Antivirals 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Herpes

  • large dsDNA
  • enveloped
  • Can cause latent infections

HSV-1
- Commonly causes ___ herpes, but can cause genital herpes
- ~60 % of adults in US are seropositive

HSV-2
- Commonly causes ___ herpes, but can cause oral herpes

A
  • oral
  • genital
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2
Q

VZV (varicella zoster virus)

  • Causes ___ after primary infection
  • Can reactivate later in life

Shingles
- Viruses migrates to ___ in area of infection
transmission
- shingles isnt transmitted, but virus can cause chicken pox

A
  • chickenpox
  • ganglia
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3
Q

CMV (cytomegalovirus)

Severe disease can occur if
- Infection occurs during ___ development
- Infection occurs in ___ people

A
  • fetal
  • immunocompromised
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4
Q

Anti-herpesvirus agents - Acyclovir

___ ___ derivative
- Lacks ___
- Selectively accumulates in ___ cells
- requires ___ phosphorylation events

MOA: ___ inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase
- DNA polymerase becomes bound to ___
- Acts as chain ___

A
  • Acyclic guanosine
  • 3’ hydroxyl
  • infected
  • 3
  • competetive
  • irreversibly
  • terminator
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5
Q

Anti-herpesvirus agents - Acyclovir

SoA: ___ , ___ , and ___
- not great for CMV

Bioavailaility: 15-30%, not affected by food

AE: well tolerated, maybe N, D, rash, headache and very rarely, renal insufficiency or neurotoxicity have been reported

Resistance
- Mutations in viral ___ (most common).
- mutations in viral ___
- emerges more frequently in immunocompromised people

A
  • HSV-1, HSV-2 and VZV
  • thymidine kinase
  • DNA polymerase
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6
Q

Anti-herpesvirus agents - valacyclovir

  • ___ ester of acyclovir
  • Rapidly converted to acyclovir by esterases in the intestine and liver
  • transported by ___ amino
    acid transporters
  • Bioavailability is 48 to 54 %
  • ___ efficacy compared to acyclovir for all indications
A
  • L-valyl
  • intestinal
  • improved
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7
Q

Famciclovir and penciclovir

  • Famciclovir is a ___ of penciclovir
  • converted by first pass metabolism in intestin and liver

MOA
- Activated by viral and cellular kinases
- ___ inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase
- Does NOT cause immediate chain termination - allows for short chain ___

Viral ___ mutants confer cross-resistance to penciclovir and acyclovir

A
  • prodrug
  • competetive
  • elongation
  • kinase
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8
Q

Penciclovir versus Acyclovir

Penciclovir has a ___ affinity for HSV ___ than acyclovir
- levels higher in infected cells
- more stable
- Intracellular half-life is 10- to 20-fold longer for ___

HSV DNA ___ have a higher affinity for acyclovir triphosphate than for penciclovir triphosphate
- Net effect: both drugs have similar antiviral potencies

Acyclovir triphosphate is an obligate DNA
chain ___

Penciclovir triphosphate allows limited DNA chain ___ (short-chain terminator)
- 3’ hydroxyl group on its acyclic side chain

A
  • higher, TK
  • Penciclovir triphosphate
  • polymerases
  • terminator
  • elongation
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9
Q

Clinical uses of famciclovir and penciclovir

Oral famciclovir
- Primary and recurrent ___ herpes
- Acute herpes ___

Topical penciclovir
- Recurrent herpes ___

70 % bioavailable

A
  • genital
  • zoster
  • labialis
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10
Q

Ganciclovir

  • Structurally very similar to penciclovir
  • MOA: same as ___
  • Better substrate for ____ kinase than acyclovir (100x more active)
  • Intracellular half-life 12 h

Poor bioavailability (6 - 9 %)

Clinical uses:
- IV, oral and intraocular implants can be used to treat CMV ___
- Oral ganciclovir can be used for CMV ___

Toxicity more ___ than acyclovir
- ___
- neutropenia
- thrombocytopenia

Resistance
- mutations in ___ kinase (UL97 gene)
- mutations in CMV ___ (UL54)
- Mutations in kinase are NOT cross-resistant to cidofovir or foscarnet
- Mutations in DNA pol may confer resistance to cidofovir or foscarnet (less frequent)

A
  • penciclovir
  • CMV
  • retinitis
  • prophylaxis
  • severe
  • myelosuppression
  • CMV
  • DNA Pol
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11
Q

Valganciclovir

  • Monovalyl ester of ganciclovir
  • ___ bioavailability (60%)
  • Rapidly hydrolyzed to ___ by esterases in intestine and liver
  • Used to treat CMV ___ in ___ patients
A
  • increases
  • ganciclovir
  • retinitis, AIDS
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12
Q

Foscarnet

  • Inorganic pyrophosphate compound
    (phosphonoformic acid)
  • Inhibits viral ___ , RNA polymerase, and HIV RT
  • does NOT require ___
  • Blocks ___ binding site of the viral DNA polymerase
  • Inhibits cleavage of pyrophosphate from dNTPs

MOA
- Carboxyl overlaps with binding site B-phosphate
- Phosphonates occupies position of g-phosphate
- Traps polymerase in ___ formation
- DNA is unable to ___

A
  • DNA polymerase
  • phosphorylation
  • pyrophosphate
  • closed
  • translocate
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13
Q

Foscarnet

Pharmacokinetics
- Poor oral bioavailability
- Only administered ___
- Up to 30 % may be deposited in ___
- Renal clearance in proportion to CrCl

Clinical use
- ___ ___ (equivalent to ganciclovir)
- Dose must be titrated according to ___
- ___ with ganciclovir against CMV

Toxicity
- ___ insufficiency
- Hypo- or hyper ___
- Hypo- or hyper ___
- Headaches in 25% of patients

Resistance
- Mutations in DNA ___ or ___ RT
- Resistant CMV isolates are cross-resistant to ___
- Foscarnet usually still effective against cidofovir- resistant CMV

A
  • IV
  • bone
  • CMV retinitis
  • CrCl
  • synergistic
  • renal
  • phosphatemia, calcemia
  • DNA pol, HIV RT
  • ganciclovir
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14
Q

Cidofovir

Acyclic nucleoside phosphonate analog of ___
- Phosphonate cannot be cleaved by cellular esterases - catabolically ___
- Phosphorylated by cellular kinases
- Intracellular half-life is 17 to 65 h

poor substrate for ___ DNA pol (1000x less efficient than dATP)

Broad spectrum of activity
- CMV, HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, adenovirus, poxvirus, polyomavirus, and human papillomavirus

MOA:
- Highly selective for viral ___ ___
- Does NOT require activation by viral kinases
- ___ inhibitor and chain ___
- Chain termination by CMV pol requires two consecutive incorporations

Adverse effects
- Dose-dependent ___

Clinical use - CMV ___ (IV)

A
  • cytosine
  • stable
  • human
  • DNA pol
  • competitive, terminator
  • nephrotoxicity
  • retinitis
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15
Q

Letermovir

Newest anti-herpes virus drug - approved 2017
- ___ of CMV infection and disease in adult allogenic hematopoietic stem cell ___ (HSCT) patients who have CMV

MOA: New class of inhibitor: ___
- highly specific for CMV
- Herpes virus DNA replication is through rolling circle mechanism - Individual genomes must be cut out by “terminase complex”
- inhibits ___ ___ by binding to pUL56 and preventing cleavage and packaging
- NO effect on protein synthesis or DNA replication

No cross resistance to other CMV drugs

A
  • prophylaxis, transplant
  • non-nucleoside
  • terminase complex
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16
Q

Influenza virus

___ stranded RNA virus
- enveloped
- New virus strains can be created by
“___ ” - mixing of RNA segments

A: infects humans and many different animals, including ducks, chickens, pigs, whales, horses, and seals

B: widely circulates only in humans

C: causes a very mild disease

A
  • negative
  • reassortment
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17
Q

Influenza A subtypes

Influenza A viruses are divided into subtypes based on two genes:
- ___ (H)
- ___ (N)
- Different subtypes can infect different
organisms

A
  • Hemagglutinin
  • Neuraminidase
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18
Q

Influenza virus Neuraminidase

Essential for virus replication
- Located in virus ___

Facilitates virus dissemination
- ___ binds to terminal sialic acid residues
- Cleavage by ___ releases virus

A
  • membrane
  • HA
  • NA
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19
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors are ___ state analogs

mimic ___ acid

A

transition
sialic

20
Q

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

___ - converted to active form by liver
esterases
- Metabolite is an effective inhibitor of ___

Active against influenza A and B
- Less effective against __ though

PK
- ___ (75% reaches systemic circulation)
- converted to oseltamivir carboxylate by hepatic esterases

generally well tolerated

need to initiate within ___ hrs of first symptoms
- gives you back a day

Resistance
- mutations in ___ active site
- influenza A with reduces susceptibilty
- develops more easily than in zanamavir

A

prodrug
NA
B
PO
48
NA

Zana binds a lot tighter so less affected by mutations of active site

21
Q

Zanamivir

  • Transition state analog
  • Mechanism is same as ___
  • Effective against influenza A and B
  • Administered via oral ___

PK
- 4-17% of the inhaled dose is systemically
absorbed
- Excreted unchanged by the kidneys

Toxicity
- ___ : pls dont give this to people with COPD or asthma, that would be crazy

A
  • oseltamivir
  • inhaler
  • bronchospams
22
Q

Peramivir – newest neuraminidase inhibitor

Transition state analog of ___ acid
- active against A and B
- ___ administration (ages 2+)

good for pts who:
- not responding to oral/inhaled
- need IV

23
Q

Baloxavir marboxil

Mechanism: inhibits viral “cap-snatching” (blocks ___ )
- Baloxavir marboxil binds to the PB2 subunit of the RNA polymerase of virus and inhibits the influenza cap-dependent endonuclease.
- Viral ___ can no longer be produced

Clinical indication: influenza within first ___ hours of symptoms (adults 12 yrs+)

Adverse effects: diarrhea, ___

A
  • transcription
  • mRNAs
  • 48
  • bronchitis
24
Q

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Small, ___ stranded RNA virus
- causes chronic liver infections
- Transmission is via contaminated blood - IV drug use

HCV makes a ___ polyprotein that is cleaved by viral and cellular proteases

MOAs:
- NS3/NS4A serine protease inhibitors (sim, boc, tela)
- NS5A inhibitors (dac)
- NS5B polymerase inh (sofo)

A

positive
single

NS = nonstructural protein
25
Q

Anti-HCV treatments

Previous standard of care: ___ plus pegylated interferon alpha

Goal of treatment
- Sustained virological response (SVR)
- HCV RNA undetectable for 6 months after treatment

26
Q

Nonspecific defenses against viral infection

Interferons induce synthesis of cellular proteins
- strongly induced by viruses and dsRNA
- have antiviral effects (specific to certain viruses)

___ - degrades viral RNA but not cellular RNA

Protein kinase that phosphorylates and ___ EIF-2 (a translation initiation factor)

Many viruses have evolved mechanisms to counteract the antiviral effects of interferons (boo)

A
  • Ribonuclease
  • inactivates
27
Q

Interferon alpha as antiviral drug

Recombinant protein produced by E. coli
- IM or SC

Pegylated interferon alpha
- Increases half-life and reduces dosing frequency
- supperior efficacy compared to non-peg

COMBO WITH ___ more effective than mono of either one

Clinical use: HCV, HBV, HHV-8, papillomavirus

Toxicity
- ___ like symptoms
- May cause or aggravate ___ or life-threatening neuropsychiatric, autoimmune, ischemic, and infectious disorders. woah
- Patients should be monitored closely

A
  • ribavirin
  • flu
  • fatal
28
Q

Ribavirin

___ analog with incomplete purine ring
- ___ by cellular kinases to triphosphate form

Broad spectrum of activity
- influenza A, B
- Hep A, B, C
- genical herpes
- herpes zoster
- measles
- hantavirus
- lassa fever virus

MOA:
- Inhibition of ___ (IMPDH) - reduces ___ levels
- Direct inhibition of viral RNA ___
- ___ into viral RNA leading to error catastrophe

Clinical use
- combo therapy for HCV
- aerosol for treatment of RSV pneumonia in hospitalized children

A
  • guanosine
  • phosphorylated
  • Inosine monophosphate dehydrogense, GTP
  • polymerase
  • Incorporation
29
Q

HCV Protease inhibitors

Target the HCV protease ___
- Block cleavage of the HCV ___
- Linear peptide mimics
- Ketoamide reversible ___ inhibitors
- ___ trap – forms covalent link to active site Ser139

A

NS3
- polyprotein
- covalent
- serine

30
Q

HCV Protease inhibitors

2nd Gen
P1-P3 substrate analogs
- Macrocyclic peptides
- Non- ___ inhibitors
- All are substrates of ___ and weak inhibitors

Example: ___ and ___

A
  • non-covalent
  • CYP3A4
  • simeprevir
  • paritaprevir
31
Q

HCV Protease inhibitors

2nd Gen
P2-P4 substrate analogs
Examples: ___ , ___ , and ___

A
  • Grazoprevir
  • Voxilaprevir
  • Glecaprevir
32
Q

T or F: 2nd gen HCV protease inhibitors have an induced fit

A

TRUE
Induced pocket accommodates large heterocycle

33
Q

HCV Protease Inhibitors

Advantages
- once daily
- well tolerated
- Active against all genotypes except 3

Resistance
- mutations in ___ active site
- Low genetic barrier of resistance
- Similar, but not identical pattern of mutations for linear and macrocyclic inhibitors
- Retain activity against some NS3 mutants that developed resistance to 1st generation HCV PIs

34
Q

HCV RNA Polymerase inhibitors

___ = HCV RNA polymerase
- Nucleoside RNA polymerase inhibitors
- Example: ___ (Solvadi)

___ of 2’-deoxy-2’-fluoro-2’-C-methyluridine monophosphate
- converted by liver enzymes
- Triphosphorylated by cellular nucleotide kinases (YMPK and NDPK)

A

NS5B
- Sofosbuvir
- prodrug

35
Q

HCV RNA Polymerase inhibitors

Sofosbuvir mechanism
- Incorporated in viral RNA chain
- Causes chain ___ (2’ Methyl group is critical)

Genetic barrier for resistance
- Single mutation in ___ site (S288T)

A
  • termination
  • active
36
Q

HCV RNA Polymerase inhibitors

Dasabuvir: Non ___ RNA polymerase inhibitors
- 7,000-fold selectivity for HCV RNA Pol

NS5B has 5 known binding sites

MOA
- Binds to palm I site of HCV RNA polymerase
- Prevents ___ changes
- Blocks ___ incorporation into viral RNA

A
  • nucleoside
  • conformational
  • nucleotide
37
Q

HCV NS5A inhibitors

___ required for HCV RNA replication, but exact mechanistic role unknown

Ledipasvir, Elbasvir, Daclatasvir, Velpatasvir, Pibrentasvir

Inhibits both viral RNA ___ and
assembly or ___ of infectious viral particles

Resistance to HCV NS5A inhibitors
1st gen
- lower genetic barrier
- single mutations = high resisitance

2nd gen
- higher genetic barrier
- Retain activity against common resistance- associated substitutions

A
  • NS5A
  • replication, release

2nd gen are tougher

38
Q

HCV inhibitor summary

HCV NS3 protease inhibitors
(-previr) (3)

A

Grazoprevir
Voxilaprevir
Glecaprevir

39
Q

HCV inhibitor summary

HCV NS5A inhibitors
(-asvir) (5)

A
  • Ledipasvir
  • Daclatasvir
  • Velpatasvir
  • Pibrentasvir
  • Elbasvir
40
Q

HCV inhibitor summary

HCV NS5B inhibitors (-buvir) (2)

A
  • Sofosbuvir
  • Dasabuvir
41
Q

Black Box warning for HCV direct acting

antivirals (DAA)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) ___ has occurred in patients co- infected with hepatitis C virus (HCV) while undergoing treatment with DAAs for HCV infection
- observed with DAAs used without ___
- often followed by hepatitis,
and, in severe cases, hepatic failure, and death.

To decrease risk
- screen for HBV infection before initiating
- monitor for flare/reactivation
- Consult a physician with expertise in managing hepatitis B
- counsel pts to contact healthcare professional when they notice s/sx

A

reactivation
interferon

42
Q

Hepatitis B virus

  • Can cause chronic liver infections that lead to cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma
  • ___ available

Life cycle
- Partially dsDNA virus
- Viral genome replication includes an RNA intermediate that is converted to viral DNA by ___

Anti HBV drugs

A
  • vaccine
  • RT
43
Q

Anti HBV drugs

Anti-Retrovirals: Tenofovir and Lamivudine

Others: telbivudine, entecavir, adefovir

Mechanism
- Telbivudine - L-isomer of ___
- causes DNA chain ___

A
  • thymidine
  • termination
44
Q

Anti HBV drugs - Nucleotide inhibitors

Tenofovir disoproxilfumarate
___ - converted to tenofovir
Acyclic nucleoside phosphonate analog of ___

Phosphonate cannot be cleaved by cellular esterases - catabolically ___

A
  • prodrug
  • adenosine
  • stable
45
Q

SARS-CoV-2

Remdesivir

Broad spectrum antiviral

___ that is bio-transformed to a ribonucleotide analog that can inhibit viral RNA ___
- administered IV
- Originally developed to treat hepatitis C and has been investigate for use against Ebola virus, Marburg virus, measles and others

A

prodrug
polymerase

46
Q

Nirmatrelvir

  • ___ bioavailable inhibitor of SARS-CoV-2 3C-like ___ (3CLpro). 3CLpro cleaves polyprotein 1a and 1ab of SARS- CoV-2
  • Patients with mild to moderate COVID-19 ages 12 and older and within __ days of symptom onset
  • Peptidomimetic inhibits active site
    ___ residue in 3CLpro. Can no
    longer make active nonstructural
    proteins from the __

300 mg nirmatrelvir with 100 mg ritonavir (2x day). Ritonavir used to boost nirmatrelvir levels by inhibiting ___

A
  • orally, protease
  • 5
  • cysteine
  • polyprotein
  • CYP3A4
47
Q

Molnupiravir

___ of a synthetic nucleoside derivative N4-hydroxycytidine and serves as a ___ inhibitor and chain ___

Originally developed to treat influenza.

Indicated for mild to moderate COVID-19 for adults with high risk of severe COVID-19 progression

___ potential found in bacterial cells (Ames test) as well as in fetal rats and can increase virus mutagenic potential

A
  • prodrug, polymerase, terminator
  • mutagenic