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Basic Human Pathology 2 > Lower Urinary Tract + Male Genital Tract > Flashcards

Lower Urinary Tract + Male Genital Tract Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in infants and children

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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2
Q

who is most commonly affected by a fibroepithelial ureteral polyp

A

children

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3
Q

what is the most common primary malignant tumor of the ureter

A

urothelial carcinoma

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4
Q

what is exstrophy of the bladder

A

anterior wall of abdomen and bladder fail to develop so the bladder is open to the outside world

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5
Q

what can exstrophy of the bladder increase your risk for

A

adenocarcinoma of the bladder

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6
Q

what is the gross appearance of interstitial cystitis

A

mucosal fissures and punctate hemorrhages

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7
Q

what is malakoplakia of the bladder

A

chronic inflammatory reaction of the bladder
common in renal transplant cases and immunocompromised patients

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8
Q

what are Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

laminated mineralized concretions resulting from deposition of calcium in enlarged lysosomes

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9
Q

in which condition would you see Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

malakoplakia

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10
Q

which stain is used to look for Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

Van Kossa stain

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11
Q

what is polypoid cystitis

A

polypoid, inflammatory lesion due to irritation of the bladder mucosa (catheterization)

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12
Q

what is the difference between the von Brunn nests in cystitis glandularis and cystitis cystica

A

cystitis glandularis: nest cells are cuboidal or columnar
cystitis cystica: nest cells become flattened

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13
Q

which condition of the bladder is most common in renal transplant recipients

A

nephrogenic adenoma

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14
Q

what are the two main categories of bladder malignancy

A

epithelial and mesenchymal

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15
Q

which category of bladder malignancy is most common

A

epithelial

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16
Q

who, females or males, is most at risk for bladder malignancy

A

males

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17
Q

what is the number one risk factor of bladder malignancy

A

smoking

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18
Q

what are the two main types of urothelial tumors

A

papillary urothelial neoplasms and carcinoma in situ

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19
Q

which two gene mutations can lead to papillary urothelial neoplasms

A

RAS and FGFR3

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20
Q

which two genes mutations can lead to carcinoma in situ of the bladder

A

TP53 and RB

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21
Q

which, papillary urothelial neoplasms or carcinoma in situ of the bladder, is more invasive

A

carcinoma in situ

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22
Q

what is the most important factor in staging bladder malignancy

A

invasion - size does not matter

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23
Q

what are the two main types of mesenchymal bladder tumors

A

benign (leiomyoma) and sarcomas

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24
Q

what are the four main types of bladder malignancy

A

urothelial (transitional)
adenocarcinoma
SCC
mixed carcinoma

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25
Q

what is gonococcal urethritis

A

gonorrhea infection of the urethra

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26
Q

what is a nongonococcal urethral infection

A

infection of the urethra caused by anything but gonorrhea

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27
Q

what is a urethral caruncle

A

small, red, painful urethral lesion

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28
Q

who is most commonly affected by urethral caruncles

A

post-menopausal women

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29
Q

which portion of the urethra is most commonly affected by squamous cell carcinoma

A

distal 1/3rd

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30
Q

what is hypospadias

A

abnormal opening of the urethra on the ventral surface of the penis

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31
Q

what is epispadias

A

abnormal opening of the urethra on the dorsal surface of the penis
typically due to lack of testicular descent

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32
Q

what is phimosis

A

foreskin cannot be pulled back to adequately urinate or clean

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33
Q

phimosis increases your risk for what

A

penile carcinoma

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34
Q

what is another name for peyronie disease

A

induratio penis plastica

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35
Q

what is peyronie disease

A

benign condition where the fibrous connective tissue between the corpora cavernosa hardens

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36
Q

define balanoposthitis

A

inflammation of the glans and prepuce

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37
Q

what is the most common infection of the penis

A

syphilis

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38
Q

what is condyloma acuminatum

A

benign, papillary warts on the penis

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39
Q

condyloma acuminatum is most commonly caused by which strains of HPV

A

6 and 11

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40
Q

what is the main microscopic feature of condyloma acuminatum

A

koilocytosis - perinuclear cytoplasmic vacuolization

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41
Q

koilocytosis is seen in which condition

A

condyloma acuminatum

42
Q

what is penile intraepithelial neoplasia (PeIN)

A

carcinoma in situ of penis

43
Q

what is Bowen disease of the penis

A

penile intraepithelial neoplasia that has malignant transformation potential

44
Q

what is Bowenoid papulosis

A

disease common in the genitalia of young, sexually active adults
similar to Bowen disease except that it automatically regresses and does not have malignant transformation potential

45
Q

what is the gross appearance of penile intraepithelial neoplasia

A

cauliflower like lesions

46
Q

what would a pT1 penile tumor involve

A

glans, shaft, and foreskin but not corpus spongiosum or corpora cavernosum

47
Q

what would a pT2 penile tumor involve

A

tumor invades into the corpus spongiosum

48
Q

what would a pT3 penile tumor involve

A

tumor invades into the corpora cavernosum

49
Q

define synorchism

A

fusion of testes

50
Q

define cryptochordism

A

failure of testes to descend into the scrotal sac

51
Q

cryptochordism increases your risk for what

A

testicular cancer

52
Q

which two infections most commonly affects the epididymis

A

gonorrhea and TB

53
Q

which infection most commonly affects the testis

A

syphilis

54
Q

what is a testicular torsion

A

cut off of venous drainage of the testes

55
Q

what is a lipoma of cord

A

retroperitoneal fat that has been pulled into the inguinal canal along with hernia sac

56
Q

what is an adenomatoid tumor

A

benign testicular tumor of mesothelial origin

57
Q

what is the most common benign paratesticular (adnexal) tumor

A

adenomatoid tumor

58
Q

what is the most malignant paratesticular tumor in adults

A

liposarcoma

59
Q

what are the main two types of testicular tumors

A

germ cell tumors and sex cord stromal tumors

60
Q

which, germ cell tumors or sex cord stromal tumors, are more common

A

germ cell tumors

61
Q

germ cell tumors of the testicle most commonly affects males of which age range

A

15-45 years old

62
Q

what is the most common type of germ cell testicular tumor

A

seminoma

63
Q

which gene mutation causes a seminoma

A

C-KIT mutation

64
Q

a seminoma most commonly affects males of which age range

A

30-40 years old

65
Q

what is the gross appearance of a seminoma

A

homogenous, gray-white and lobulated

66
Q

what is a common microscopic feature of a seminoma

A

polyhedral cells

67
Q

what are the 5 main types of germ cell tumors

A

seminoma
embryonal carcinoma
choriocarcinoma
yolk sac tumor
teratoma

68
Q

embryonal carcinoma most commonly affects males of which age range

A

20-30 years old

69
Q

what is the gross appearance of embryonal carcinomas

A

variegated with hemorrhage and necrosis

70
Q

which type of germ cell tumor has the worst prognosis

A

choriocarcinoma

71
Q

what is the gross appearance of choriocarcinomas

A

dark red-brown and hemorrhagic

72
Q

which two cells types are common in a choriocarcinoma

A

trophoblastic cells and syncytiotrophoblasts

73
Q

what is another name for a yolk sac tumor

A

endodermal sinus tumor

74
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age

A

yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor)

75
Q

what is the gross appearance of a yolk sac tumor

A

myxoid or gelatinous

76
Q

which stain cause be used to differentiate yolk sac tumors

A

alpha-feto protein (AFP) stain

77
Q

what are the two main types of sex cord stromal tumors

A

leydig cell tumors and Sertoli cell tumors

78
Q

leydig cell tumors most commonly affect males of which age range

A

20 to 60 years of age

79
Q

what would be seen on a touch prep for a leydig cell tumor

A

crystalloids of Reinke

80
Q

crystalloids of Reinke are seen in which condition

A

leydig cell tumors

81
Q

Sertoli cell tumors are associated with which three syndromes

A

carney complex
peutz-jeghers syndrome
FAP

82
Q

what is an important microscopic feature of a Sertoli cell tumor

A

cord-like structures

83
Q

what is the gross appearance of a leydig cell tumor

A

homogenous, golden-brown and lobulated

84
Q

what is the gross appearance of a Sertoli cell tumor

A

firm, small nodules that are grey-white

85
Q

testicular lymphoma most commonly affects males of which age

A

60 year olds

86
Q

a pT1 testicular tumor involves what

A

just the testis
pT1a - less than 3 cm
PT1b - greater than 3 cm

87
Q

a pT2 testicular tumor involves what

A

epididymis and/or tunica albuginea

88
Q

a pT3 testicular tumor involves what

A

spermatic cord

89
Q

a pT4 testicular tumor involves what

A

scrotum

90
Q

define chylocele

A

lymph accumulation in the tunica vaginalis

91
Q

define varicocele

A

dilated vein in spermatic cord

92
Q

what is the most common form of prostatitis

A

chronic abacterial prostatitis

93
Q

what is the most common benign prostatic disease in men older than 50 years of age

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

94
Q

what causes benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

impaired cell death

95
Q

what is the most common form of carcinoma in men

A

prostate adenocarcinoma

96
Q

prostate adenocarcinoma mostly affects men of which age range

A

70-80 years of age

97
Q

most prostate adenocarcinoma cases arise from which zone of the prostate

A

peripheral

98
Q

which scoring system is used for prostate adenocarcinoma

A

Gleason’s scoring - higher the number, the worse grade

99
Q

why is there no pTin (in-situ) or pT1 for prostate adenocarcinoma

A

because there is technically no basement membrane

100
Q

what is staging of prostate based on

A

extension through capsule

Basic Human Pathology 2 (14 decks)

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