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Basic Human Pathology 2 > (1) Final Exam - Don't Knows > Flashcards

(1) Final Exam - Don't Knows Flashcards

1
Q

which two stains help to differentiate squamous cell carcinoma

A

p63 and CK34

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2
Q

what are pautrier microabscesses and in which condition are they seen

A

-CD4 cells accumulate in dermis around langerhans cells
-seen in mycosis fungoides

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3
Q

what is the histologic hallmark of mycosis fungoides

A

epidermotropism

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4
Q

what is lamellar ichthyosis

A

recessive, X-linked type of ichthyosis that is most severe

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5
Q

what is dermatitis herpetiformis

A

inflammatory blistering disorder caused by autoantibodies to IgG

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6
Q

what is the most common type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

mycosis fungoides

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7
Q

in which condition can spongiotic dermatosis (edema that seeps into the intercellular spaces of the epidermis) be seen

A

acute eczematous dermatitis

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8
Q

what is ichthyosis vulgaris

A

dominant type of ichthyosis that may be associated with lymphoid and visceral malignancies

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9
Q

what is the most common type of mastocytosis

A

cutaenous

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10
Q

what is parakeratosis

A

rapid thickening of stratum corneum with retained nuclei

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11
Q

where are verruca plana most often found

A

face or dorsal surfaces of the hands

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12
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with which condition

A

celiac disease

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13
Q

which types of HPV cause anogenital warts

A

6 and 11

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14
Q

psoriasis is often associated with which condition

A

arthritis

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15
Q

what is the staging system for squamous cell carcinoma

A

clarks

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16
Q

what are the four stages of rosacea

A

flushing (pre-rosacea)
persistent erythema and telangiectasia
pustules and papules
rhinopehyma (thickening of nasal skin)

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17
Q

what does an adrenocorticotrophic hormone producing pituitary adenoma (chromophobe) present with

A

Cushing syndrome and hyperpigmentation

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18
Q

where does the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) arise from

A

rathke’s pouch

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19
Q

what are thyrotrophs and what do they produce

A

anterior pituitary basophilic cells that produce TSH

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20
Q

what are the 6 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary

A

TSH
ACTH
LH
FSH
HGH (human growth hormone)
prolactin

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21
Q

what is the other name for a growth hormone producing pituitary adenoma

A

somatotroph adenoma

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22
Q

what are the 3 key microscopic features of an adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma

A

1.) squamous cells with peripheral palisading
2.) stellate reticulum
3.) wet keratin

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23
Q

what are the three cell types of the posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis)

A

pituicytes (glial cells)
axon processes from hypothalamus
herring bodies

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24
Q

what do the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland do

A

make calcitonin

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25
Q

what are the four main types of thyroid carcinomas

A

papillary
follicular
anaplastic
medullary

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26
Q

what is pituitary cachexia (Simmonds disease)

A

destruction or physiological exhaustion of pituitary
can be caused by things like syphilis, TB, tumor, etc.
affects the thyroid, adrenals, and gonads

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27
Q

what is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

having one or more gastrinomas

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28
Q

which hormone inhibits growth hormone

A

somatostatin

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29
Q

patients with which mutations will get a prophylactic thyroidectomy to protect them from medullary carcinoma

A

RET mutations

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30
Q

which stain is used to differentiate for an adrenocorticotrophic hormone producing pituitary adenoma (chromophobe)

A

PAS

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31
Q

what are the two types of parathyroid cells

A

chief and oxyphil cells

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32
Q

what two things do atypical pituitary adenomas have

A

TP53 mutation and brisk mitotic activity

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33
Q

what is subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervian)

A

enlarged thyroid that mostly affects women with a history of upper respiratory infections
microscopy shows granulomas

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34
Q

what is a critical feature of a hyperfunctioning toxic adenoma

A

intact capsule

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35
Q

what is Conn Syndrome

A

hypertension caused by overproduction of aldosterone
can present with an aldosterone secreting carcinoma

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36
Q

what are the three cells types of the pineal gland

A

pinealocytes
astrocytes
corpora arenacea

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37
Q

what is froehlich syndrome (adiposogenital dystrophy)

A

damage to the hypothalamus leads to obesity, atrophy of gonads, etc.

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38
Q

which two types of anterior pituitary cells are acidophilic

A

somatotrophs and lactotrophs

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39
Q

which condition has papillary infoldings and peripheral scalloping on microscopy

A

Graves disease

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40
Q

what are the two categories of WHO classifications for serous cystic neoplasms

A

serous cystadenoma (benign)
serous cystadenocarcinoma (malignant)

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41
Q

what is the macroscopic presentation of acute pancreatitis

A

fat necrosis

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42
Q

pancreatoblastomas are associated with which condition

A

beckwith-weidmann syndrome

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43
Q

what is the macroscopic presentation of chronic pancreatitis

A

parenchymal fibrosis with proteinaceous plugs

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44
Q

what is the most important diagnostic feature of a mucinous cystic neoplasm

A

ovarian-type stroma beneath the epithelium

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45
Q

what is the most common neoplastic cyst of the pancreas

A

intraductal papillary neoplasia

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46
Q

which two viruses can cause acute pancreatitis

A

mumps
coxsackievirus

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47
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

impaction of stones within the common bile duct (choledocholithiasis)

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48
Q

what are the two conditions associated with pancreatic cysts

A

polycystic kidney disease
von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome

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49
Q

what could you see under the microscope in the pancreas of a patient with diabetes mellitus

A

amyloid deposits

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50
Q

what are the two types of mucin producing cystic neoplasms

A

mucinous cystic neoplasm (MCN)
intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN)

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51
Q

what is the most common type of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor

A

insulinoma

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52
Q

what are the three types of cystic exocrine pancreatic neoplasms

A

serous cystic
mucinous cystic
intraductal papillairy

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53
Q

what do the small pancreatic ducts release

A

biocarbonate fluid

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54
Q

85-90% of all pancreatic neoplasms are what

A

ductal adenocarcinoma

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55
Q

what are the three types of non-cystic exocrine pancreatic neoplasms

A

pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia
ductal adenocarcinoma
acinar cell carcinoma

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56
Q

onion-skin is seen in which condition

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

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57
Q

what is the most common form of liver disease

A

hepatic steatosis

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58
Q

what is the most common benign liver tumor

A

cavernous hemangioma

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59
Q

what are the two distinguishing microscopic features of autoimmune hepatitis

A

hepatic rosettes
plasma cells

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60
Q

in which condition would you see feathery degeneration

A

advanced cholestasis

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61
Q

what is the second most common primary liver tumor

A

cholangiocarcinoma

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62
Q

what are the two most common causes of multi-lobulated necrosis of the liver

A

acetaminophen toxicity and acute viral hepatitis

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63
Q

which condition is associated with primary biliary cholangitis

A

sjogren syndrome

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64
Q

what is the most common cause of cholestasis

A

sepsis

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65
Q

what is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

chronic liver disease

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66
Q

what can fully developed cases of hemochromatosis lead to

A

diabetes mellitus and abnormal skin pigmentation

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67
Q

what is primary biliary cholangitis

A

inflammation and destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts which leads to fibrosis

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68
Q

who is most affected by type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

middle-age/older individuals

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69
Q

which condition of the liver often shows a central scar

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

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70
Q

what are pigment stones made out of

A

bilirubin calcium salts

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71
Q

what is the cause of chronic passive congestion of the liver “nutmeg liver”

A

right-sided heart failure

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72
Q

define acute liver failure

A

liver disease that produces hepatic encephalopathy within 6 months of the initial diagnosis

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73
Q

what are three causes of sinusoidal obstruction syndrome

A

Jamaican bush tea
stem cell transplantation
chemotherapy

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74
Q

what are the two main types of gallstones

A

cholesterol and pigment stones

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75
Q

what are the three main mechanisms of liver injury

A

cholestasis
necrosis
apoptotic death

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76
Q

what is the most common cause of focal nodular hyperplasia

A

alterations in hepatic parenchymal blood supply
ex. arteriovenous malformations

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77
Q

a hepatoblastoma is associated with which two conditions

A

FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis) and Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

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78
Q

what are the two most common causes of neonatal cholestasis

A

primary biliary atresia (stricture) and neonatal hepatitis

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79
Q

what are the three causes of bile duct obstruction in adults

A

extrahepatic cholelithiasis (gallstones)
malignant obstructions
post surgical strictures

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80
Q

what are the two major risk factors of hepatic venous outflow obstructions

A

pregnancy and oral contraceptives

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81
Q

wilms tumors are made of which three things

A

blastema
stromal
epithelial cells

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82
Q

renal agenesis is most commonly associated with which genetic condition

A

trisomy 13 (Downs syndrome)

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83
Q

what is minimal change disease

A

thinning of the podocytes only seen by electron microscopy

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84
Q

which condition is often caused by polycystic disease

A

hypertension

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85
Q

40% of patients with polycystic kidney disease also have which disease

A

polycystic liver disease

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86
Q

what are the two main types of hereditary nephritis

A

alport syndrome
thin basement membrane

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87
Q

which tumor can be described as mahogany

A

oncocytoma

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88
Q

what is urate nephropathy

A

uric acid crystals in the renal tubules (collective ducts) which causes obstructions and can lead to acute renal failure

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89
Q

a T1 kidney tumor is how big in size

A

7 cm or less

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90
Q

acquired cystic disease increases your risk of which disease at a 100-fold increase

A

renal cell carcinoma

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91
Q

what is the most common origin of pyelonephritis

A

ascending infection

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92
Q

what are the four types of calculi

A

calcium oxalate
struvite
uric acid
cystine

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93
Q

what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults in the US

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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94
Q

what is seen in type 2 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

intramembranous dense deposits due to compliment cascade activation

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95
Q

what is hyalinosis

A

deposition of eosinophilic protein material

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96
Q

what is Alport syndrome

A

type 4 collagen causes irregular basement membrane thickening

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97
Q

what are two secondary causes of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A

HIV and obesity

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98
Q

what is seen in light chain cast nephropathy (myeloma kidney)

A

bence jones proteins

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99
Q

what are the four basic pathological responses to glomerular injury

A

sclerosis
hyalinosis
hypercellularity
basement membrane thickening

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100
Q

renal cell carcinoma is associated with which condition

A

von-Hippel Lindau

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101
Q

what is HIV-associated nephropathy

A

collapsing variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
shows collapsing of tuft

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102
Q

sickle cell nephropathy causes what three clinical manifestations

A

hematuria
proteinuria
diminished concentrating ability

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103
Q

wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) is associated with which three conditions

A

WAGR
Denys-drash
beckwith-wiedman syndrome

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104
Q

what is the second most common cause of renal artery stenosis

A

fibromuscular displasia

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105
Q

what is the most important microscopic feature of chronic pyelonephritis

A

tubular thyroidization

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106
Q

what does the EM of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis show

A

loss of podocyte foot processes

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107
Q

which variant of renal cell carcinoma has the worst prognosis

A

medullary

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108
Q

what is the leading cause of renal failure in the US

A

diabetic nephropathy

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109
Q

what are the two main things seen in the glomerulus of someone with diabetic nephropathy

A

basement membrane thickening
kimmelstiel wilson nodules

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110
Q

which portion of the glomerulus is affected by focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A

capillary tuft

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111
Q

what are the two most common gross features of acute pyelonephritis

A

papillary necrosis and micro-abscesses

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112
Q

in which condition would you see perinuclear halos and nuclear pleomorphism

A

chromophobe carcinoma

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113
Q

minimal change disease is a common occurrence with what

A

corticosteroid therapy

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114
Q

what is xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A

rare form of chronic pyelonephritis that can produce stag horn calculi

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115
Q

what is another name for bile cast nephropathy

A

cholemic necrosis

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116
Q

which condition of the bladder is most common in renal transplant recipients

A

nephrogenic adenoma

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117
Q

embryonal carcinoma most commonly affects males of which age range

A

20-30 years old

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118
Q

what is malakoplakia of the bladder

A

chronic inflammatory reaction of the bladder
common in renal transplant cases and immunocompromised patients

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119
Q

what would be seen on a touch prep for a leydig cell tumor

A

crystalloids of Reinke

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120
Q

Sertoli cell tumors are associated with which three syndromes

A

carney complex
peutz-jeghers syndrome
FAP

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121
Q

leydig cell tumors most commonly affect males of which age range

A

20-60

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122
Q

what is the gross appearance of a leydig cell tumor

A

homogenous, golden-brown and lobulated

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123
Q

what is an important microscopic feature of a Sertoli cell tumor

A

cord-like structures

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124
Q

which two infections most commonly affect the epididymis

A

gonorrhea and TB

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125
Q

what is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in infants and children

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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126
Q

germ cell tumors of the testicle most commonly affects males of which age range

A

15-45 years old

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127
Q

which two cells types are common in a choriocarcinoma

A

trophoblastic cells and syncytiotrophoblasts

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128
Q

what is the most common benign paratesticular (adnexal) tumor

A

adenomatoid tumor

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129
Q

what are the two main categories of bladder malignancy

A

epithelial and mesenchymal

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130
Q

which stain is used to look for Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

van kossa stain

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131
Q

condyloma acuminatum is most commonly caused by which strains of HPV

A

6+11

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132
Q

what is a common microscopic feature of a seminoma

A

polyhedral cells

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133
Q

a pT3 testicular tumor involves what

A

spermatic cord

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134
Q

what are the two main types of mesenchymal bladder tumors

A

benign (leiomyomas) and sarcomas

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135
Q

what is the gross appearance of interstitial cystitis

A

mucosal fissures and petechial hemorrhage

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136
Q

which stain cause be used to differentiate yolk sac tumors

A

AFP

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137
Q

what is another name for a yolk sac tumor

A

endodermal sinus tumor

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138
Q

what are the four main types of bladder malignancy

A

urothelial (transitional)
SCC
mixed
adenocarcinoma

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139
Q

koilocytosis is seen in which condition

A

condyloma acuminatum

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140
Q

what are the two main types of sex cord stromal tumors

A

leydig and Sertoli cell tumors

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141
Q

what is the most malignant paratesticular tumor in adults

A

liposarcoma

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142
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age

A

yolk sac tumor

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143
Q

which two genes mutations can lead to carcinoma in situ of the bladder

A

TP53 and RB

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144
Q

which gene mutation causes a seminoma

A

C-KIT

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145
Q

in which condition would you see Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

malakoplakia

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146
Q

which two gene mutations can lead to papillary urothelial neoplasms

A

RAS and RGRF3

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147
Q

what is a Schiller-duval body

A

glomerulus like structure composed of a central blood vessel enveloped by tumor cells

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148
Q

anovulation is less commonly associated with which three things

A

endocrine disorders
ovarian lesions
metabolic disturbances

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149
Q

what is the most common malignancy of the ovary

A

serous tumor

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150
Q

what are the two groups of vulvar squamous cell carcinoma

A

basaloid and warty carcinoma
keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

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151
Q

what are the three main types of type 2 endometrial carcinoma

A

serous
clear cell
malignant mixed mullerian

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152
Q

what is squamous cell hyperplasia of the vulva

A

condition caused from rubbing or scratching of the skin
presents as leukoplakia
benign - not premalignant

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153
Q

myometrial leiomyosarcomas metastasize most commonly to which four locations

A

lungs
bone
brain
abdominal cavity

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154
Q

what are three microscopic features of lichen sclerosus of the vulva

A

thinning of the epidermis
degeneration of basal epithelial cells
hyperkeratosis

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155
Q

urogenital sinus becomes what in females

A

lower vagina
external genitalia

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156
Q

which three things cause contribute to preeclampsia

A

1.) abnormal placental vasculature
2.) endothelial dysfunction
3.) coagulation abnormalities

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157
Q

what is the risk percentage for developing choriocarcinoma from a complete hydatidiform mole

A

2.5%

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158
Q

what is the main microscopic feature of molluscum contagiosum

A

handerson-patterson bodies

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159
Q

what is type 2 endometrial carcinoma

A

two main varients: serous and clear cell
arise in atropic uteri
poorly differentiated
fast growing

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160
Q

which gene is mutated in 20% of endometrial hyperplasia cases

A

PTEN

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161
Q

what is the second and third most common sites for endometriosis

A

uterine ligaments and rectovaginal septum respectively

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162
Q

dysgerminomas are most commonly seen in which age range of women

A

20-30 years of age

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163
Q

mucinous epithelial ovarian tumors often have which gene mutation

A

KRAS

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164
Q

how are leiomyosarcomas differentiated from leiomyomas

A

nuclear atypia
mitotic index
tumor necrosis

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165
Q

what are vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia and squamous cell carcinoma associated with

A

high risk HPV infections

166
Q

what are the two types of vuvlar glandular neoplastic lesions

A

papillary hidradenoma
extramammary Paget disease

167
Q

what is the most common histological subtype of cervical carcinoma

A

SCC

168
Q

who is most likely to be affected by preeclampsia

A

primipara women (those pregnant for the first time)

169
Q

which three organisms can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae
chlamydia
infections spread through lymphatics after delivery (ex. strep/staph)

170
Q

what are the two infections of pre-term labor

A

ureaplasma urealyticum and mycoplasma hominis

171
Q

what are the four types of endothelial malignant mixed mullerian tumors (carcinosarcomas)

A

stromal sarcoma
leiomyosarcoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
chondrosarcoma

172
Q

which condition would you see “worm-like plugs”

A

endometrial stromal sarcoma - caused by myometrial veins

173
Q

at which week is preeclampsia most common

A

34

174
Q

what is papillary hidradenoma

A

a type of vulvar glandular neoplastic lesion
mostly found on labia majora or interlabial folds
ulcerates

175
Q

endometriosis increases your risk for which two types of ovarian cancer by 3x

A

endometroid and clear cell

176
Q

what are Gartner duct cysts

A

cysts from wolffian (mesonephric) ducts on the lateral walls of the vagina

177
Q

what differentiates an endometrioid epithelial ovarian tumor from a mucinous or serous one

A

presence of tubular glands resembling benign or malignant endometrium

178
Q

what is an ovarian polyembryoma

A

a malignant germ cell tumor containing embryoid bodies

179
Q

the most common extra mullerian tumors metastatic to the ovary are

A

breast and GI

180
Q

what are the four main types of benign exophytic vulva lesions

A

condyloma acuminatum
syphillitic condyloma latum
fibroepithelial polyps
vulvar squamous papillomas

181
Q

which three types of gene mutations are seen in malignant mixed mullerian tumors

A

PTEN
TP53
PIK3CA

182
Q

what is ovarian pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

type of mucinous ovarian cancer
characterized by: mucinous ascites, cystic peritoneal surfaces and adhesions
typically arises from the appendix but can start in the ovaries

183
Q

which viral protein interferes with the tumor suppressor protein RB and can contribute to cervical cancer

A

E7

184
Q

what three main things does endometriosis cause

A

bleeding
fibrous adhesions
cystic ovaries (chocolate cysts)

185
Q

what are the two most common types of ovarian germ cell tumors

A

struma ovarii and carcinoid

186
Q

chronic endometritis is associated with which four conditions

A

chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
retained gestational tissue
IUDs
tuberculosis

187
Q

what is the most common type of type 2 endometrial carcinoma

A

serous

188
Q

what is the most common invasive cancer of the female genital tract

A

endometrial carcinoma

189
Q

Schiller-duval bodies are seen in which condition

A

yolk sac tumors

190
Q

which three infections commonly cause discomfort of the reproductive tract

A

candida (yeast)
trichomonas (parasite)
gardnerella

191
Q

what are some features of vulvular keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

A

a more common type of squamous cell carcinoma
70% not HPV related
most common in older patients

192
Q

which strain of HPV accounts for 10% of cervical cancer cases

A

HPV 18

193
Q

what is the most common type of ovarian cancer

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

194
Q

which gene mutation is unique to uterine smooth muscle tumors

A

MED12

195
Q

which gene mutation is most common in serous (type 2) endometrial carcinoma

A

TP53

196
Q

which four conditions are associated with fungal infections of the female genital tract

A

diabetes mellitus
antibiotics
pregnancy
being immunocompromised

197
Q

endometerial stromal sarcomas are associated with which type of mutations

A

translocations

198
Q

what are the two types of pure stroma neoplasms of the endometrium

A

benign stromal nodules
endometrial stromal sarcomas

199
Q

PCOS can often overlap with which condition

A

stromal hyperthecosis

200
Q

what are the three other names for squamous metaplasia of lactiferous ducts (SMOLD)

A

recurrent subareolar abscess
periductal mastitis
zuska disease

201
Q

what is the other name for large cell ductal carcinoma in-situ

A

comedocarcinoma

202
Q

what is the radiologic appearance of Paget disease

A

rod-like microcalcs

203
Q

what is squamous metaplasia of lactiferous ducts (SMOLD)

A

keratin plug in duct causes abscess

204
Q

which syndrome can be associated with male breast cancer

A

kleinfelter

205
Q

what are the 7 variants of invasive (infiltrating) breast carcinoma

A

mucinous (colloid)
papillary
inflammatory
metaplastic
tubular
apocrine
lobular

206
Q

what is the main grading system for invasive (infiltrating) breast carcinoma

A

(scarff) Bloom-Richard grading system

207
Q

what is an apocrine breast carcinoma

A

variant of invasive (infiltrating) carcinoma
shows punctate nucleoli

208
Q

what is one of the biggest risks of developing breast cancer

A

estrogen exposure

209
Q

which gene mutation is most common in lobular carcinoma in-situ

A

E-cadherin (CDH1) mutation

210
Q

what is epithelial hyperplasia of the breast

A

a type of proliferative breast disease without atypia
increased numbers of luminal and myoepithelial cells within the ducts

211
Q

what is the least common type of breast cancer in terms of hormone receptors

A

HER2+

212
Q

how do ER-, HER2- cancers develop

A

because of BRCA1 mutations

213
Q

what is duct ectasia

A

white nipple secretions that present as a palpable periareolar mass

214
Q

the most common metastatic tumors of the breast are from which two locations

A

skin (melanoma)
ovarian cancer

215
Q

what are the two types of metaplastic breast carcinoma

A

matrix producing carcinoma
spindle cell carcinoma

216
Q

complex sclerosing lesions have components of what

A

sclerosing adenosis
papillomas
epithelial hyperplasia

217
Q

what is unique about lobular carcinoma in-situ

A

no calcifications

218
Q

where is the BRCA2 gene mutation located

A

13q12-13 chromosome

219
Q

what is important to note about the papillary projections in papillary and micropapillary non-comedo ductal carcinoma in-situ

A

the projections lack fibrovascular cores

220
Q

what is sclerosing adenosis

A

a type of proliferative breast disease without atypia
increased number of acini

221
Q

having a first-degree relative with breast cancer increases your risk by which percentage

A

15-20%

222
Q

what is the hallmark of the lobular variant of invasive (infiltrating) breast carcinoma

A

dyscohesive infiltration tumor cells with no tubular formation

223
Q

what is the histologic appearance of cribriform non-comedo ductal carcinoma in-situ

A

rounded (cookie cutter like) spaces filled with calcified material

224
Q

which two conditions are associated with lymphocytic mastopathy (sclerosing lymphocytic lobulitis)

A

type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease

225
Q

what are the four major known susceptible genes for familiar breast cancer

A

BRCA1
BRCA2
TP53
CHEK2

226
Q

what is the most common gross and microscopic feature of a breast fibroadenoma

A

slit-like spaces

227
Q

which two types of ductal carcinoma in-situ can produced nipple discharge

A

micropapillary and papillary

228
Q

how do HER2+ cancers develop

A

due to TP53 mutations

229
Q

what are the four types of non-comedo ductal carcinoma in-situ

A

micropapillary
papillary
solid
cribriform

230
Q

what is the most common sarcoma in the breast

A

angiosarcoma

231
Q

what is the most common type of breast cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

232
Q

what are the two main microscopic features of comedo ductal carcinoma in-situ

A

pleomorphic, high grade nuclei
central necrosis

233
Q

how big is a typical non-ossifying fibroma

A

5-6 cm

234
Q

what are the 5 subclassifications of lipomas

A

1.) conventional
2.) fibrolipoma
3.) angiolipoma
4.) spindle cell
5.) myelolipoma

235
Q

reactive arthritis can be associated with which three conditions

A

1.) HIV
2.) chlamydia
3.) GI tract infections

236
Q

what is an osteoblastoma

A

benign bone tumor
greater than 2 cm
mostly affects the spine
causes deformation

237
Q

pseudogout crystals are made of what

A

calcium pyrophosphate

238
Q

superficial fibromatoses mostly affects men or women

A

men

239
Q

which five conditions are associated with metastatic bone tumors in children

A

1.) neuroblastoma
2.) Wilms tumor
3.) osteosarcoma
4.) Ewing sarcoma
5.) rhabdomyosarcoma

240
Q

which class of drugs is used to treat osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonates - reduce osteoclast activity

241
Q

what are the two main types of complex soft tissue tumors

A

leiomyosarcomas
undifferentiated sarcomas

242
Q

which four conditions are associated with soft tissue tumors

A

1.) neurofibromatosis 1
2.) gardner syndrome
3.) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
4.) Olser-Weber Rendu syndrome

243
Q

flat bones develop through this process

A

intramembranous ossification

244
Q

what are the two main types of chondromas

A

enchondroma and juxtacortical chondroma

245
Q

what is fibrillation

A

characteristic of osteoarthritis
granular fissures and clefts in the cartilage

246
Q

what are the four histologic classifications of chondrosarcomas

A

1.) hyaline cartilage producing (conventional tumor)
2.) clear cell
3.) differentiated
4.) mesenchymal variants

247
Q

what are Heberden nodes

A

prominent osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints that are common in women

248
Q

what are the three phases of Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

A

1.) initial - osteolytic phase (breakdown)
2.) mixed osteoclastic and osteoblastic stage (build up)
3.) final - osteosclerotic stage (bone doesn’t solidify)

249
Q

what is psoriatic arthritis

A

chronic inflammatory arthropathy associated with psoriasis

250
Q

rheumatoid arthritic lesions are most commonly found in which four locations

A

1.) skin
2.) heart
3.) blood vessels
4.) lungs

251
Q

what role does the organic bone matrix play

A

collagen fibers gives bone its tensile strength

252
Q

which gene mutation is most responsible for osteosarcomas

A

TP53

253
Q

what are the two main types of benign bone forming tumors

A

osteoid osteoma
osteoblastoma

254
Q

what are the three most common forms of dyostosis

A

1.) absence of bone or digit (aplasia)
2.) extra bones or digits (supernumerary digit)
3.) abnormal fusion of bones (syndactyly)

255
Q

what is the most common form of osteochondroma (exostosis)

A

solitary

256
Q

how is a giant cell tumor of the bone treated

A

curettage

257
Q

what are the four subtypes of a rhabdomyosarcoma

A

1.) alveolar
2.) embryonal
3.) pleomorphic
4.) spindle cell/sclerosing

258
Q

what is the histologic appearance of pseudogout

A

rhomboid crystals

259
Q

a leiomyosarcoma is most commonly found in which two areas

A

extremities and retroperitoneum

260
Q

what are rheumatoid subcutaneous nodules

A

nodules that form in the case of RA in areas subjected to pressure

261
Q

what are three examples of exogenous crystals

A

1.) corticosteroid ester crystals
2.) talcum
3.) silicone

262
Q

what are the 4 things seen grossly in osteoarthritis

A

1.) fibrillation
2.) bone eburnation
3.) subchondral cysts
4.) osteophytes

263
Q

nodular fasciitis mostly affects which area of the body

A

upper extremities

264
Q

what is the important histologic feature of a primitive neuroectodermal tumor

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

265
Q

what is congenital syphilis

A

syphilis acquired from birth
spirochetes gather in areas of active ossification which leads to bowing of bone (saber shin)

266
Q

which two conditions are associated with enchondromas

A

Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome

267
Q

what is the most common form of dwarfism

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

268
Q

osteoarthritis most commonly affects what in women

A

hands and knees

269
Q

what is osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

A

reduced bone resorption due to issues with osteoclasts
leads to increased bone density as new, poor bone is being put down

270
Q

what are the three histologic subtypes of liposarcomas

A

1.) well differentiated
2.) myxoid
3.) pleomorphic

271
Q

what are the three metastatic ways of spread to the bone

A

1.) direct extension
2.) lymphatic/hematogenous
3.) intraspinal seeding (CSF)

272
Q

metastatic bone tumors in adults mostly come from which four location

A

1.) prostate
2.) breast
3.) kidney
4.) lung

273
Q

where is the gene mutation for Ewing sarcoma located

A

translocation of the EWSR1 gene on chromosome 22

274
Q

what are the two other names for osteopetrosis

A

marble bone disease
albers-schonberg

275
Q

what is a juxtacortical chondroma

A

benign tumor of hyaline cartilage which arises on the surface (cortex) of the bone

276
Q

what is the most common cause of achondroplasia

A

sporadic mutations in the paternal allele (90%)

277
Q

what is the histologic appearance of a pleomorphic liposarcoma

A

anaplastic cells and lipoblasts

278
Q

what is an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)

A

benign tumor that develops in the metaphysis of long bones and in the vertebral bodies

279
Q

what is Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

A

increased bone mass due to new bone that is abnormally shaped, weak, and brittle
leads to a thickened cortex

280
Q

what is an important feature of rheumatoid arthritis

A

pannus production

281
Q

which two conditions can increase your risk of a bone neoplasm

A

chronic osteomyelitis
Paget disease

282
Q

viral arthritis is associated with which 4 conditions

A

1.) rubella
2.) EBV
3.) HVB and HVC
4.) HIV

283
Q

what is seen histologically in an embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

A

spindle cells and myxoid stroma

284
Q

what is a bone eburnation

A

characteristic of osteoarthritis
exposed subchondral bone that appears like polished ivory due to friction

285
Q

those with Maffucci syndrome are at risk for developing which two types of malignancies

A

ovarian carcinomas and brain gliomas

286
Q

which subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma is most common

A

embryonal

287
Q

what is an osteoid osteoma

A

benign bone tumor
less than 2 cm
common in men
causes thickening of cortex
mostly affects femur or tibia

288
Q

what is a common sign of osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)

A

blue sclera

289
Q

what are the three main consequences of the bone due to hyperparathyroidism

A

1.) osteoporosis
2.) osteitis
3.) brown tumor

290
Q

what is seen histologically in a non-ossifying fibroma

A

storiform pattern due to benign spindle cells

291
Q

osteoporosis mostly affects which three parts of the body

A

1.) phalanges
2.) vertebrae
3.) proximal femur

292
Q

what is multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome

A

multiple osteochondromas that occur closer to the growth plate

293
Q

which two joints are most commonly affected by ankylosing spondylitis

A

sacroiliac and apophyseal joints

294
Q

what are the two main sites of chondrosarcomas and which is most common

A

central (intramedullary) and peripheral (juxtacortical)

295
Q

gout is associated with which four conditions

A

1.) alcohol
2.) obesity
3.) renal failure
4.) drugs

296
Q

what is seen histologically in fibrous dysplasia

A

lack of osteoblastic rimming

297
Q

what are the three main types of superficial fibromatoses

A

1.) palmar (dupuytren contracture)
2.) plantar
3.) penile (peyronie disease)

298
Q

osteoarthritis most commonly affects what in men

A

hips

299
Q

what is the pathognomonic feature of gout

A

tan-white chalky deposits

300
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)

A

a type 1 collagen deficiency disease
affects bone, joints, eyes, ears, skin, and teeth

301
Q

higher grade chondrosarcomas have which histologic feature

A

binucleation (dividing nuclei) of chondrocytes

302
Q

Homer-Wright rosettes are commonly seen in which condition

A

primitive neuroectodermal tumors

303
Q

where do osteosarcomas most commonly arise from

A

metaphysis region of long bones of the extremities - knee specifically

304
Q

Ewing sarcoma is grouped with which other condition into a single category

A

primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)

305
Q

in which condition would you see a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

A

Paget disease

306
Q

what are the two main types of simple bone soft tissue tumors

A

Ewing sarcoma
synovial sarcoma

307
Q

what is a common feature of osteosarcomas

A

codman triangle

308
Q

what are the five zones of a growth plate starting from the exterior

A

1.) reserve zone
2.) zone of proliferation
3.) zone of hypertrophy
4.) zone of mineralization
5.) primary spongiosa

309
Q

what are two examples of endogenous crystals

A

monosodium urate (gout)
calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (pseudogout)

310
Q

what is a common sign of osteopetrosis

A

Erlenmeyer flask bone deformity

311
Q

psoriatic arthritis mostly affects which three things

A

sacroiliac joint, hands, and feet

312
Q

what is the most common benign bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

313
Q

suppurative arthritis is seen often in which demographic of people

A

drug users

314
Q

what is osteopontin

A

extracellular structural protein that helps with bone formation

315
Q

what are the four main histologic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

1.) synovial cell hyperplasia
2.) angiogenesis
3.) exudate
4.) osteoclastic activity

316
Q

what is an important feature of psoriatic arthritis

A

pencil in cup deformity

317
Q

suppurative arthritis is often associated with which condition

A

osteomyelitis

318
Q

what is a verocay body

A

nuclear-free zones within a schwannoma

319
Q

what is seen histologically in dermatomyositis

A

myofiber atrophy at the edges of the fascicles (perifascicular atrophy)

320
Q

50% of those with Lamber-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome also have what

A

an underlying malignancy like small cell neuroendocrine tumor of the lung

321
Q

what additional condition is associated with Myasthenia gravis

A

thymic abnormalities (enlarged)

322
Q

what are plexiform neurofibromas

A

associated with nerve roots or large nerves
resemble a bag of worms as they grow and entrap axons

323
Q

what is seen histologically in polymyositis

A

necrotic, regenerating, and atrophic myofibers in a patchy distribution

324
Q

which two nerves are most commonly involved in the Varicella-Zoster Virus (shingles)

A

thoracic and trigeminal

325
Q

what is the most common cause of a drug myopathy

A

cholesterol lowering drugs like statins

326
Q

what is a subfalcine herniation

A

asymmetric expansion of cerebral hemisphere that displaces the cingulate gyrus under the falx
can cause compression of anterior cerebral artery

327
Q

what are three causes of cerebral infarcts caused by “other” things

A

1.) hypercoagulation states
2.) dissecting aneurysm of arteries in the neck
3.) drug abuse

328
Q

CSF tap of multiple sclerosis would show which two things

A

1.) mildly elevated protein
2.) elevated IgG levels

329
Q

cervical lesions above C4 can often causes what

A

respiratory compromise and paralysis of the diaphragm

330
Q

what does a microglial cell do

A

act as a phagocyte

331
Q

what is craniorachischisis

A

combination of ancenphaly and boney spinal defect

332
Q

which stain is used for the hairlike processes seen in a pilocytic astrocytoma

A

GFAP+

333
Q

what are the two hallmarks of gliosis

A

Rosenthal fibers and corpora amylacea

334
Q

what is seen histologically in a meningioma

A

psamomma bodies

335
Q

which two things can cause a hemorrhagic stroke

A

1.) hypertension
2.) vascular anomalies like aneurysms

336
Q

which two conditions can cause lacunar infarcts

A

1.) diabetes
2.) hypertension

337
Q

which stain is used to diagnose multiple sclerosis

A

Luxol fast blue periodic acid-Schiff stain

338
Q

fungal infections most often cause which three forms of CNS injury

A

1.) chronic meningitis
2.) vasculitis
3.) parenchymal invasion

339
Q

what are the three most common locations of a cerebral infarct caused by thrombus

A

1.) bifurcation of carotid arteries
2.) origin of middle cerebral artery
3.) end of basilar artery

340
Q

what is seen histologically in the beginning stages of acute ischemic injury of the brain

A

diffuse eosinophilia of shrinking neurons

341
Q

what is the gross appearance of an oligodendroglioma

A

gelatinous with cysts, focal hemorrhage, and calcification

342
Q

cerebral infarct caused by thrombus is often associated with which two conditions

A

1.) hypertension
2.) diabetes

343
Q

CMV affects the brain in which three ways

A

1.) periventricular necrosis
2.) microcephaly
3.) periventricular calcification

344
Q

which area of the brain is at most risk for watershed infarct

A

area between anterior and middle cerebral artery

345
Q

what are two examples of protozoal diseases that can affect the nervous system

A

1.) malaria
2.) toxoplasmosis

346
Q

what is the main cause of Huntington disease

A

degeneration of striatal neurons in basal ganglia

347
Q

what is Chiari type 1 malformation

A

low-lying cerebellar tonsils that extent into the vertebral canal

348
Q

what is the best indicator of neuronal injury

A

reactive glial cell changes

349
Q

what is a transtentorial herniation

A

compression of medial temporal lobe against free margin of tentorium
can cause compression of third cranial nerve (oculomotor) or the posterior cerebral artery which would affect the eyes

350
Q

what is cytotoxic edema

A

injury to cells causes secondary increase in intraceullar fluid
common in cases of obesity and diabetes
affects white and gray matter

351
Q

chicken wire appearance is associated with which condition

A

oligodendroglioma

352
Q

which condition can cause ependymal injury with viral inclusions

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

353
Q

what is the histologic appearance of an oligodendroglioma

A

anastomosing capillaries resembling chicken wire and granular chromatin

354
Q

what is the most common location of a diffusely infiltrating astrocytoma

A

cerebral hemispheres

355
Q

what usually causes a subdural empyema

A

bacterial infections of skull or air sinuses like sinusitis or osteomyelitis

356
Q

which syndrome is associated with acute pyogenic meningitis

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

357
Q

an extradural abscess is most commonly associated with which condition

A

osteomyelitis

358
Q

what are the three main causes of non-infectious vasculitis

A

1.) polyarteritis nodosa
2.) primary angitis of the CNS
3.) granulomatous angitis

359
Q

which three organisms most commonly cause chronic bacterial meningoencephalitis

A

1.) TB
2.) syphilis (treponema)
3.) borrelia (Lyme disease)

360
Q

what are pathognomonic to rabies

A

Negri bodies - inclusions found in pyramidal neurons of hippocampus and Purkinje cells of cerebellum

361
Q

what is seen grossly in the brain of someone with ethanol poisoning (chronic alcoholism)

A

1.) cerebral dysfunction
2.) atrophy and loss of granule cells in vermis

362
Q

what are the two main causes of infectious vasculitis

A

1.) syphilis
2.) TB

363
Q

what is a cavernous malformation

A

tightly packed, low flow vessels not associated with arteriovenous shunting

364
Q

what are the three steps to the breakdown of a subdural hematoma

A

1.) lysis of clot (1 week)
2.) growth of fibroblasts into hematoma (2 weeks)
3.) development of hyalinized connective tissue (1-3 months)

365
Q

what is Arnold-Chiari (type 2) malformation

A

abnormally small posterior fossa and misshapen midline extensions of vermis through foramen magnum
causes hydrocephalus and lumbar myelomeningocele

366
Q

what is seen grossly in someone with Huntington disease

A

atrophy of caudate nucleus and putamen

367
Q

what is a risk factor for the development of a meningioma

A

radiation therapy to head and neck

368
Q

what is the histologic hallmark of Parkinson disease

A

alpha-synuclein that forms Lewy bodies and Lewy inclusions

369
Q

which three types of neurons are most sensitive to hypoxia

A

1.) pyramidal cells of hippocampus
2.) purkinje cells of cerebral cortex
3.) pyramidal neurons in cerebral cortex

370
Q

what are the three main histologic features of a pilocytic astrocytoma

A

1.) hairline processes
2.) Rosenthal fibers
3.) mulberry like granular bodies

371
Q

what is the most common site of an arterivenous malformation

A

middle cerebral artery

372
Q

what can be seen histologically in oligodendrocyte injury

A

nuclear viral inclusions or cytoplasmic inclusions

373
Q

what is the most common type of embryonal neoplasm of the brain

A

medulloblastoma within the cerebellum

374
Q

a meningoencephalocele is associated with which condition

A

Meckel-Gruber syndrome

375
Q

which types of glial tumor has the best prognosis

A

oligodendroglioma

376
Q

what are the three main causes of macrocephaly and microcephaly

A

1.) chromosome abnormalities
2.) fetal alcohol syndrome
3.) HIV infection in utero

377
Q

Arnold-Chiari (type 2) malformation is associated with what

A

spina bifida

378
Q

which three locations have the least amount of collateral flow within the brain

A

1.) thalamus
2.) basal ganglia
3.) deep white matter

379
Q

what is the most common location for capillary telangiectasis

A

pons

380
Q

what are duret hemorrhages

A

secondary hemorrhagic lesions in the midbrain and pons due to progression herniation

381
Q

what is seen histologically in primary CNS lymphoma

A

malignant cells around vessels and necrosis

382
Q

what is the most common primary glioma

A

astrocytoma

383
Q

what is the most common genetic abnormality to cause a meningioma

A

loss of chromosome 22

384
Q

what does an astrocyte do

A

maintain blood brain barrier

385
Q

what are the 5 changes seen in acute neural injury (red neurons)

A

1.) shrinkage of cell body
2.) pyknosis of nucleus
3.) lack of nucleolus
4.) loss of Nissl substance
5.) eosinophilia of cytoplasm

386
Q

what is the main consequence of agenesis of the corpus callousum

A

prevents both sides of brain from communicating

387
Q

what is the microscopic feature of an ependymoma

A

perivascular pseudorosettes

388
Q

what is gliosis

A

injury of astrocytes that leads to hypertrophy and hyperplasia

389
Q

what are the three main causes of a paradoxical emboli

A

1.) cardiac anomalies in children
2.) cardiac surgery
3.) tumor, fat, or air

390
Q

what is hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A

compensatory increase in ventricular volume secondary to loss of brain parenchyma
ex. Alzheimer’s

391
Q

what is seen histologically 10 days after an acute cerebral infarct

A

foamy macrophages and reactive gliosis with neovascularization

392
Q

what are the two main things seen histologically in aseptic meningitis

A

1.) perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes
2.) microglial nodules

393
Q

who is most affected by cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

immunosuppressed individuals (HIV) and fetuses

394
Q

what are the three most common locations for a cavernous malformation

A

1.) cerebellum
2.) pons
3.) subcortical region

395
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause acute pyogenic meningitis in older adults

A

1.) strep. pneumo
2.) listeria

396
Q

what is Heubner arteritis

A

thickening and lymphocytic infiltration of intima seen in neurosyphilis

397
Q

what is Fuchs Endothelial Dystrophy

A

loss of endothelial cells of the cornea which results in stromal edema and bulbous keratopathy
treated with a corneal transplant

398
Q

which condition can cause significant conjunctival scarring

A

long standing, untreated chlamydia trachomamtic (trachoma)

399
Q

what is a common complication of uveitis

A

sarcoidosis

400
Q

keratoconus is associated with which two conditions

A

1.) Downs Syndrome
2.) Marfan Syndrome

401
Q

what it the most common intraocular malignancy of adults

A

metastasis (typically choroid) to the uvea (uveal melanoma)

402
Q

what is the most common cause of glaucoma

A

increase in ocular pressure

403
Q

what is the most common malignancy of the eyelid

A

basal cell carcinoma

404
Q

cataracts are associated with which four conditions

A

1.) diabetes mellitus
2.) Wilson disease
3.) radiation
4.) trauma

405
Q

what are the two histologic hallmarks of a retinoblastoma

A

1.) flexner-wintersteiner rossettes
2.) homer wright rosettes

406
Q

what is the most common conjunctival lesion

A

conjunctival nevus

407
Q

which two infections are known to cause corneal ulceration

A

HSV and zoster

408
Q

what is actinic band keratopathy

A

aggregates on eyeball due to chronic high level UV exposure

409
Q

the sclera may appear blue in which three conditions:

A

1.) high intraocular pressure
2.) osteogenesis imperfecta
3.) recurrent scleritis

410
Q

what are the three most common types of primary, vascular tumors of the orbit

A

1.) capillary hemangioma
2.) lymphangioma
3.) cavernous hemangioma

Basic Human Pathology 2 (14 decks)

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