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Craig > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

The Q400’s maximum operating ambient temperature limit is _____ and the minimum operating temperature limit is _____.

A

+50C or ISA +35C whichever is lower // -54C

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2
Q

The maximum operating altitude of the aircraft is _____ and the maximum operating altitude for takeoff is _____.

A

25,000 ASL // 10,000 ASL

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3
Q

The Horizon Air values for Maximum Severe Turbulence Speed is _____ and Maximum Maneuvering Speed (VA) is _____.

A

200 // 200

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4
Q

The maximum speed for flaps 0 degrees during cruise/enroute descent is _____ and for approach is _____.

A

VMO // VMO

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5
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (VFE, Horizon Air values) for flaps 5 is _____, flaps 10 is _____, flaps 15 is _____, and flaps 35 is _____.

A

195 // 175 // 165 // 155

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6
Q

The landing gear operating speed (VLO) is _____ and landing gear extended speed (VLE) is _____.

A

200 // 215

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7
Q

Alternate gear extension speed is _____ and max tire speed is _____.

A

185 // 182

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8
Q

What is the minimum holding speed (flaps 0)?

A

200 IAS

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9
Q

What is the minimum speed for severe icing (flaps 0)?

A

200 IAS

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10
Q

What is the minimum speed during takeoff with an emergency (engine fail, windshear, etc.)?

A

V2

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11
Q

What is the minimum flap retract speed during takeoff?

A

V2 + 10

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12
Q

During takeoff, what is the minimum normal two engine speed?

A

V2 + 10

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13
Q

During climbs, single engine, or driftdown operations (Flaps 0), what is the minimum speed in icing conditions or with the REF SPEEDS set to INCR?

A

Solid Bug VSE (ICE)

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14
Q

During climbs, single engine, or driftdown operations (Flaps 0), what is the minimum speed in non-icing conditions and with the REF SPEEDS set to OFF?

A

Open Bug VSE

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15
Q

During cruise or enroute descents, what is the minimum speed with Flaps 0?

A

180 kts

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16
Q

During approach, what’s the minimum speed with Flaps 0, 5, 10, or 15 degrees?

A

Low speed cue +20 kts

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17
Q

During landing (landing configuration), what is the minimum speed with REF SPEEDS set to INCR, windshear, or gusts greater than 10 kts?

A

Solid Bug VREF (ICE)

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18
Q

During landing (landing configuration), what is the minimum speed with REF SPEEDS set to OFF?

A

Open Bug VREF

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19
Q

The engine starter cranking limit for the first start attempt is _____ seconds maximum time on, followed by _____ minutes off.

A

70 seconds // 2 minutes

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20
Q

What must the temperature be (OAT) on the ground and (SAT) inflight for icing conditions to exist?

A

+10C OAT ground AND
precipitation in any form OR
fog with visibility of one mile or less OR
when surface snow, ice, slush, or water may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes

+5C SAT inflight AND
visible moisture is present in any form

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21
Q

T/F: The engine intake bypass doors shall be open for engine operation in icing conditions.

A

TRUE

22
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component approved for takeoff and landing on a hard, dry or wet runway?

A

32kts

23
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance between contents of main fuel tanks in flight?

A

600 lbs

24
Q

T/F: Tank 1 and Tank 2 auxiliary fuel pumps are required to be on for landing but not for takeoff.

A

FALSE (auxiliary pumps must be on for takeoff and landing)

25
Q

The minimum battery temperature for takeoff is _____, and the maximum loadmeter reading for takeoff of the standby battery, auxiliary battery, and the main battery is _____.

A

-20C // 0.1

26
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear and/or flap extended?

A

15,000 ft

27
Q

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the airplane more than 45 degrees out of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than _____ kts.

A

8 kts

28
Q

T/F: Inflight operation of the POWER levers aft of the FLIGHT IDLE gate is prohibited.

A

TRUE

29
Q

The maximum cabin pressure differential limit is _____ psi, and the maximum cabin pressure differential limit during takeoff/landing is _____ psi.

A

5.95 psi // 0.5 psi

30
Q

Bleed air must be off for takeoff whenever _____.

A

Tailwind >10 kt
Windshear is suspected
MTOP takeoff

31
Q

For landing, bleed air must be off whenever _____.

A

Tailwind >10 kts
Windshear is suspected
OAT exceeds 39C (100F)

32
Q

T/F: Takeoff in the BASIC mode (AHRS) is prohibited, but takeoff in DG mode is allowed.

A

FALSE (takeoff in BASIC mode and takeoff in DG mode is PROHIBITED)

33
Q

Unless the forward and aft baggage compartments are empty, the airplane shall not be operated farther than _____ from a suitable airport for landing.

A

1 hour

34
Q

T/F: HOT MIC select switches on the Captain and First Officer ARCDU shall be OFF and the INT/RAD switch on the observer’s audio control panel shall be centered, when using the flightdeck speakers.

A

TRUE

35
Q

T/F: The APU is approved for GROUND OPERATIONS ONLY.

A

TRUE

36
Q

T/F: The APU does not need to be shutdown prior to takeoff since it is usable airborne.

A

FALSE (APU must be shutdown prior to takeoff because it is approved for GROUND OPERATION ONLY)

37
Q

T/F: The APU may be operated unattended with passengers on board if OAT exceeds 30 degrees C.

A

FALSE (APU shall not be operated unattended with passengers on board)

38
Q

Which of the following refueling limitations for the APU is correct?

A

APU off during overwing (gravity) refuel

APU shall not be started during refueling

39
Q

What are the APU ambient temperature limitations?

A

Upper: +50C or ISA +35C, whichever is lower
Lower: -54C

40
Q

T/F: The APU Bleed Air shall be selected off when the aircraft is being deiced/anti-iced.

A

TRUE

41
Q

What are the APU starter cranking limits?

A

Start 1 = 60 seconds on then 5 minute cool off

Start 2 = 60 sec on then maintenance required

42
Q

T/F: During autopilot operation, the pilot shall be seated at the controls with harness secured.

A

TRUE

43
Q

Autopilot (coupled) and Flight Director (manual) approaches are approved from a nominal glideslope angle of _____ to maximum of _____.

A

2.5 degrees // 4 degrees

44
Q

AFCS is approved for autopilot coupled approaches to _____.

A

CAT I limitations

45
Q

Autopilot coupled approaches are approved for all flap configurations except _____.

A

Flaps 35 with one engine inoperative

46
Q

Autopilot coupled approaches have been demonstrated in crosswind components up to _____ kts.

A

18 kts (not considered to be limiting)

47
Q

The minimum height for autopilot engagement after takeoff/go-around is _____ feet AFE.

A

1,000’ AFE

48
Q

Autopilot shall be disengaged at or above _____ feet AFE for HGS approaches flown in AIII mode, approaches flown with an inoperative engine, or approaches flown with Flaps 0 degrees.

A

1,000’ AFE

49
Q

For coupled approaches (non-CAT III), the autopilot shall be disengaged at or above _____ feet AFE.

A

200’ AFE

50
Q

T/F: The autopilot shall be disengaged in severe icing and severe/extreme atmospheric turbulence.

A

TRUE

Craig (26 decks)

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