Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Donny RAD POS ll > Lower Limb Exam Ch 6 > Flashcards

Lower Limb Exam Ch 6 Flashcards

60 questions review

1
Q

Exam Review:
For an AP stress study for an ankle, what would we not do to the foot?
Demonstrate a ligament tear
Rupture ligament
inversion/eversion
demonstrate a fracture of the tib fib

A

Not move the foot around due to the fracture of the Tibia and fibula
we would look at the ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Exam Review:
What is the difference between a mortise and an oblique ankle?

A

Mortise is rotated 15-20 degrees medially
Oblique ankle is rotated 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Exam Review:
Which rotation has the intermalleolar line parallel to the IR?

A

AP Mortise ankle
15-20 degree internal/medial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Exam Review:
What type of joint is the ankle?

A

Saddle or sellar Joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exam Review:
Which Malleoli is superior?

A

Medial Malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Exam Review:
Which tarsal bone makes up the mortise?

A

Talus?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Exam Review:
What is the CR for calcaneus?
Is it Cephalic or Caudad?

A

40 degrees Cephalic to the long axis of the foot
CR is at base of third metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Exam Review:
When you are positioning for a trauma lateral ankle what is necessary?
A. Ensure the plantar surface is in complete contact of the IR
B. Rotate the leg laterally so the leg is against the table
C. Ensure the plantar surface is perpendicular to the IR
D. Plantarflex the foot

A

C.
Ensure the plantar surface is perpendicular to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Exam Review:
When the patient is standing with the metatarsals of the foot in 90 degrees to the leg with a horizontal beam entering the lateral malleolus, which of the following of the weight-bearing projections?

A

Standing Lateromedial projection
(key: CR is entering in the lateral malleolus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Exam Review:
In the axial calcaneus the plantar surface of the foot should be ____ to the image receptor?

A

Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Exam Review:
The most posterior part of the calcaneus would be?
A. Sinus Tarsi
B. Tuberosity
C. Trochlear
D. Peritoneal

A

B. Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Exam Review:
How many views for the calcaneus?
What are the names?

A

2 views
Plantodorsal Axial Calcaneus
Lateral Calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Exam Review:
When performing a lateral for the 2nd digit, what side should be closest to the Image receptor?
Why?

A

Medial side
To reduce OID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exam Review:
Where is the sustentaculum tali?

A

medial proximal calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Exam Review: What does the medial cuneiform articulate with distally?

A

First metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Exam Review:
What does the metatarsal articulate with distally?

A

proximal phalanx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Exam Review:
Medial oblique foot would show:

A

sinus tarsi free of superimposition
(also cuboid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Exam Review:
What do the heads of the metatarsal articulate with distally?

A

proximal phalanx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Exam Review:
Where are the sesamoid bones located?

A

plantar surface of the first metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Exam Review:
What is Pes planus?

A

Flat foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Exam Review:
What does the base of the metatarsal articulate with?

A

Tarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exam Review:
If we are looking at a lateral foot, all of these are correct except for?
A. We include at least one inch of the distal tibia fibula
B. we want to visualize the foot from digit to calcaneus
C. The cuboid is free of superimposition
D. The heads of the metatarsals are superimposed

A

C.
The cuboid is free of superimposition
(we only see the cuboid slightly free of superimposition in mediolateral)
Medial oblique shows the cuboid free of superimposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Exam Review:
If we are looking for a foreign body do we angle the central ray?
Why?

A

No.
An angle can distort the object and elongate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Exam Review:
T/F
*The image critique for an oblique foot with lateral rotation we want to see the sinus tarsi free of superimposition.

A

False
(medial oblique would show the sinus tarsi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Exam Review:
If the patients foot cannot be flat for an AP projection, what would we do?
What is the angle?

A

We would use a wedge
No angle for this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Exam Review:
How many tarsal bones are in the foot?

A

7 tarsal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Exam Review:
*The lateral oblique foot best shows?

A

The base of the first metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Exam Review:
In the AP projection of the ankle the:
1. Plantar surface is perpendicular to the IR
2. The Fibula projects more distally than the tibia
3. The calcaneus is well-visualized

A

1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Exam Review:
AP ankle the plantar surface is ____ to the IR?

A

Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Exam Review:
Lateral foot the plantar surface is ____ to the IR?
How about standing?

A

Perpendicular supine
Parallel for standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Exam Review:
The second metatarsophalangeal joint is what kind of joint?

A

ellipsoid or condyloid
Synovial
Diarthrodial (freely moveable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Exam Review:
Which of the following joints is a fibrous syndesmosis Amphiarthodial (slightly moveable) joint?
A. Proximal interphalangeal
B. Talonavicular
C. Proximal tibiofibular
D. Distal Tibiofibular

A

D.
Distal Tibiofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Exam Review:
When would you best see a medial displacement fracture?
(bone protruding towards medial side)

A

AP view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Exam Review:
If there’s a posterior displacement, what view would best display that?

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Exam Review:
What is the name of the fracture for the base of the fifth metatarsal?

A

Jones or nightstand fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Exam Review:
What joint is most affected by gout?

A

First MTP joint
Form of arthritis (execessive blood in joint) that may be hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Exam Review:
What is the Don Juan fx?

A

fx in the calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Exam Review:
Osgood Slatter is?

A

inflammation of bone/cartilage of anterior proximal tibia (tibial tuberosity)
most common in boys 10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Exam Review:
Inversion:
AKA?

A

Inward turning/bending of the ankle
aka Varus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Exam Review:
Eversion:
AKA?

A

outward turning/bending of ankle
aka valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Exam Review:
Dorsiflexion:

A

Dorsal/anterior surface of foot flexed upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Exam Review:
Plantarflexion:

A

Posterior/Sole of foot is flexed downwards
(tippy toes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Posterior foot name:

A

Plantar surface
Sole of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Anterior foot name:

A

Dorsum pedis

45
Q

Exam Review:
*During most long bone exams, the part being radiographed should be _____ to the IR and ____ to the CR.

A

Parallel to IR
Perpendicular to CR

46
Q

Exam Review:
What is the superior portion of the foot called?

A

Dorsum Pedis

47
Q

Exam Review:
Is the dorsum pedis considered anterior or posterior part of the foot?

48
Q

Exam Review:
How many degrees for a lateral knee?

A

5-7 degrees cephalic

49
Q

Exam Review:
(T/F)
The lateral projection of the Tibia and Fibula the image should demonstrate some space in-between the Tibia and fibula.

A

True
(There should be some space in-between the tibia and fibula in lateral view)

50
Q

Exam Review:
*The placement of the top border of the IR should extend at least ___ inches from the knee joint to avoid being projected off due to beam divergence:
A. 4 - 4 1/2 inches
B. 3 - 3 1/2 inches
C. 2 - 2 1/2 inches
D. 1 - 1 1/2 inches

A

D.
1 - 1 1/2 inches

51
Q

Exam Review:
What is the CR for AP foot?
What is the angle?

A

base of 3rd metatarsal
10 degrees posteriorly

52
Q

Exam Review:
Which views do we use for patella?

A

Inferosuperior
Hughston
Settegast
Merchant
(Mayo uses Merchant)

53
Q

Exam Review:
What views do we use for intercondylar fossa?

A

Rosenburg
(PA flexion- for tunnel view)

54
Q

Exam Review:
Which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is the complete relaxation of the quadricep require for an accurate diagnosis?
1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)
2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston)

A
  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees
    (supine keyword, relaxes the Quads)
55
Q

Exam Review:
What is considered a shock absorber between the femoral condyle and the tibial articular casset?

56
Q

Exam Review:
If we are looking to see arthritic changes (arthritis) in the knee we want to see it:
1. recumbent
2. Erect
3. Merchant

A

AP erect
(we want weight bearing)

57
Q

Exam Review:
What knee oblique shows the proximal tibiofibular joint?
8:30

A

Internal/ medial oblique
(shows the head/neck of fibula free of superimposition)

58
Q

Exam Review:
which projections are performed with the tube face is angled and parallel to the flexed tibia?
A. Hughston
B. Merchant
C. Axial intercondylar fossa (BeClere)
D. Settegast

A

C. BeClere

59
Q

Exam Review:
When we are doing a lateral knee, what needs to be seen so we know the lateral is positioned correctly?
A. Patella is parallel to the IR
B. Femoral condyles are superimposed
C. Femoral condyles are perpendicular to the IR
D. The proximal tibiofibular articulation is open

A

B.
Femoral condyles are superimposed

60
Q

Exam Review:
What is proximal to the tibial plateau?
A. The tibia condyles
B. The tibial tuberosity
C. intercondylar fossa

A

C.
Intercondylar fossa

61
Q

Exam Review:
In a lateral projection of a normal knee:
1. The fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the tibia
2. The patellofemoral joint should be visualized
3. The femoral condyles should be superimposed

62
Q

Exam Review:
What is the CR for AP knees?

A

1/2 distal to the apex of the patella

63
Q

General knowledge:
What is the Settegast
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

90 degree flexion of knee
Prone or Supine
Angle and CR is into the patellofemoral joint
(PATELLA)

64
Q

General knowledge:
What is the Hughston method
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

50-60 degree flexion
patient prone
45 degrees cephalic
(similar to settegast without as much flexion)

65
Q

General knowledge:
What is the BeClere
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

45 degree flexion
supine
angle right into the knee joint
CR is 1/2 distal to patellar apex
(FOR TUNNEL VIEW)

66
Q

General knowledge:
What is the Camp Coventry
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

Flexion 40-50 degrees
patient prone
Angle matches the flexion
40 flex= 40 angle
(FOR TUNNEL VIEW)

67
Q

General knowledge:
What is the Merchant (Mayo sunrise)
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

40 degree knee flexion
Supine
30 degree Caudad into patellofemoral joint
(Mayo’s sunrise)
(PATELLA)

68
Q

General knowledge:
What is the Rosenberg
Flexion:
Position:
Angle:

A

(aka PA Flexion)
45 degree flexion
Standing
10 degree caudad

69
Q

Jeopardy:
To demonstrate the interphalangeal joint what do you do?

A

angle 10-15 degrees posteriorly

70
Q

Jeopardy:
What is another name for PA Axial view?
What does it best show?

A

Rosenberg
Intercondylar fossa

71
Q

Know how much to oblique for mortise and oblique and the differences!
Revisit anatomy modules before exam!

72
Q

Jeopardy:
The CR should be this to the IR when the patient is 21 cm from ASIS to tabletop for knee projection?

A

no angle or 0 degrees
or
Perpendicular

73
Q

Jeopardy:
Patella bone is what type of bone?

A

Sesamoid
(largest sesamoid in the body)

74
Q

Jeopardy:
typical age when patella develops in the tendon of the quadriceps?

A

3-5 years of age

75
Q

Jeopardy:
Webber classification (fx) is related to this specific structure?

A

lateral malleolar fracture

76
Q

Jeopardy:
Another name for big toe?

77
Q

Jeopardy:
Location of the adductor tubercle?

A

Medial condyle of femur

78
Q

Jeopardy:
This is the AP projection that best demonstrates the intercondylar fossa?

79
Q

Jeopardy:
Fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal?

A

Nightstand/Jones fx

80
Q

Jeopardy:
This knee projection best shows arthritic changes?

A

AP knee weight bearing

81
Q

Jeopardy:
The Osgood Schlatter disease is limited to this location?

A

Tibial tuberosity

82
Q

Jeopardy:
These extra two bones underneath the first metatarsals?

A

Sesamoid bones

83
Q

Jeopardy:
This is the name o the fossa on the distal posterior femur?

A

Intercondylar fossa

84
Q

Jeopardy:
Level of CR for a weight bearing AP projection of the knees?

A

1/2 inch below the Apex of the patella

85
Q

General:
What is the largest Tarsal?
What is the smallest?

A

Largest Calcaneus
Smallest intermediate cuneiform

86
Q

General:
AP projection of foot is called:
PA projection of foot is called:

A

AP= dorsoplantar
PA= plantodorsal

87
Q

General:
How much do we oblique Mortise?
How much do we oblique a foot?

A

Mortise: 15-20 medially
Medial foot oblique: 30-40 medially

88
Q

General:
What type of joints are the interphalangeal joints?

A

ginglymus or hinge

89
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the Metatarsophalangeal joints?

A

ellipsoidal or condyloid (modified)

90
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the Tarsometatarsal joints:

A

plane or gliding

91
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the Intertarsal joint:
(tarsals)

A

plane or gliding

92
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the ankle joint:

A

Saddle or sellar

93
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the femorotibial (femur and tibia meet)

A

Bicondylar

94
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the patellofemoral (joint in-between patella and femur)?

A

saddle or sellar

95
Q

General:
What kind of joints are the proximal tibiofibular joint:

A

plane or gliding

96
Q

General:
Distal tibiofibular
Classification:
Mobility type:

A

Fibrous
Amphiarthrodial (slightly moveable)
Syndesmosis

97
Q

General:
What knee rotation frees the tibia and fibula at the proximal end?

A

internal/medial knee

98
Q

General:
Sustentaculum tali is found on the

99
Q

General:
Where is the intercondylar fossa located?

A

distal posterior femur

100
Q

General:
What is a Pott’s fx?

A

displacement of the distal tibia
(Colles equivalent)

101
Q

General:
What is the Beclere projection best show?
What is the position & CR?

A

Tunnel view in AP (intercondylar fossa)
40-45 degree flexion of knee
(60 degrees for Mayo)
patient supine

102
Q

General:
What does the Camp Coventry show?
What is position/CR?

A

PA intercondylar fossa
prone
flex knee 40-50 degrees
CR is 40-50 degrees caudad to match flexion
Flexion=angle

103
Q

What does Holmbald show?
What is position/CR?

A

PA intercondylar fossa
patient leans forward 20-30 degrees causing a 60-70 degree flexion in knee
Standing or recumbent

104
Q

What are the 3 alternative tunnel view projections for knees?

A

Camp Coventry
Holmblad
Beclere method

105
Q

What are the 3 sunrise views?

A

Inferosuperior
Hughston
Settegast
(Mayo’s way is (superioinferior)

106
Q

What does merchant (sunrise) show?
What is CR and position?

A

Patella
40 degree flexion of knee
Supine
30 degree caudad (to femur)
CR midway patella

107
Q

What does inferosuperior show?
What is position and angle?

A

Patella
40-45 flexion of knee
10 to 15 degrees tangential to patellofemoral joint
Supine

108
Q

What does Hughston show?
What is position and angle?

A

Patella
knee flexed 50-60 degrees
45 degrees cephalic
Prone

109
Q

What does Settegast show?
What is position and angle?

A

Patella
Minimum 90 degrees
CR is 15-20 degrees tangential to Patellofemoral joint space

Donny RAD POS ll (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions