Ox, O2 sat

Uriniary antigen tests
- ___
- ___ - serogroup 1

Nasopharyngeal PCR Swabs
- ___
- Viral

A
  • controversial
  • 2
  • WBC
  • SCr
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • MRSA
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24
Q

T or F: only use cultures (respiratory and blood) if patient is severe

A

T

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25
Q

Severe CAP - Major Criteria (Need 1)

1) Septic shock requiring ___
2) Respiratory failure requiring ___

A
  • vasopressors
  • mechanical ventilation
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26
Q

Severe CAP - Minor Criteria (Need ≥ 3)

  • RR of ___ bpm or more
  • PaO2/FlO2 ≤ 250 (outpatient)
  • ___ inflitrates
  • ___ /disorientation
  • uremia (BUN ≥ ___ mg/dL)
  • Leukopenia (WBC < ___ cells/uL)
  • Thrombocytopenia (Plt < ____ /uL)
  • hypothermia (temp < ___ C)
  • ___ tension requring aggressive fluids
A
  • 30
  • multilobar
  • confusion
  • 20
  • 4,000
  • 100,000
  • 36
  • hypotension
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27
Q

Other Tools for CAP

Procalcitonin
- elevated in presence of bacerial infection
- SHOULD NOT be used to determine use for ___ for CAP
- clinically useful in guiding ___ of treatment if obtained throughout hospitalization

A
  • antibiotics
  • duration
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28
Q

Other Tools for CAP - Clinical Prediction Tools

Pneumonia Severity Index (PSI)
- utilizies demographics, comorbid diseases, physical exam, and lab findings
- points < 70 = 0.6% 30 day mortality
- points > 90 = 8.2-29.2% 30 day mortality

CURB-65
- ___
- ___ (BUN > 19 mg/dL)
- RR ≥ 30 bpm
- SBP < 90 mmHg, DBP ≤ 60 mmHg
- Age ≥ ___

A
  • confusion
  • Uremia
  • 65
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29
Q

Treatment - Supportive Measures

  • humidified ___
  • broncho ___
  • fluids
  • chest physiotherapy
A
  • oxygen
  • bronchodilators
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30
Q

Empiric Therapy - Outpatient

healthy outpatient adults without comorbidities or risk factors for antibiotic resistance
- ___ 1 g PO q8h
- ___ 100 mg PO BID
- macrolide resistance < 25%, ___ 500 mg PO day 1, 250 mg day 2-5

A
  • amoxicillin
  • doxycycline
  • Z-Pak
31
Q

Empiric Therapy - Outpatient

outpatient adults with comorbidities
- chronic heart, lung, renal disease; DM; alcoholism; malignancy; asplenia or immunosuppression

Monotherapy
- respiratory fluroquinolone
- ___ 750 mg PO daily
- ___ 400 mg PO daily

Combo Therapy
- Beta-lactams + ___ or ____

Beta-lactams recommended
- ___ 500/125 mg PO q8h or 875/125 mg PO q12h
- ___ 200 mg PO q12h
- ___ 500 mg PO q12h

A
  • levofloxacin
  • moxifloxacin
  • macrolide, doxycycline
  • amox/clav
  • cefpodoxime
  • cefuroxime
32
Q

Empiric Therapy - Inpatient

Non-severe CAP
(no MRSA/P. aeruginosa risk factors)

Monotherapy
- respiratory fluroquinolone
- ___ 750 mg PO daily
- ___ 400 mg PO daily

Combo Therapy
- Beta-lactam + ___

Recommended Beta-lactams
- ___ 1.5 g-3 IV q6h
- ___ 1-2 g IV q24h
- ** ___ IV/PO may be used if FQ or macrolide contrindicated

A
  • levofloxacin
  • moxifloxacin
  • macrolide
  • ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)
  • ceftriaxone
  • doxycycline
33
Q

Empiric Therapy - Inpatient

Severe CAP
(no MRSA/P. aeruginosa risk factors)

Combo Therapy 1
- respiratory ___ + ___

Combo Therapy 2
- Beta-lactam + ___

Recommended Beta-lactams
- ___ 1.5 g-3 IV q6h
- ___ 1-2 g IV q24h
- ** ___ IV/PO may be used if FQ or macrolide contrindicated

A
  • fluroquinolone, Beta-lactam
  • macrolide
  • ampicillin/sulbactam
  • ceftriaxone
  • doxycycline
34
Q

Empiric Therapy - Inpatient

MRSA Risk Factors
- ~2-14 days post ___
- previous MRSA respiratory infection/isolation
- previous hospitalization and use of IV antibiotics within last ___ days

MRSA Coverage
- ___ target AUC 400-600
- ___ 600 mg IV/PO q12h

A
  • flu
  • 90
  • vancomycin
  • linzolid
35
Q

Empiric Therapy - Inpatient

P. aeruginosa Risk Factors
- previous P. aeruginosa respiratory infection
- previous hospitalization and use of IV antibiotics within last ___ days

Pseudomonas Coverage
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h

A
  • piperacillin/tazobactam
  • cefepime
  • meropenem
36
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Streptococcus pneumoniae

Preferred Therapy
- PCN G; ___ (if S to PCN)
- ___ ; Respiratory ___

Alternative Therapy
- Ceftriaxone
- respiratory FQ
- doxycycline
- vancomycin
- linezolid

A
  • amoxicillin
  • ceftriaxone, FQ
37
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Haemophilus influenzae

Preferred Therapy
- ___ / ___ gen cephalosporins
- ___
- ___

Alternative
- FQ
- doxycycline
- macrolide

A
  • 2nd/3rd
  • Unasyn
  • Augmentin
38
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae

Preferred Therapy
- ___
- ___

Alternative Therapy
- FQ

A
  • macrolide
  • doxycycline
39
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Legionella pneumophila

Preferred Therapy
- ___
- ___

Alternative Therapy
- doxycycline

A
  • FQ
  • azithromycin
40
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - MSSA

Preferred Therapy
- ___
- ___

Alternative Therapy
- Vancomycin
- Clindamycin

A
  • cefazolin
  • nafcillin
41
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - MRSA

Preferred Therapy
- ___
- ___

Alternative Therapy
- Ceftaroline
- TMP/SMX

A
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
42
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Anaerobes

Preferred Therapy
- ____ and inhibitor
- add ___ if using cephalosporin

Alternative Therapy
- Carbapenem
- Clindamycin

A
  • Beta-lactam
  • metronidazole
43
Q

Pathogen Directed Therapy - Enterobacterales

Preferred Therapy
- __ / ___ cephalosporin
- ___

Alternative Therapy
- Beta-lactam and inhibitor
- FQ

A
  • 3rd/4th
  • carbapenem
44
Q

What about Corticosteroids

ONLY recommended with Surviving Sepsis Guidelines when patient has CAP and ___

A
  • septic shock
45
Q

Duration of CAP Therapy

Ensure clinical stability prior to d/c Abx
- temp ≤ ___ C (afebrile for ___ - ___ hrs)
- HR ≤ ___ bpm
- RR ≤ ___ bpm
- SBP ≥ ___ mmHg
- arterial O2 saturation ≥ ___ % or pO2 ≥ 60 mmHg on room air
- basline mental status

continue Abx until clinical stability for a minimum of ___ total days

A
  • 38, 24-48
  • 100
  • 24
  • 90
  • 90
  • 5
46
Q

T or F: there is a definition to differentiate aspiration pneumonia vs pnemonia

  • recommend against ___ coverage unless lung abscess or empyema present
A

FALSE - same thing
- anaerobic

47
Q

What would be the most appropriate regimen for outpatient therapy for ST?
A) moxifloxacin 400 mg PO daily
B) Ceftriaxone 1 g IV daily + doxycycline 100 mg PO BID
C) Cefpodoxime 200 mg PO BID + doxycycline 100 mg PO BID
D) amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 PO BID + azithromycin 500 mg PO daily

A

C) Cefpodoxime 200 mg PO BID + doxycycline 100 mg PO BID

48
Q

What would be the most appropriate regimen for this patient?
A) Linezolid 600 mg IV q12h + Cefepime 2 g IV q8h + Azithromycin 500 mg IV q24h
B) Vancomycin 1250 mg IV q24h + Ceftriaxone 1 g IV q24h + Doxycycline 100 gm IV BID
C) Levofloxacin 750 mg IV q24h + Ceftrixone 1 g IV q24h
D) Vancomycin 1 g IV q24h + piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5 g IV q6h

A

A) Linezolid 600 mg IV q12h + Cefepime 2 g IV q8h + Azithromycin 500 mg IV q24h

Add linezolid due to MRSA risk with rehospitalization

49
Q

Definitions

HAP = pneumonia occuring ≥ ___ hours after hospital admission

VAP = pneumonia occuring ≥ 48 hours after ___ ___

HCAP = any pt hospitalized for ≥ __ days within the past 90 days of infection; resides in nursing home or LTCF; received recent IV ___ , ___ , or wound care within the past 30 days if infection; ___
- this is old news tho

A
  • 48
  • endotracheal intubation
  • 2, Abx, chemotherapy, hemodialysis
50
Q

HCAP

Previously part of 2005 HAP/VAP guidelines

Since then, ___ to be at an increased risk for multidrug-resistant organisms
- increase use of broad-spectrum Abx without an improvement in outcomes
- may lead to resistance

Moved towards treating as CAP and evaluating for risk factors of ___ and ___

A
  • disproven
  • MRSA
  • P. aeruginosa
51
Q

Epidemiology + Impact

HAP
- one of the most ___ hospital-accquired infections
- 1.87% 60 day mortality risk

VAP
- impacts 5-40% of patients on mechanical ventilation > __ days
- increases utilization of healthcare resources
- prolongs length of mechanical ventilation by ~ __ days and hospitalization by ~ __ days ($40,000 per VAP incident)

A
  • common
  • 2
  • 9
  • 12
52
Q

Pathogenesis

micro-aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions that are colonized with bateria
- usually aerobic gram ___ bacteria
- after 3-5 days of hospitalization, converts to gram ___ organisms

Aspiration of esophageal/gastric content

Hematogenous spread from another source

Direct inoculation into airways via ___ by healthcare personnel

Mechanical ventilation - endotracheal tube ___ all host defenses and decreases LRT defenses

A
  • positive
  • negative
  • intubation
  • bypasses
53
Q

Risk Factors for HAP/VAP

  • advanced ___
  • severity of comorbid diseases
  • duration of ___
  • endotracheal intubation
  • nasgoastric tube
  • altered ___ status
  • surgery previous ___ therapy
A
  • age
  • hospitalization
  • mental
  • antimicrobial
54
Q

Diagnosis of HAP/VAP

No gold standard for diagnosis

Timing
- important for defining ___ -acquired infection
- impacts choice of antibiotics

Typical Presentation
- New lung ___ + clinical signs and symptoms
- new onset ___ , purulent sputum, ___ , decline in ___

A
  • hospital
  • infiltrate
  • fever, leukocytosis, oxygenation
55
Q

Common Pathogens - HAP/VAP

___ gram ___ bacilli = ~70%
- pseudomonas aeruginosa = 10-20%
- enteric gram-negative bacilli = 20-40%
- Acinetobacter baumannii = 5-10%

___ = 20-30%
- MRSA greater concern in this population

A
  • aerobic, negative
  • Staphylococcus aureus
56
Q

Microbiology Testing - HAP/VAP

___ Cultures
- recommended obtaining for all pts
- non-invasive > invasive
- invasive respiratory cultures have diagnostic threshold

___ Cultures
- obtain from all patients

A

Respiratory
Blood

57
Q

Risk Factors for MDP

MDR HAP/MRSA HAP/ VAP
- prior IV Abx use within ___ days

MDR VAP
- prior IV Abx use within ___ days
- ___ shock at time of diagnosis
- ___ prior to diagnosis
- acute ___ replacement therapy prior to VAP onset
- ≥ 5 days of ___ prior to diagnosis

MDR P. aeruginosa
- prior IV antibiotic use within ___ days
- ___ , broad spectrum beta-lactams, FQs

A

MDR HAP/MRSA HAP/ VAP
- 90

MDR VAP
- 90
- septic
- ARDS
- renal
- hospitalization

MDR P. aeruginosa
- carbapenems
- 90

58
Q

Empiric Therapy - The Principles

Empiric regimens should be based on ___ distribution of pathogens and susceptibility
- Utilize yearly antiobiogram

If possible, data should stratify for populations such as VAP or ICU population

Goal = provide ___ ___ antibiotics while avoiding unnecessary harms of inappropriate coverage

A
  • local
  • broad spectrum
59
Q

Empiric Therapy - Antiobitic Choice: MRSA Coverage

Risk Factors
- typical risk factors
- ICUs where > __ - __ % MRSA isolates
- Treatment where prevalence is ___

Treatment:
- ___ AUC 400-600
- ___ 600 mg PO/IV q12h

A
  • 10-20
  • unknown
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
60
Q

Empiric Therapy - Antiobitic Choice: P. aeruginosa Coverage

Risk Factors for Resistance
- ICUs where > ___ % of isolates resistant
- Treatment where resistance rates are ___

Treatment:
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 500 mg IV q6h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h
- ___ 750 mg IV q24h

A
  • 10%
  • unknown
  • piperacillin/tazobactam
  • cefepime
  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • levofloxacin
61
Q

Empiric Therapy - HAP

Not at High Risk for Mortality
- (aka not on ___ support or ___ shock)

Goal
- provide coverage for MSSA + P. aeruginosa

Treatment
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 500 mg IV q6h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h
- ___ 750 mg IV q24h

A
  • ventilatory, septic
  • piperacillin/tazobactam
  • cefepime
  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • levofloxacin
62
Q

Empiric Therapy - HAP

Not at High Risk for Mortality but MRSA risk
- (aka not on ___ support or ___ shock)

Goal
- provide coverage for MRSA + P. aeruginosa

Combo Treatment (A + B)
Treatment A
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 500 mg IV q6h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h
- ___ 750 mg IV q24h

PLUS

Treatment B
- ___ AUC 400-600
- ___ 600 mg IV q12h

A

Treatment A
- piperacillin/tazobactam
- cefepime
- imipenem
- meropenem
- levofloxacin

Treatment B
- vancomycin
- linezolid

63
Q

Empiric Therapy - HAP

High Risk for Mortality and MRSA risk
- on ___ support or ___ shock

Goal
- provide coverage for MRSA + MDR P. aeruginosa

Combo Therapy
Treatment A (Pick 2 from Different Classes)
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 500 mg IV q6h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h
- ___ 750 mg IV q24h
- ___ / ___ IV

PLUS
Treatment B
- ___ AUC 400-600
- ___ 600 mg IV q12h

A
  • ventilatory, septic
  • piperacillin/tazobactam
  • cefepime
  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • levofloxacin
  • tobramycin/amikacin
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
64
Q

Empiric Therapy - VAP

Goal
- Provide coverage for MRSA + P. aeruginosa

Choose __ anti-pseudomonals when there are risk factors for resistance

Combo Treatment (A +B)
Treatment A
- ___ 4.5 g IV q6h
- ___ 2 g IV q8h
- ___ 500 mg IV q6h
- ___ 1 g IV q8h
- ___ 750 mg IV q24h
- ___ / ___ IV

PLUS
Treatment B
- ___ AUC 400-600
- ___ 600 mg IV q12h

A
  • piperacillin/tazobactam
  • cefepime
  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • levofloxacin
  • tobramycin/amikacin
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
65
Q

Non-Beta Lactam Considedrations

T or F: Daptomycin is used for LRTI

A

FALSE - never

66
Q

Non-Beta Lactam Considedrations

Daptomycin
- never use

Aminoglycosides
- dont use as ___
- avoid empiric use unless necessary
- poor ___ penetration, nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, reports of lower clinical response rates

Polymyxins
- avoid empiric use if possible
- reserve for pts with high prevalence of ___ pathogens
- significant ___

Tigecycline
- great for ___ infections
- associated with increased ___

A
  • monotherapy, lung
  • MDR, nephrotoxicity
  • polymicrobial, mortality
67
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

MSSA (2)

A
  • cefazolin
  • nafcillin
68
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

Enterbacterales (1)

A
  • 3rd gen cephjalosporins
69
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

ESBL-producer (2)

A
  • carbapenem
  • ceftazidime/avibactam
70
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

KPC-producer (3)

A
  • meropenem/vaborbactam
  • imipenem/relebactan
  • ceftazidime/avibacam
71
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

NDM/VIM-producer (2)

A
  • Ceftazidime/avibactam + aztreonam
  • cefiderocol
72
Q

Pathogen-Specific Therapy

acinetobacter spp. (3)

A
  • carbapenem
  • ampicillin/sulbactam
  • cefiderocol
73
Q

Duration for HAP/VAP

  • ___ day duration if clinically stable

VAP
- compared to longer durations in VAP, there is no difference in duration of MV, hospital LOS, treatment failurem recurrent pneumonia, or mortality

HAP
- no significant differences compared to longer durations