Lower/Aft Panels Flashcards

PFD, ND, EWD, SD, FCU, etc

1
Q

AFT PANEL: How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?

A

PARKING​ BRK​ ECAM memo​ ​

Triple​ indicator​ brake​ pressure

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2
Q

AFT PANEL: If​ the​ parking​ brake is activated and​ no yellow hydraulic or​ accumulator pressure​ is available, do you ​still​ have​ available​ braking?​

A

Yes,​ via​ the​ brake​ pedals,​ but you must have​ green hydraulic pressure.

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3
Q

AFT PEDESTAL: What happens if you use the Rudder Trim or Rudder Reset with the A/P engaged?

A

Nothing

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4
Q

AUDIO: What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

A
  • PA switch on the ACP
  • Flight deck handset
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5
Q

AUDIO: Which radio equipment is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A
  • VHF 1
  • RMP 1
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6
Q

BRAKES: How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

A

Approximately 7.

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7
Q

BRAKES: If you lose G HYD pressure will you have Auto Brakes?

A

No.
Not with the Alternate Brake system

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8
Q

BRAKES: Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?

A

Yes.
If one BSCU is still operable.

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9
Q

BRAKES: What are the 4 modes of braking?

A
  • Normal braking
  • Alternate braking with anti-skid
  • Alternate braking w/o anti-skid
  • Parking brake
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10
Q

BRAKES: What controls and manages all braking functions?

A

Braking Steering Control Unit
(BSCU) + (ABCU)

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11
Q

BRAKES: What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

A

Deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

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12
Q

BRAKES: What does the Triple Indicator… indicate?

A
  • Y HYD pressure delivered to (L/R) brakes
  • Y HYD brake accumulator pressure
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13
Q

BRAKES: What happens when you switch A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?

A
  • NW Steering is deactivated
  • Anti-skid is deactivated
  • Brake pressure is supplied by Y HYD system
  • BSCU and ABCU are​ depowered
  • A 1,000​ psi pressure​ limiting valve​ helps​ prevent​ wheel​ lock​ up
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14
Q

BRAKES: What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?

A
  • Application Delay (4s or 2s)
  • Deceleration Rate
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15
Q

BRAKES: What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK activation on an RTO?

A
  • Airspeed > 72 kts
    [and]
  • TLs IDLE
    [and]
  • Ground Spoiler extension
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16
Q

BRAKES: When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed?

A

Ground Spoiler Deployment

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17
Q

BRAKES: Which HYD systems provide pressure to the brakes?

A
  • Normal brakes: Green
  • Alternate brakes: Yellow backed up by accumulator
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18
Q

E/WD: LDG Inhibit duration

A

Below 800ft till 80kts

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19
Q

ECAM: If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still functional?

A

Buttons that are not system-specific:
* EMER CANC
* ALL
* CLR
* STS
* RCL

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20
Q

ECAM: If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?

A

“NORMAL” for 3 seconds

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21
Q

ECAM: T.O Inhibit duration

A

1500 ft or 2 min after liftoff

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22
Q

ECAM: What are the 3 levels of ECAM Notifications?

A

From Highest to Lowest Priority:

  • Level 3 (WARNING)
    • Immediate Action Required
    • MASTER WARN and CRC
  • Level 2 (CAUTION)
    • Crew Awareness
    • MASTER CAUT and Single Chime
  • Level 1 (ALERT)
    • Crew Monitoring
    • Amber E/WD and No Chime
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23
Q

ECAM: What do the two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page represent?

A

Each triangle represents the gear position detected by one of the two LGCIUs.

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24
Q

ECAM: What does EMER CANC do?

A
  • Cancels the​ current Level 1​ or 2 warning​ for the​ remainder​ of​ the​ flight ​
  • Cancels the​ current Level 3​ warning for​ that​ occurrence
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25
**ECAM: What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?**
Secondary​ failures​ are displayed on​ the​ lower right portion of the​ E/WD​ and​ are preceded by​ an ​\*
26
**ECAM: When does the Landing Memo appear?**
* 2,000 ft RA * 800 ft RA if never above 2000 ft RA
27
**ECAM: When does the NW STRG DISC message change from green to amber?**
When at least one engine is running.
28
**ECAM: Why would one of the two gear indication triangles be displayed in red?**
LGCIU disagreement.
29
EIS SWITCHING PANEL Q:​ What computers​ feed​ data to the​ six​ display units?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-31-05-10)​ ​ 3 Display​ Management Computers​ (DMC)
30
EIS SWITCHING PANEL Q:​ What does​ each of​ the​ DMCs​ normally supply?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL.​ III-DSC-31-05-30,​ FOM​ VOL. III-DSC-31-30) ​ * DMC 1​ –​ Captain PFD,​ ND,​ upper ECAM DU,​ lower DU​ ​ * DMC 2​ –​ F/O PFD,​ ND​ ​ * DMC 3​ –​ Backup
31
**ENG/TL: ENG panel [FAULT]**
* Auto start abort * Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position
32
**ENG/TL: Engine Warm-Up Time**
* 2 min (ALL CEO) - (200’s & 700’s) * 3 min (320 NEO) - (300’s) * 5 min (321 NEO) - (600’s) * (if shutdown > 2hr)
33
**ENG/TL: How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?**
* Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect pb for 15 seconds * Alpha Flooe Protection will be lost.
34
**ENG/TL: How do you regain normal A/THR when in TOGA LK or THR LK?**
* Move Thrust Levers​ to the​ TOGA​ detent​ ​ * Press​ the​ Instinctive​ Disconnect​ button​ ​ * Return​ Thrust Levers to CL detent​ ​ * Push the​ A/THR​ pushbutton​ to engage​ A/THR​
35
**ENG/TL: How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?**
Two. Both A and B.
36
**ENG/TL: What controls the engine LP fuel valves?**
* ENG MASTER switch * ENG FIRE pb
37
**ENG/TL: What functions does the FADEC control?**
* Engine start * Engine limits * Fuel flow * E/WD info
38
**ENG/TL: What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?**
* Thrust – TOGA * FMA – A.FLOOR
39
**ENG/TL: What is the active range of the A/THR?**
* IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines) * IDLE to the MCT (1 engine)
40
**ENG/TL: What is the power source for the FADEC?**
* Independent dedicated alternators * Fails​ to aircraft​ electrical power
41
**ENG/TL: What redundancy does the FADEC have?**
Dual channels
42
**ENG/TL: When does continuous ignition automatically operate?**
* Engine flameout detection * Failure of the Engine Interface Unit (EIU)
43
**ENG/TL: When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?**
* Bleed needs * Hight temps (ENG or IDG) * Approach configuration
44
**ENG/TL: When will the FADEC abort a start?**
* Hot start * Hung start * No ignition
45
**ENG/TL: When would Thrust Lock occur?**
* A/THR disconnect via pb * A/THR disconnect due a failure
46
FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL Q:​ With spoilers​ not armed will​ the​ spoilers deploy for an RTO?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-27-10-20)​ ​ Yes​ –​ when at least one​ engine​ is​ in reverse
47
**Forward Panel: How is the brake accumulator pressure it recharged?**
Y ELEC Pump
48
**GEAR: Emergency Gear Extension accomplishes what 3 tasks?**
1) Hydraulics off 2) Doors unlocked 3) Uplocks released
49
**GEAR: What happens if the Landing Gear lever is placed in the DOWN posiition at 280 kts?**
**Nothing. A safety valve shuts off HYD power to the landing gear above 260kts.**
50
**GEAR: When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?**
* Landing config * Below 750​ ft RA * Gear​ is not ​down and locked
51
GLARESHIELD / FCU Q:​ How would you regain control if you​ had just lost sidestick​ authority?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL.​ III-DSC-27-20-30)​ ​ The​ last pilot to press​ the​ pushbutton​ on​ the sidestick​ will​ have​ authority.​ An​ aural “Priority ​Left”​ or​ “Priority​ Right”​ will​ sound​.
52
GLARESHIELD / FCU Q:​ What does​ the​ red arrow in the​ SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-27-20-30)​ ​ It illuminates in​ front of the​ pilot losing authority
53
GLARESHIELD / FCU Q:​ What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the​ sidesticks?​ ​
* Inputs​ are​ algebraically​ summed * Dual​ Input sounds * Panel lights illuminate
54
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ Can both autopilots be​ engaged during​ any phase​ of​ flight?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-30-30)​ ​ No, only​ during an ILS approach
55
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ Does Selected or​ Managed Guidance​ have priority?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-10-10)​ ​ Selected Guidance​ always​ has priority
56
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ How does​ autopilot selection influence master​ FMGS​ logic?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-10-30)​ ​ * If​ one​ autopilot is engaged, the​ respective FMGS​ is​ master ​ * If​ both​ autopilots​ are​ engaged,​ FMGS​ 1​ will be​ the​ master
57
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ If​ an​ amber​ SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message​ is displayed on the​ ND what​ action should the​ crew ​take? ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-10- 30) An FMGS​ has​ failed and both NDs​ must be​ set​ to the​ same​ mode​ and range​ (single​ mode)
58
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ What are​ the​ 3 modes​ of​ FMGC operation?
* Dual​ (Normal) * Independent * Single​
59
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ What input does each FMGC use​ for position determination?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-20-20-10) ​ A hybrid​ (“mix”)​ IRS/GPS​ position
60
MCDU / FMGS Q:​ What is​ the​ difference​ between the​ large​ and small​ fonts​ utilized in the​ MCDU?​ ​
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-22-10-40-10) ​ * Large​ –​ Pilot entries​ and​ modifiable​ data​ ​ * Small​ –​ Default/computed non-modifiable​ data
61
**ND: If mode range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND?**
ROSE NAV​ mode at 80 nm range
62
**ND: Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?**
* White: not armed * Blue​: armed
63
**PFD: "S" Speed**
Min slat retraction speed. From position 1 to 0.
64
**PFD: Green Dot**
L/D Max in clean config
65
**PFD: VLS**
* Lowest Selectable Speed * Provides a margin to stall speed * Top of the amber strip on a/s scale * In approach mode is equivalent to Vref
66
**PFD: VMAX**
* Max Speed for current configuration * Lowest of VMO, MMO, VLE, VFE * Bottom of the red and black "barber pole" on the speed scale
67
**PFD: What are​ the​ pitch and​ roll​ angle​ limits indicated​ by​ the​ green = signs? ​**
Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-31-40,​ FOM​ VOL.​ III-DSC-27-20-10-30) ​ * Pitch: +30˚ up/-15˚​ down​ ​ * Roll: +/-​ 67˚
68
**PFD: What do the FMA colors mean?**
* Green - Engaged * Blue - Armed * Magenta – armed for a constraint
69
**PFD: What does a star`(*)` mean after an FMA?**
Capture mode
70
**PFD: What does a white boxed FMA indicate?**
A change within the previous 10 seconds.
71
**PFD: What does the white cross on the PFD indicate?**
* Sidestick deflection * Displayed after first engine start * Disappears at lift off
72
**PFD: What does the yellow speed trend arrow indicate?**
Speed in 10 seconds at acceleration/deceleration
73
**PFD: What is the difference between magenta and blue target airspeed targets?**
* Magenta – Managed speed * Blue – Selected speed
74
**PFD: What would the large red arrowheads indicate?**
Pitch attitude of 30˚
75
**PFD: When is RA height displayed?**
Below 2,500 ft AGL
76
**PFD: When would the​ sideslip​ index​ change​ from yellow to blue?​ ​**
Engine failure during takeoff or go around
77
**RADAR: Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched OFF?**
Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO
78
**RADAR: What would prevent the weather display on the ND?**
PLAN or TERR
79
**RADAR: When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?**
* T/O Inhibit * LDG Inhibit
80
**TXPDR: Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability?**
No. Only the selected transponder has failed.
81
**What do dashes and a white dot in an FCU window mean?**
That parameter is MANAGED
82
**What is the green arc over wheel symbol?**
Hottest brake with a temp >100°C
83
**What is the color code for altitude/speed constraint circles?**
White - constraint is not taken into account Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed
84
**When can the flight control check be accomplished?**
After 2nd engine start.
85
**When can the Takeoff Brief be conducted?**
At any point deemed appropriate during the outbound taxi.
86
**What are you checking in response to “Flight Instruments” on the checklist?**
Magenta (V2) over blue (V1), 1FD2. (Additionally ARC/10, initial ALT, CSTR pb)
87
**Non-inhibited ECAMs during takeoff**
* APU FIRE * ENG FIRE * ENG DUAL FAILURE * DUAL INPUT * ELEV FAULT * SIDESTICK FAULT * FWC FAULT
88
**When can the After Start Checklist be conducted?**
After tug, towbar, pin, and personnel are clear.
89
**ENG/TL: Engine Cool-Down Time**
3 min after reverse idle on landing.