Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dash 8 Q400 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What operations is aircraft certified for?

A

Day and Night VFR
IFR
Icing Conditions (note - severe icing may result from environmental conditions outside of those for which the airplane was certificated)
Unpaved Runway Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum number of passenger seats

A

Refer to Weight and Balance manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Minimum Flight Crew

A

Captain and First Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum Cabin Crew

A

Two for passenger carrying operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum Weights
Ramp Weight (almost evil)
Brakes Release Wt /Take Off Wt (on the floor)
Landing Weight (easy as 123 - 1t)
Zero Fuel Weight (26yo with a 308)

A

RW : 29,665kg
BRW / TOW : 29,574kg
LDW : 28,123kg
ZFW : 26,308

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MAC certified limits are?
up to 24,020kg
up to 27,987kg
up to 28,998kg
up to 29,257kg
up to 29,574kg

A

13.8% - 36%
16.6% - 36%
17.3% - 36%
17.4% - 36%
17.7% - 36%

(safe bet is 17.3 - 36%)

Note - If CoG limits are met with LDG gear down, safe limits of flight are automatically achieved

Note - The maximum aft limit is 20%MAC for operations with one inoperative stall warning and / or stick pusher system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vmcg
Flaps 15, 10, 5, 0

A

89, 89, 89, 101 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vmca
Flaps 15, 10, 5, 0

A

91, 95, 98, 113 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vmcl
Flaps 35, 15, 10, 5,

A

92, 96, 99, 100 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vmo
8, 10, 18, 20, 25,000*

A

245, 282, 286, 275, 248 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vfe
5, 10, 15, 35

A

200, 181, 172, 158 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vlo, Vle, Alternate

A

200, 215, 185 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vb - Turbulence penetration

Vmax tire

A

210 KIAS

182 knots ground speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Va

A

204 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vaquaplaning - T/O
Vaquaplaning - LDG

A

107 kts G/S
92 kts G/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Manoueuvering Limit Load Factors
Flaps Retracted
Flaps Extended

A

+2.5 / -1.0g
+2.0 / 0.0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max Crosswind - T/O, LDG, CAT II Landing Coupled
Dry / Wet
WED 3mm <0.125in contaminated
WED 3mm >0.125in contaminated
Compacted Snow
Wet ice, poor braking action

A

32kt Dry and wet for T/O and LDG
18kt Dry and Wet for CAT II Landing coupled

14kt for both WED 3mm for T/O, LDG and Coupled

20kt T/O and LDG for Compacted Snow
18kt Compacted Snow for Coupled

0kt for all on Wet Ice with poor braking action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum Tailwind - T/O, LDG, CAT II, Steep Approach
Dry / Wet
Contaminated
Ice and Wet Ice Braking action poor

A

T/O Flap 5, 10, 15 on wet / dry / contaminated = 10kt
LDG Flap 10, 15, 35, CAT II on wet / dry / contaminated = 10kt
T/O & LDG, CAT II and Steep approach on Ice and wet ice braking action poor = 0kt
Steep APPR Landing (Flap 35) - Dry / Wet / Contaminated - 5kt

(Note - limits may be increased when AFM supplement 3 is applicable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum headwind for CAT II coupled landing

A

CAT II coupled - 24kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum and Maximum temperatures

A

MAX - +50c or ISA + 35c
MIN - -54*c

(Note cold weather procedures apply after 3hrs in -15*c or lower on ground)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Take off power setting limitation (wind)

A

Setting take-off power prior to brake release, with nose of the airplane more than 45* out of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than 8kt (measured at a 10m height)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum operating altitude &

for T/O and LDG

A

FL 250

10,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum slope for T/O and LDG

A

+/-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum glide slope angle for CAT II approaches

A

< 3.25*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Eye / ILS to Wheel path distances.

A

3*
Flap 10 4.662 / 4.446m
Flap 15 4.339 / 3.927m
Flap 35 3.928 / 3.273m
4.5*
Flap 35 3.934 / 3.278m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Limitations for operations on contaminated runways

A

Take off with reduced power is prohibited

Operations from runways contaminated with water, slush or loose snow:
- Max altitude for T/O & LDG is 6000’
- Max permitted WED of contaminant is 15mm
- Max depth of contaminant is 6cm
- For WED greater than 3mm, selection of power lever to DISC is prohibited
- Max crosswind component for T/O & LDG is 14kt

Operation from runways contaminated with compacted snow
- Max crosswind for T/O & LDG is 20kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Airframe Contamination

A

See FOM for procedures on de-icing and anit-icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Baggage Compartment Classifications

A

Class C with the following restrictions

  • A separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give warning to pilot station
  • An approved built in fire extinguishing system controllable from the pilot station
  • Any means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames or extinguishing agent, from any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers
  • Any means to control ventilation and draughts within the compartment so that the extinguishing agent used can control the fire that may start within the compartment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Baggage compartment fire extinguishing time limitation

A

Unless the forward and aft baggage compartments are empty, the airplane must not be operated further than 1 hr flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

30
Q

Cargo Compartment fire extinguising time limitation

A

Unless the cargo compartment is empty, the airplane must not be operated further than 1 hr flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

31
Q

Minimum turning radius

A

26m

32
Q

Nose wheel steering angle required for minimum turning radius

A

70*

33
Q

Line up losses

A

See table in limitations

34
Q

Static Eye to Ground and ILS to ground distances

A

Eye - 3.029m
ILS - 1.864m

35
Q

Minimum Runway width

A

30m

36
Q

ACN classification with 34” tires - Values at MTOW (Rigid pavement subgrade)

A

High - 17.6
Medium - 18
Low - 19.1
Ultra Low - 19.9

Recommendation to use 20 for planning purposes

37
Q

ACN classification with 34” tires - Values at MTOW (Flexible pavement subgrade)

A

High - 15.2
Medium - 16.0
Low - 18.3
Ultra Low - 20.2

Recommendation to use 20 for planning purposes

38
Q

LCN values with 34” tires

A

Rigid - LCN 39
Flexible - LCN 43

39
Q

Approved Approach flap settings

A

5, 10, 15 degrees

40
Q

Approved Landing flap settings

A

10, 15, 35 degrees

41
Q

Approved cruise flap setting

A

0 degrees

42
Q

Operating with gear extended and doors closed

A

Subject to local airworthiness authorities

43
Q

Operating limitations for non - normal ops

A

See Limitations sections

44
Q

Max difference between L & R ASI at approach and cruise speeds.

A

2kts

45
Q

Max difference between ASI and STBY ASI at approach and cruise speeds

A

10kts

46
Q

When altitude mismatch appears on PFD apply corrections to the Integrated Standby Instrument

A

See table in limitations chapter

47
Q

Min and Max temp for operation of engine

A

Min - -54c
Max - +50c or ISA +35*c (whichever is lower)

48
Q

Max temp for operation with engine intake bypass doors open

A

ISA + 25*c

49
Q

Maximum Airstart altitude

A

20,000’

50
Q

Roughly how much torque will Automatic Take off Power Uptrim provide?

A

10% torque (nominal)

51
Q

Max taxi speeds straight and turning
- Normal Taxiway
- Narrow (15-18m) Taxiway

A

25kt straight
15kt turning

15kt straight
10kt turning

52
Q

Maximum Torque Settings

A

MTOP - 106%
NTOP - 90.3% (indication of 90% or 91%)
MCP - 100%
Transient - 135%
Reverse - 35%

53
Q

Maximum ITT settings (*C)

A

MTOP - 880
NTOP - 822
MCP - 880
Transient - 920
Starting - 920
Reverse - 880

54
Q

Maximum NL% RPM across power ranges

A

MTOP - 100
NTOP - 95.3
MCP - 100
Transient - 102.3
Reverse - 100

55
Q

Maximum NH% RPM

A

MTOP - 100%
NTOP - 97.6%
MCP - 100%
Transient - 101.2%
Reverse - 100%

56
Q

Maximum NP RPM

A

MTOP - 1020
NTOP - 1020
MCP - 1020
Transient - 1173
Reverse - 1020

57
Q

Oil Pressure PSID

A

MTOP - 61 - 72
NTOP - 61 - 72
MCP - 61 - 72
Starting - 100 Max (165 Discing < 0* OAT)
Transient - 44 to 61 & 72 - 100 (20sec max)
Reverse - 61 to 72

58
Q

Oil Temp (*C)

A

MTOP / NTOP / MCP - 0 to 107 (115 permitted for continuation of flight with 20% reduction in power. Maint action reqd)
Starting - -40
Transient - 125 for 5 sec above FLT IDLE & < 55%
Reverse - 0 to 107

59
Q

Engine and Propellor Ground limitations
Wind Speed
- 9 to 20kts
- 21 to 35kts
- 36 to 50kts (55kt gusts)

A

Max TQ is 100%
Minimum NH is 64.2%
Nose of aeroplane > 30* out of wind - 50kts
Wind > 8kts and nose > 30* out of wind (see below)

  • FLT IDLE (momentary above is ok)
  • FLT IDLE
  • FLT IDLE (PWR levers must be at DISC when stationary)
60
Q

Starter Cranking limits

A

1) 70 sec on 2 min off
2) 70 sec on 2 min off
3) 70 sec on 30 min off

61
Q

Maximum Fuel

A

5318kg

62
Q

What position must the fuel pumps be at for TO and LDG

A

ON

63
Q

Hydraulic system minimum QTY’s

A

1) 40%
2) 40%
3) 45%

64
Q

Rejected Landing Considerations

A

Brake cooling times (AFM)

65
Q

APU starter Limitations

A

1min on 5 mins off
1 min on Maintenance action required (&30mins)

66
Q

In regard to Airframe contamination, what must be the condition of the aircraft before departure?

A

Must be free of Frost, Ice and snow before takeoff

67
Q

PEC?

A

20 foot addition

68
Q

Battery max load for departure

Battery min Temp

A

0.1

-20*C

69
Q

When must AP be disconnected?

A

Flaps 0 < 1000’ AGL
Severe Icing
Pilot at control seat
on landing <200’ AGL
OEI approach < 1000’ AGL
AP / FD approach 2.5* to 4* only

70
Q

Minimum speed gates
flaps: 0
5
10
15 & 15 with 35 selected for landing
35
Holding

A

0 - 180
5 - 165
10 - 155
15 - Vref or Vref ICE
15 with 35 for landing - Vref ICE Flap 35 + 10kts
35 - Vref or Vref ICE
Holding - 190kts

71
Q

What is the minimum speed in the climb

A

Vbg or Vbg ice

Dash 8 Q400 (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions