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My Upgrade Stack > Lights and Switches (OHP) > Flashcards

Lights and Switches (OHP) Flashcards

1
Q

ADIRS: ADR Data
(BOATS)

A
  • Baro altitude
  • Overspeed warnings
  • AOA
  • Temperatures
  • Speed/Mach
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2
Q

ADIRS: Battery Power Endurance

A

ADIRU 1 - Until Battery 2 fails
ADIRU 2/3​ - 5​ mins

(#3 acts as #1 if ATT​ HDG​ CAPT​ 3 selected)

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3
Q

ADIRS: Can ADRs be turned off independent of the IRs?

A

Yes

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4
Q

ADIRS: Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the ADR?

A

Yes

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5
Q

ADIRS: Fast Align

A

Each ADIRS OFF​ then NAV within​ 5 secs

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6
Q

ADIRS: Full Alignment Required

A
  • First Flight of the Day
  • Crew Change
  • International or Alaska
  • Class II
  • GPS Unavailable & NAVAID’s poor
  • GPS Unavailable and ETE > 3 hours
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7
Q

ADIRS: How would the Captain’s displays be affected with IR1 failed or OFF?

A
  • Att and Nav info lost
  • ATT and HDG flags on PFD
  • MAP NOT AVAIL on ND
  • Recover by switching to CAPT 3 ATT/HDG on EIS switching panel
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8
Q

ADIRS: IR Data
(FAT HAAG)

A
  • Flight path vector
  • Aircraft position
  • Track
  • Heading
  • Attitude
  • Acceleration
  • Ground Speed
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9
Q

ADIRS: Post-flight ADIRU accuracy check

A
  • DATA -> Position Monitor
  • Look for drift >5nm
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10
Q

ADIRS: [ADR]

A

FAULT:
Fault in Air Data

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11
Q

ADIRS: [IR]

A

[pb]
* Disconnects IR data output (new version)

ON BAT
* At least one IR is supplied by aircraft battery
* Illuminates briefly for full alignment

FAULT
* Steady: A fault affects the respective IR
* Flashing: ATT/HDG may be recovered in ATT mode (NAV lost)

ALIGN
* Steady: Normal during alignment
* Flashing: Poisiton error
* Also indications on E/WD

Position Errors
* No current position
* Incorrect position
* Aircraft movement

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12
Q

AIR COND: Describe how temperature is regulated.

A
  • Packs produce requested temp
  • Trim Air valves modulate to achieve zone temps
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13
Q

AIR COND: The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?

A

2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)

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14
Q

AIR COND: What causes the​ Pack Flow Control valve​ to automatically close?​

A
  • Engine start sequence
  • ENG FIRE pb pressed
  • Ditching pb
  • Faults:
    • Low pressure
    • Pack overheat​
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15
Q

AIR COND: What logic controls​ the​ X-Bleed valve​ when the​ X-BLEED switch is in​ AUTO?​

A
  • Matches the APU bleed valve​
  • X-Bleed​ also CLOSES for wing,​ pylon,​ or​ APU​ duct leak​ (except during​ engine​ start)
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16
Q

AIR COND: When does the Lav/Galley Extract Fan operate?

A

Continuously with electrical power available

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17
Q

AIR COND: When is Pack FLOW automatically HI?

A
  • APU Bleed
  • Single Pack
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18
Q

AIR COND: [APU BLEED]

A

FAULT:
* Bleed leak
* APU bleed valve closes

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19
Q

AIR COND: [ENG BLEED]

A

FAULT
(LOOSA)

  • Leak
  • Over pressure
  • Over temp
  • Starting engine with valve open
  • APU bleed open with valve open
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20
Q

AIR COND: [HOT AIR]

A

FAULT:
* Overheat
* Valve closure

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21
Q

AIR COND: [PACK #]

A
  • Overheat
  • Valve/Switch Disagreement
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22
Q

ANTI ICE: 3 elements to record after de-ice/anti-ice

A
  1. Brand and Type of Fluid
  2. Percentage of fluid in mix
  3. Anti-ice start time
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23
Q

ANTI ICE: Can the flight crew takeoff if the holdover time expires for Heavy Snow conditions?

A

No.
* No holdover time exists for Heavy snow.
* Pre-takeoff contamination check must be perfermed 5 mins prior to TO

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24
Q

ANTI ICE: In what position do the anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A
  • Wing valves CLOSED
  • Engine valves OPEN
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25
Q

ANTI ICE: What happens if the WING ANTI ICE switch is activated on the ground?

A

Wing anti-icing valves open for a 30s test

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26
Q

ANTI ICE: What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

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27
Q

ANTI ICE: What types/colors of anti-ice/de-ice fluid that Frontier F9 uses?

A

Type 1 - De-ice Orange
Type 2 - Anti-Ice Green
Type 3 - F9 DOES NOT USE
Type 4 - Anti-Ice Green.

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28
Q

ANTI ICE: When do the wing anti-ice valves auto close?

A
  • On landing
  • Bleed leak detected
  • Loss of electrical power
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29
Q

ANTI ICE: When is undiluted Type IV required?

A

Heavy snow and Ice Pellets

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30
Q

ANTI ICE: When must ENG ANTI-ICE be ON?

A
  • Ground and Flight Ops
  • Icing conditions exist/expect ( < 10ºC )
  • Except climb and cruise SAT < -40ºC
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31
Q

ANTI ICE: When should wing anti-ice be selected on?

A

In flight with airframe icing indicated

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32
Q

ANTI ICE: [ENG #]

A

FAULT: Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement

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33
Q

ANTI ICE: [WING]

A

FAULT:
* Switch/valve disagreement
* Low pressure

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34
Q

APU Master on Sequence
(EFFFE)

A
  • ECB power and self-test
  • Flap opens
  • Fuel valve opens (LP)
  • Fuel pump on
  • ECAM
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35
Q

APU: With the green AVAIL lights ON for both APU and EXT PWR, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

APU

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36
Q

APU: [APU BLEED]

A

FAULT:
* APU bleed leak

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37
Q

APU: [MASTER SW]

A

FAULT
* ECB commanded an auto shutdown

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38
Q

BLEED: Pneumatic Powered Items

A
  • Wing anti-ice
  • Eng start
  • Hydraulic pressurization
  • Air conditioning
  • Water pressure
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39
Q

CABIN PRESS:
[DITCHING]

A
  • Avionics Inlet and Extract valves
  • Ram air inlet
  • Pack Flow Control valves
  • Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode)
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40
Q

CABIN PRESS: From what source does the pressurization system obtain landing elevation?

A

FMGC database

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41
Q

CABIN PRESS: [MODE SEL]

A

FAULT:
* Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

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42
Q

CALLS: How do you call a mechanic stationed outside of the aircraft?

A

MECH pb

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43
Q

CALLS: How do you make a normal Flight Attendant call?

A
  • Press FWD or AFT call button
  • Listen and transmit on [CAB]
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44
Q

CARGO: How many cargo smoke detectors are there?

A
  • 2 FWD Compartment
  • 4 AFT Compartment
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45
Q

CARGO: How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?

A
  • 1 bottle
  • 2 bottles if ETOPS
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46
Q

CARGO: [FWD] or [AFT]

A

SMOKE:
* Both channels detect smoke
or
* One channel faulty and the other detects smoke

  • Isolation Valve closes
  • Extract Fan stops
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47
Q

CARGO: [HOT AIR]

A

FAULT
* Duct Overheat

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48
Q

ELEC:
How can an IDG be reset?

A

On the ground by maintenance

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49
Q

ELEC: Circuit Breaker Colors

A
  • Green – Monitored by ECAM
  • Black – Not monitored by ECAM
  • Red – Wing tip brake C/B
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50
Q

ELEC: How is AC ESS​ FEED transferred​ from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS​ 2?

A

Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-24-20) ​

Manually by selecting​ ALTN​ on​ the​ AC ESS​ FEED pushbutton or automatically​ if AC​ BUS​ 1 is lost ​and the​ switch is​ in the​ normal position

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51
Q

ELEC: How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1

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52
Q

ELEC: Min Battery Voltage
(and how to charge batteries)

A
  • 25.5 V

[To charge:]
* EXT PWR - ON
* BATT pbs - ON
* Approx 20 mins

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53
Q

ELEC: Power Source Priority
(GEAR B)

A
  • Generators
  • EXT PWR
  • APU Generator
  • RAT
  • Batteries
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54
Q

ELEC: What does​ the​ AC ESS​ FEED pushbutton white​ ALTN​ light indicate?​

A

Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-24-20) ​

AC BUS​ 2 is powering the AC ESS​ BUS

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55
Q

ELEC: What is​ the​ function of​ the​ AC ESS​ FEED​ pushbutton​ in the​ normal​ position?​

A

Allows AC BUS​ 1​ to power the​ AC ESS​ BUS

56
Q

ELEC: What is​ the​ function of​ the​ BUS​ TIE in the​ AUTO position?​

A

Allows the​ BUS​ TIE CONTACTORS​ to open and close​ automatically​ to maintain power to​ both AC ​BUS​ 1 &​ 2:​ ​

  • Allows a single​ source​ to power the entire​ system ​
  • Allows connection of​ the​ APU​ GEN​ or​ EXT​ PWR to the​ system ​
  • Inhibits multiple​ sources​ to​ connect​ simultaneously
57
Q

ELEC: What is​ the​ purpose​ of the​ static inverter?​

A

Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-24-10-20)​ ​

To provide​ AC power to​ the​ AC ESS​ bus​ from the​ battery​ when​ the​ EMG GEN​ is not​ online when ​in the Emergency Electrical Configuration

58
Q

ELEC: What powers the Emergency Generator?

A

Blue HYD pressure from the RAT

59
Q

ELEC: When are BATTs being used?

A
  • Sole source
  • Charging
  • APU start
60
Q

ELEC: Will the batteries completely discharge with BAT switches in AUTO and EXT PWR removed?

A

No.

Battery cut-off logic prevents this.

61
Q

ELEC: [COMMERCIAL]
(GETCCD)

A
  • Galley
  • Entertainment other than live tv
  • Toilets and water
  • Cargo lights
  • Cabin lights
  • Drain masts x2
62
Q

ELEC: [GALY & CAB]

A

FAULT:
* GEN overload

AUTO:
* Sheds galley and IFE power with GEN loss

63
Q

ELEC: [GEN #]

A

FAULT
* Overload
* Over/Under voltage
* Short

  • Gen line contactor is open
64
Q

ELEC: [IDG]
(HOTLOP)

A

FAULT:
* High Oil Temp
* Low Oil Pressure

65
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?

A

8 seconds
* RAT Extension - 3 s
* B HYD PRES (EMER GEN) - 5 s

66
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: What buses are powered by the emergency generator?

A

Essentials
* AC ESS
* AC ESS SHED
* DC ESS
* DC ESS SHED​

67
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: When will the RAT auto extend?

A
  • AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered * Airspeed > 100 kts
68
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: [GEN 1 LINE]

A

SMOKE:
* Smoke detected in avionics ventilation

[pb]:
* GEN 1 Line Contactor opens
* OFF light illuminates
* AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2
* GEN 1 powers 1 fuel pump in each wing tank

Also:
* Extract and Blower fault lights
* ECAM warning

69
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: [RAT & EMER GEN]

A

FAULT:
* AC Bus 1+2 power loss
* EMER GEN not supplying power

70
Q

Emergency Power items available after landing
(MAV)

A
  • Move outflow valve
  • APU Fire protection
  • VHF 1
71
Q

EVAC: How would the flight crew command an evacuation?

A
  • PA: “This is the Captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE!”
  • Press EVAC COMMAND pb
72
Q

EXT LT: Are the NAV 1/2 positions connected to a single bulb?

A

No.
Separate bulbs.

73
Q

EXT LT: When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

Weight off of the main gear.

74
Q

FIRE: Does the APU have any automatic fire protection?

A

Only when a fire is detected on the ground:
* Auto shut down
* Fire extinguisher discharge

75
Q

FIRE: How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?
APU?

A

2 per engine
1 per APU

76
Q

FIRE: What happens if both fire loops fail?

A

If both loops fail within 5 seconds, a FIRE warning will be issued.

77
Q

FIRE: Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A
  • Pylon nacelle
  • Engine core
  • Fan section
78
Q

FIRE: [APU FIRE TEST] pb

A
  • CRC
  • MASTER WARN lights
  • APU FIRE light
  • SQUIB light
  • APU FIRE ECAM
79
Q

FIRE: [APU FIRE] pb

A
  • Silences the CRC
  • Arms the squib
  • Shuts down the APU (ECB)
  • Closes APU fuel valve
  • Shuts OFF the APU fuel pump
  • Deactivates the APU generator
  • Closes the APU bleed and X bleed valves
80
Q

FIRE: [ENG FIRE TEST] pb

A
  • CRC
  • MASTER WARN lights
  • ENG FIRE light
  • SQUIB lights
  • ENG FIRE ECAM
  • ENG pedastal FIRE light
81
Q

FIRE: [ENG FIRE] pb

A
  • Silences the CRC
  • Arms the squibs
  • Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve
  • Closes the fuel shutoff valve
  • Deactivates the IDG and FADEC
  • Closes the pack and engine bleed valves
82
Q

FLT CTL: ELAC Duties
(PAR AAA)

A
  • Pitch
  • Abnormal Attitudes
  • Roll
  • Aileron Droop
  • A/P Acquisition
  • Activates Protections
83
Q

FLT CTL: FAC Duties?
(Be SWiFT RATTY)

A
  • Beta target
  • “Speed, speed, speed!”
  • Windshear
  • Flight Envelope Protections
  • Tail:
    • Rudder limiting
    • Alternate Law yaw
    • Turn coordination
    • Trim
    • Yaw damping
84
Q

FLT CTL: How are the flight control surfaces operated?

A

All Surfaces:
* Electrically controlled
* Hydaulically actuated

85
Q

FLT CTL: If both FACs fail, is max rudder deflection available?

A

Yes.
After slat extension.

86
Q

FLT CTL: SEC Duties
(PAR SS)

A
  • Pitch
  • Abnormal Attitudes
  • Roll
  • Speed brakes
  • Spoilers
87
Q

FLT CTL: [ELAC]

A

FAULT:
* Self test during power-up

88
Q

FLT CTL: [SEC]

A

FAULT
* SEC Fault detected

[pb]
* System off/on

89
Q

FUEL: How is the IDG cooled?

A

Fuel, which is then pumped back to the same-side outer tank.

90
Q

FUEL: How many fuel pumps are installed?

A
  • 2 in each wing tank
  • 2 in center tank
  • 1 for APU
91
Q

FUEL: Normal in-flight fuel management scheme?

A

Center tank first, then wing tanks.

92
Q

FUEL: When does the APU fuel pump run?

A
  • CTR TKs OFF
  • Battery power only
93
Q

FUEL: Why are the outer wing tanks drained last?

A

Wing structural stress relief

94
Q

FUEL: [MODE SEL]

A

FAULT:
* Failure of AUTO mode
* Center tank > 550# and a main tank < 11,000#

95
Q

FUEL: [PUMP]

A

FAULT
* Low fuel pressure

96
Q

GPWS: [SYS]

A

FAULT:
* Any failure of GPWS mode 1-5
* “Sink Rate”
* “Terrain, Terrain”
* “Don’t Sink”
* “Too Low Flaps”
* “Too Low Gear”
* “Glideslope”

[pb]:
* Inhibits all EGPWS except TERR

97
Q

HYD: Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?

A

No.
At least one required.

98
Q

HYD: Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?

A

No.

99
Q

HYD: How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?

A
  • 1 Electric
  • 1 RAT
100
Q

HYD: How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?

A
  • 1Engine
  • 1 PTU
101
Q

HYD: How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system?

A

Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-29-10-20)​ ​

  • 1​ Engine ​
  • 1​ Electric​ ​
  • 1​ PTU ​
  • 1 Hand​ pump
102
Q

HYD: Normal hydraulic system pressure?

A

3,000 psi

103
Q

HYD: When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?

A
  • After the first engine is started
  • In flight
  • [BLUE PUMP OVRD] pb w/no eng running
104
Q

HYD: Can the​ Y ELEC PUMP run​ the​ PTU?​

A

Yes

105
Q

HYD: Does the​ RAT​ automatically​ deploy​ with the​ loss​ of​ BLUE hydraulic pressure?​

A

No.

106
Q

HYD: If​ the​ ACCU PRESS​ indicator is​ low and​ an external​ walkaround​ is to be​ completed,​ what​ should you​ ​do?​

A

Obtain ground​ clearance​ then turn​ ON​ the YELLOW​ ELEC PUMP to pressurize​ the​ accumulator

107
Q

HYD: If​ the​ ECAM actions​ lead​ you to​ turn OFF​ the​ PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will​ the​ FAULT light go out?​

A

No, not until temperature is restored

108
Q

HYD: If​ the​ FAULT light in the​ PTU pushbutton is​ ON,​ are​ there​ any​ other indications​ on the​ HYD Panel?​

A

Yes​ –​ FAULT light illuminated in the​ respective​ ENG​ PUMP​ pushbutton

109
Q

HYD: Unique BLUE system item

A
  • Emergency generator
110
Q

HYD: Unique GREEN system items

A
  • Landing gear
  • Normal brakes
  • Engine 1 reverser
111
Q

HYD: Unique YELLOW system items

A
  • NW Steering
  • Alternate brakes
  • Parking brake
  • Cargo doors
  • Engine 2 reverser
112
Q

HYD: When does the PTU activate with the pb in AUTO mode?

A

500 psi difference between Green and Yellow

113
Q

HYD: [ENG # PUMP]

A

FAULT:
* Low Pump Pressure
* Low Air Pressure
* Low Quantity
* High Reservoir Temp

114
Q

HYD: [PTU]
(LOL)

A
  • Low quantity
  • Overtemp
  • Low air pressure
115
Q

HYD: How do the hydraulic priority valves function?

A

If HYD pressure drops, high demand items are isolated. (Flaps, Slats, Gear, Emer Gen)

116
Q

HYD: What is the purpose of the hand pump?

A

To provide Y HYD pressure for cargo door operation

117
Q

HYD: [ELEC PUMP]

A

FAULT:
* Low Pump Pressure
* Low Air Pressure
* Low Quantity
* High Reservoir Temp
* High Pump Temp

118
Q

HYD: When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • PTU pb
  • First engine start
  • PARK BRK set and only 1 ENG MASTER ON
  • NWS disc + PARK BRK released
  • Cargo door ops + 40 sec
119
Q

INTERIOR LIGHTS: What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A
  • Captain’s instrument panel
  • Right dome light
  • Standby compass
120
Q

OXYGEN: How long does the PAX oxygen last?

A

Approximately 13 minutes

121
Q

OXYGEN: What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

A

Signal sent to release oxygen mask doors

122
Q

OXYGEN: What displays on the DOOR ECAM with the CREW SUPPLY pb ON

A

OXY data block changes from amber to green

123
Q

OXYGEN: When do the passenger masks auto-deploy?

A

Cabin altitude > 14,000 ft

124
Q

PROBES: With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO, when are the probe and mast heaters activated?

A
  • LOW with at least 1 ENG running
    • (TAT not heated on ground)
  • NORMAL after takeoff
125
Q

RECORDER: When do the RCDR and DFDR operate?

A

Ground
* When elec power applied + 5 mins
* When at least 1 engine is running

Flight
* Continuously until 5 mins after the last engine is shut down

126
Q

Switches to be Confirmed in Flight

A

Engine master switches
IR selector
Guarded controls
Thrust Levers*

Thrust levers during an Ecam or QRH procedure

127
Q

Takeoff in moderate and heavy freezing rain is prohibited.

A

TRUE

128
Q

VENT: Normal Avionics Ventilation config with Extract and Blower pbs in AUTO

A

Ground
* OPEN configuration

Flight
* CLOSED configuration

INTERMEDIATE configuration
* High skin temp in flight
* High skin temp after T/O CONFIG
* High skin temp after T/L set for T/O

129
Q

VENTILATION: Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?

A

Yes.
During SMOKE configuration

130
Q

VENTILATION: What is the purpose of the CABIN FANS?

A

To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to the cabin

131
Q

VENTILATION: What is the status of the Blower and Extract fans with the Blower and Extract valves in OVRD?​

A
  • BLOWER fan OFF
  • EXTRACT fan ON
132
Q

VENTILATION:
When is air conditioning introduced into the avionics compartment?

A
  • Abnormal operation​ ​
  • SMOKE configuration
133
Q

VENTILATION: With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons​ in OVRD (smoke​ configuration)​ what​ are​ the​ positions ​of​ the​ INLET​ and EXTRACT​ valves?​

A

Ref: (FOM VOL. III-DSC-21-30-60)​ ​

  • INLET​ valve​ CLOSED ​
  • EXTRACT​ valve​ INTERMEDIATE
134
Q

VENTILATION: [BLOWER] and [EXTRACT]

A

FAULT
* SMOKE warning is activated
* Computer power supply failure
* Low pressure
* Duct overheat

[pb]:
* Override mode

135
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • Only 1 ENG master on, PRK BRK on
  • PRK BRK OFF, NW STRG DISC
  • 40 seconds after cargo door operation.
136
Q

RVSM Required Equipment
(FFATPAD)

A
  • FCU (1 channel)
  • FWC
  • ADRs (2)
  • TXPDR (1)
  • PFDs (2)
  • A/P (1)
  • DMCs (2)

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