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Basic Human Pathology 2 > (2) Final Exam - Don't Knows > Flashcards

(2) Final Exam - Don't Knows Flashcards

1
Q

viral arthritis is associated with which 4 conditions

A

1.) rubella
2.) EBV
3.) HVC + HVB
4.) HIV

Think of popular viruses

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2
Q

what is the most common cause of focal nodular hyperplasia

A

alterations in hepatic parenchymal blood supply
ex. arteriovenous malformations

Think the focus is on the blood supply

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3
Q

pseudogout crystals are made of what

A

calcium pyrophosphate

Think “pseudo” and “pyro” both start with a P

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4
Q

what is seen grossly in the brain of someone with ethanol poisoning (chronic alcoholism)

A

1.) cerebral dysfunction
2.) atrophy and loss of granule cells in vermis

Think people view drunks as vermin as they dysfunction and waste away

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5
Q

which two types of anterior pituitary cells are acidophilic

A

somatotrophs and lactotrophs

Think sumo wrestlers drink lactic acid

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6
Q

which two viruses can cause acute pancreatitis

A

mumps and coxsackievirus

Think we use a cute pancreas as a hackie sack to get out of the dumps

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7
Q

what is the microscopic feature of an ependymoma

A

perivascular pseudorosettes

Think wendy’s mom likes fake roses

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8
Q

reactive arthritis can be associated with which three conditions

A

1.) HIV
2.) chlamydia
3.) GI tract infections

Think girls with tummy and boy problems can be reactive

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9
Q

a hepatoblastoma is associated with which two conditions

A

FAP and Beckwith-wiedmann syndrome

Think beck was familiar with hepatoblastomas

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10
Q

what are two examples of protozoal diseases that can affect the nervous system

A

1.) malaria
2.) toxoplasmosis

Think of the “proto” type for “tox”ic malaria vaccines

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11
Q

what are the two conditions associated with pancreatic cysts

A

polycystic kidney disease and von-Hippel lindau syndrome

Think hippos get pancreatic cysts

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12
Q

what are the four histologic classifications of chondrosarcomas

A

1.) hyaline producing (conventional)
2.) clear cell
3.) differentiated
4.) mesenchymal

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13
Q

what is the most common form of osteochondroma (exostosis)

A

solitary

Think osteochondromas are solid

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14
Q

what is subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervian)

A

enlarged thyroid that mostly affects women with a history of upper respiratory infections
microscopy shows granulomas

Think granulomas make thyroid big

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15
Q

what is seen histologically in fibrous dysplasia

A

lack of osteoblastic rimming

Think rimmed osteoblasts have been diplaced in fibrous tissue

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16
Q

what is the gross appearance of an oligodendroglioma

A

gelatinous with cysts, focal hemorrhage, and calcification

Think oligo is like jello

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17
Q

chronic endometritis is associated with which four conditions

A

chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
retained gestational tissue
IUDs
tuberculosis

Think about what endometritis really is

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18
Q

what is the most common type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

mycosis fungoides

Think my cutaneous is most common

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19
Q

what is seen histologically in a non-ossifying fibroma

A

storiform pattern due to benign spindle cells

Think starry night as it tries but fails to ossify

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20
Q

what are the four main histologic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

1.) synovial cell hyperplasia
2.) angiogenesis
3.) exudate
4.) osteoclastic activity

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21
Q

in which condition would you see feathery degeneration

A

advanced cholestasis

Think chloe was a bird and wanted to fly away

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22
Q

which variant of renal cell carcinoma has the worst prognosis

A

medullary

Think the kidney has a medulla

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23
Q

which two gene mutations can lead to papillary urothelial neoplasms

A

RAS and FGFR3

Think ridiculous ass sissies whining about papillary urothelilal

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24
Q

in which condition would you see perinuclear halos and nuclear pleomorphism

A

chromophobe carcinoma

Think halos of chrome

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25
Q

what are the two types of parathyroid cells

A

chief and oxyphil cells

Think chilef paragliders need oxyphil to clean their clothes

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26
Q

what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults in the US

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Think focus on what causes nephrotic syndrome in adults

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27
Q

which three locations have the least amount of collateral flow within the brain

A

1.) thalamus
2.) basal ganglia
3.) deep white matter

Think eating more thyme and basil will help with collateral flow

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28
Q

which two infections are known to cause corneal ulceration

A

HSV and zoster

Think roosters with herpes have corneal ulcerations

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29
Q

what are the four subtypes of a rhabdomyosarcoma

A

1.) alveolar
2.) embryonal
3.) pleomorphic
4.) spindle cell/sclerosing

Think rhabdo is common in children who are spun around and can’t breathe

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30
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with which condition

A

celiac disease

Think you can’t eat gluten if you have herpes

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31
Q

cataracts are associated with which four conditions

A

1.) diabetes mellitus
2.) Wilson disease
3.) radiation
4.) trauma

Think Wilson loved own who had diabetes and radiation trauma

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32
Q

what is the hallmark of the lobular variant of invasive (infiltrating) breast carcinoma

A

dyscohesive infiltration tumor cells with no tubular formation

Think tubes were lopped off

33
Q

which condition of the liver often shows a central scar

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

Think the focus is all on the central scar

34
Q

what is Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

A

increased bone mass due to new bone that is abnormally shaped, weak, and brittle
leads to a thickened cortex

Think we need more thick people in Pagents

35
Q

which stain is used to differentiate for an adrenocorticotrophic hormone producing pituitary adenoma (chromophobe)

A

PAS

Think PASS on a chromophobe

36
Q

pancreatoblastomas are associated with which condition

A

beckwith-weidmann syndrome

Think beck’s pancreas was going to blast away from all the taco bell

37
Q

what would be seen on a touch prep for a leydig cell tumor

A

crystalloids of Reinke

Think Carrie will only ley with Reinke who has crystals

38
Q

what are the three most common locations for a cavernous malformation

A

1.) cerebellum
2.) pons
3.) subcortical region

Think there is a cave in the pond where you need to ring the bell

39
Q

what are pigment stones made out of

A

bilirubin calcium salts

Think rubins with calcium and salt are made from pigs

40
Q

what are the two main things seen in the glomerulus of someone with diabetic nephropathy

A

basement membrane thickening
kimmelstiel wilson nodules

Think Jimmy Kimmel is a diabetic who hides in his thick basement

41
Q

psoriatic arthritis mostly affects which three things

A

sacroiliac joint, hands, and feet

Think my hands, feet, and sacro joints are psore from carrying ass

42
Q

Homer-Wright rosettes are commonly seen in which condition

A

primitive neuroectodermal tumors

Think Homer simpson was firstly neurotic

43
Q

what is the second most common primary liver tumor

A

cholangiocarcinoma

Think 2nd most un-wanted job coal mining

44
Q

what are the two main types of complex soft tissue tumors

A

leiomyosarcomas
undifferentiated sarcomas

Think leiomyosarcoma is complex

45
Q

what are the two hallmarks of gliosis

A

Rosenthal fibers and corpora amylacea

Think roses make people gleeful

46
Q

what is seen histologically 10 days after an acute cerebral infarct

A

foamy macrophages and reactive gliosis with neovascularization

Think after 10 days, my cup get’s foamy with mold

47
Q

what is the least common type of breast cancer in terms of hormone receptors

A

HER2+

Think it’s rare to have a her that’s positive

48
Q

what are the two main things seen histologically in aseptic meningitis

A

1.) perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes
2.) microglial nodules

Think you need cuffs to go into a septic tank

49
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause acute pyogenic meningitis in older adults

A

1.) strep. pneumo
2.) listeria

Think older adults are hysteric

50
Q

what two things do atypical pituitary adenomas have

A

TP53 mutation and brisk mitotic activity

Think it’s atypical for 53 year olds to walk briskly

51
Q

complex sclerosing lesions have components of what

A

sclerosing adenosis
papillomas
epithelial hyperplasia

52
Q

what is the most common type of embryonal neoplasm of the brain

A

medulloblastoma within the cerebellum

53
Q

which viral protein interferes with the tumor suppressor protein RB and can contribute to cervical cancer

A

E7

Think i wanted 7-11 RB (really bad)

54
Q

what is the most common location for capillary telangiectasis

A

pons

Think your thinking cap

55
Q

which two conditions are associated with enchondromas

A

Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome

56
Q

which four conditions are associated with fungal infections of the female genital tract

A

diabetes mellitus
antibiotics
pregnancy
being immunocompromised

57
Q

what is hyalinosis

A

deposition of eosinophilic protein material

58
Q

what is the histologic hallmark of Parkinson disease

A

alpha-synuclein that forms Lewy bodies and Lewy inclusions

Think we park in lewyville tonight

59
Q

which gene mutation is most common in serous (type 2) endometrial carcinoma

A

TP53

60
Q

what it the most common intraocular malignancy of adults

A

metastasis (typically choroid) to the uvea (uveal melanoma)

61
Q

which gene mutation is most responsible for osteosarcomas

A

TP53

62
Q

which three organisms most commonly cause chronic bacterial meningoencephalitis

A

1.) TB
2.) syphilis (treponema)
3.) borrelia (Lyme disease)

63
Q

what is the histologic hallmark of mycosis fungoides

A

epidermotropism

64
Q

which area of the brain is at most risk for watershed infarct

A

area between anterior and middle cerebral artery

65
Q

Q
what are the 3 key microscopic features of an adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma

A

1.) squamous cells with peripheral palisading
2.) stellate reticulum
3.) wet keratin

66
Q

how do ER-, HER2- cancers develop

A

because of BRCA1 mutations

67
Q

acquired cystic disease increases your risk of which disease at a 100-fold increase

A

RCC

68
Q

what can be seen histologically in oligodendrocyte injury

A

nuclear viral inclusions or cytoplasmic inclusions

69
Q

how do HER2+ cancers develop

A

due to TP53 mutations

70
Q

which stain is used to diagnose multiple sclerosis

A

Luxol fast blue periodic acid-Schiff stain

Think blue sclera

71
Q

the most common metastatic tumors of the breast are from which two locations

A

skin (melanoma)
ovarian cancer

72
Q

what is the macroscopic presentation of chronic pancreatitis

A

parenchymal fibrosis with proteinaceous plugs

73
Q

what is the most common type of mastocytosis

A

cutaneous

74
Q

renal cell carcinoma is associated with which condition

A

von-Hippel Lindau

75
Q

what is the most common benign bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

76
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

impaction of stones within the common bile duct (choledocholithiasis)

77
Q

what is multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome

A

multiple osteochondromas that occur closer to the growth plate

78
Q

what is seen histologically in primary CNS lymphoma

A

malignant cells around vessels and necrosis

79
Q

which two conditions can increase your risk of a bone neoplasm

A

chronic osteomyelitis
Paget disease

Basic Human Pathology 2 (14 decks)

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