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A220 Systems > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure is?

A

8.8 psid

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2
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure is?

A

-0.5 psid

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3
Q

The doors should not be closed for how long, with passengers on board and packs are off with no ground ventilation, except for deicing operation, during which time the packs off should be kept to a minimum?

A

15 mins

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4
Q

When OAT is above 40 degrees Celsius, operation without ECS, or external cooling, is limited to how long.

A

30 mins

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5
Q

Max Ramp Weight(MRW)

A

150000lbs/68039kg(68 tons)

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6
Q

Flight in icing conditions is allowed up to?

A

35000 feet

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7
Q

What is the max approach path angle during an approach?

A

3.5 degrees

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8
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight(MTOW)

A

149000lbs/67585kg

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9
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

58740kg/129500lbs

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10
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

55792kg/123000lbs

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11
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

36287kg/80000lbs

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12
Q

The MTOW & MLW may be further limited due to?

A

Performance considerations

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13
Q

What is normal mode?

A

Control laws provide automatic protection against any full application of elevator, aileron and rudder as well as maneuvers that involve angles of attack near the stall at any speed.

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14
Q

When in Direct Mode, what must be taken into consideration?

A

Full application of elevator, rudder and aileron controls, as well as angles of attack near the stall, must be confined to speeds below Maneuvering Speed(Va).

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15
Q

Moderate to severe Turbulence Penetration Speed
(VRA)

A

265KIAS(10000 feet and below) or 280KIAS(above 10000 feet) or .75, whichever is lower.

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16
Q

Landing Gear
Extension
Retraction

A

250KIAS
220KIAS

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17
Q

Max speed to operate windshield wiper?

A

250KIAS

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18
Q

Maximum operating altitude?

A

41000

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19
Q

Maximum airport pressure for takeoff and landing is?

A

10000

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20
Q

Maximum ambient temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

52.5C /126.5F

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21
Q

Minimum ambient temp for both t/o and landing?

A

-54C/-65F

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22
Q

Define Fuel Factor!!

A

A default value which includes Adjustments for performance degradations.

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23
Q

When dealing with acceleration and thrust reduction altitude modifications(Noise Abatement Procs.), what is the minimum difference between the two entries to avoid an INVALID ENTRY??

A

300 ft or more

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24
Q

How far off, both L or R, can an OFFSET be set

A

99.9

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25
Q

Define RNP

A

RNAV capability plus the accuracy requirement(.3, .1, etc…)of the navigation system to meet a specified value.

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26
Q

What is the specific level of accuracy required for RNP capable aircraft?

27
Q

RNP capable aircraft require a specific level of accuracy of 95%. What is the level of accuracy required to be twice that value and what is it called?

A

99.999%, and called containment limit.

28
Q

With regards to RNP, how far out does an RNP ARM message appear?

29
Q

RNP/LPV Appr.

LPV approaches use __________________________ input from the___________________for the initial portion of the approach?

A

Barometrically-corrected altitude; Air Data Computer(ADC)

30
Q

RNP/LPV True or False:

Minimums remain unaffected by temperatures during LPV approaches?

A

False
(Barometric altitude is used for LPV approaches)

31
Q

RNP/LPV:

If the OAT is significantly colder than ISA, what will the aircraft need to do before reaching the FAF?

A

Reduce vertical rate to reach FAF.

32
Q

RNP/LPV:

If the OAT is significantly warmer than ISA, what will the aircraft need to do before reaching the FAF?

A

Increase vertical rate to reach the FAF.

33
Q

The Flight Director(FD) computes……..

A

Roll and pitch commands to maintain a selected aircraft trajectory.

34
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
What does the FD use as data source for flight guidance?

A

Left or Right Data Concentrator Unit (DCU)

35
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR

What does PFCC stand for

A

Primary Flight Control Computer

36
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR

What conditions does the Heading Knob automatically synchronize?

A
  1. When takeoff mode is active on the ground(TOGA button)
  2. When go around mode is active(TOGA button)
  3. When the AFCS reverts to basic mode
37
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR

When the FMS is the navigation source, how many miles, of the FMS course, does the FD calculate an intercept heading?

38
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR

Half-bank mode limits the maximum bank angle used by the FD to:

A

15 degrees

39
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
When is half-bank mode automatically activated

A

31,500 feet

40
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Flight Path Angle(FPA)

A

The FPA mode is the basic vertical mode. In the FPA mode the aircraft pitch changes to maintain the selected flight path angle.

41
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Vertical Speed mode (VS)

A

The VS mode changes the aircraft pitch to maintain a selected vertical speed(during climb or descent).

42
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Altitude Preselect mode(ALTS)

A

The ALTS mode is used to capture and maintain (level off) a preselected barometric altitude.

43
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Altitude hold (ALT)

A

The ALT mode is used to maintain a barometric altitude.

44
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Flight Level Change mode(FLC)

A

FLC is used to climb or descend while maintaining a selected airspeed or Mach number.

45
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR
Both Underspeed and Overspeed protection automatically activates in both:

A

Fly-By-Wire(FBW) Normal Mode & Primary Flight Control Computer(PFCC) Direct Mode.

46
Q

VERTICAL NAVIGATION INDICATION
How much, in feet, does each dot on the VNAV Deviation Pointer and Scale indicate?

A

250ft from the VNAV path(75 feet when approach mode is active)

47
Q

When does the Emergency Descent Mode(EDM) automatically activate?

A

If cabin altitude exceeds 14,500ft and the aircraft is above 25,000ft

48
Q

Auto Flight
Does FBW envelope protection have priority over any AFCS command?

49
Q

Auto Flight
The AP performs the following functions:

A
  1. Two Axis surface actuation
  2. Flight envelope protection
  3. Autotrim
50
Q

AUTOLAND
When is the only time the Autoland system is available?

A

During ILS approaches by selecting the (APPR) button on the FCP

51
Q

AUTOLAND
Define Fail Operational Autoland System (LAND 3)

A

Autoland system capable of completing an ILS approach, Autoland, and rollout following the failure of any single system component below alert height.

A CAT IIIB precision approach can only be flown with a fail operational Autoland system (LAND 3)

52
Q

AUTOLAND
Fail Passive Autoland System (LAND 2)

A

Autoland system, which in the event of a failure below 200 ft AGL, causes no significant deviation of aircraft flight path or attitude. The capability to continue the operation may be lost and an alternate course of action(i.e. a missed approach or manual landing) may be required.

A CAT IIIA precision approach can be flown with a fail operational (LAND 3) or fail passive Autoland system (LAND 2). A DH of 50ft or the published DH must be set for a fail passive Autoland approach.

53
Q

AUTOLAND
A fail operational Autoland system requires a higher level of redundancy than a fail passive system. What are they?

A

Three radio altimeters and three VHF NAV; fail passive only two of each.

54
Q

AUTOLAND
Where does the Autoland function reside?

A

In the PFCC.

55
Q

AUTOLAND
Are the PFCC’s independent from the AP?

56
Q

AUTOLAND
What contains the flight guidance and auto-throttle functions?

A

Data Concentration Modular(DMC)

57
Q

AUTOLAND
Define LAND 3

A

Fail operational Autoland capable aircraft.

58
Q

AUTOLAND
Define LAND 2

A

Fail passive capable aircraft.

59
Q

AUTOLAND
Define APPR 2

A

The aircraft may conduct an ILS CAT II approach or CAT I. Manual landing is required.

60
Q

AUTOLAND
Define APPR 1

A

The aircraft may only conduct an ILS CAT I approach. Manual landing is required.

61
Q

AUTOLAND
What is guaranteed with both APPR 1 & 2

A

Manual landing, since Autoland function is not available for these modes.

62
Q

AUTOLAND
Correct landIng configuration has to be set before________ft for the system to up-mode Autoland.

63
Q

Engine starting wind limitations maximum crosswind component?

64
Q

Engine starting maximum tailwind component?

A220 Systems (20 decks)

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