Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Craig > Engines > Flashcards

Engines Flashcards

1
Q

For takeoff, pilots will smoothly advance the Power Levers to the _____ position.

A

Rating Detent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: The aircraft has auto-throttle capabilities.

A

FALSE, there are no auto-throttle capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the shaft horsepower of each engine under normal takeoff conditions?

A

4580 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the shaft horsepower increase to on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure after takeoff?

A

5071 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: Propeller rotation is accomplished by turning of power turbines.

A

TRUE, but the power turbines are connected to a propeller reduction gearbox and the gearbox transmits the power to the propeller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the accessory gearbox mounted on the engine?

A

Located at the top center of the engine and is driven by the high pressure compressor (NH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: The low pressure (axial) compressors are driven by their associated low pressure turbine.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the low pressure axial compressor?

A

NL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the high pressure centrifugal compressor?

A

NH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What powers the power turbines?

A

Exhaust gas energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When on the ground and the propellers are in the ground range of beta, it is indicated by:

A

Illumination of PROPELLER GROUND RANGE light on the far left side of the Captain’s glareshield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F: The propeller has a beta range used for reverse thrust on the ground.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of the engine intake bypass doors?

A

Prevents solid contaminates from entering the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be selected open?

A

Icing conditions

Operation on contaminated runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be open on the ground?

A

On contaminated runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: The auxiliary fuel pump is powered by the accessory gearbox.

A

FALSE, it is not powered by the accessory gearbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: The engine driven fuel pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F: The oil pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F: The DC starter generator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: The permanent magnet alternator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: The FADEC is the primary computer for engine control.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What powers the FADEC once the engine is running?

A

An independent permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What provides an alternate power source for the FADEC during engine starting or if a PMA failure occurs?

A

Essential buss provides alternate power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 1020 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Normal Takeoff Power (NTOP)
Or
Maximum Takeoff Power (MTOP) if the MTOP switch light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 900 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Maximum Climb Power (MCL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 850 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Maximum Cruise Power (MCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What prop speed is automatically set when in the over-travel range?

A

1020 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What must pilots do to enter the ground beta range?

A

Raise gate release triggers to move aft of FLIGHT IDLE and into BETA range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F: When in the MAX REV, propeller RPM is limited.

A

TRUE (950 RPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: In order for uptrim to be armed, the power levers must be high and torque on both engines must be at least 50%.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is uptrim triggered?

A

Torque falls below 25% on failed engine
OR
Power turbine speed (Np) falls below 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the FADEC limit torque to in reverse mode?

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the forward range?

A

106%

34
Q

What does the FADEC limit transient torque to when it is in the over travel range?

A

135% for transient

35
Q

T/F: There is independent engine over speed protection built into the FADEC and it has the capability of cutting off fuel flow during NH over speeds.

A

TRUE

36
Q

T/F: The FADEC fault classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

A

TRUE

37
Q

T/F: The FADEC fault classes are warning, advisory, and normal.

A

FALSE, classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

38
Q

What does a green arc on the engine gauges mean?

A

Normal operating range

39
Q

What does the yellow arc on the engine gauges mean?

A

Caution Range

40
Q

What does the red dash on the engine gauges mean?

A

Minimum or Maximum limit value

41
Q

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge needle enters the cautionary range?

A

Yellow

42
Q

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge is in the green arc?

A

White

43
Q

What happens if the data becomes invalid for either engine gauge?

A

Digital value changes to dashes
Gauge changes to white arc
Needle is removed

44
Q

How is Torque (TRQ) displayed on the Engine Display?

A

% of maximum power

Primary thrust reference

45
Q

T/F: NH is shown in both analog and digital format on the Engine Display.

A

TRUE

46
Q

T/F: NL is shown in both analog and digital format on the Engine Display.

A

FALSE, only digital format, no analog gauge

47
Q

T/F: The oil indications on the Engine Display show both oil temperature and oil pressure.

A

TRUE

48
Q

T/F: Power lever AND Condition lever positions are communicated to the FADEC to determine the appropriate fuel schedule to the engines.

A

TRUE

49
Q

T/F: The engine ignition system is controlled automatically by the FADEC.

A

TRUE

50
Q

At about what PSI will the #1 or #2 ENG OIL PRESS warning light illuminate?

A

44-50 PSI

51
Q

T/F: The oil is cooled by engine intake air.

A

TRUE

The air is routed through a door to the oil cooler

52
Q

T/F: The engine oil system lubricates engine bearings, gearboxes, and the landing gear.

A

FALSE, nothing to do with landing gear but does also supply oil for propeller operation

53
Q

T/F: Each propeller is constant-speed and fully feathering and can be operated in the reverse thrust range.

A

TRUE

54
Q

What controls propeller pitch?

A

Oil pressure on either side of a piston pitch change mechanism inside the propeller hub

55
Q

T/F: Electrical heater elements are bonded to the inner leading edge of every other propeller blade for ice protection.

A

FALSE, each blade has the heater element

56
Q

What turbine is the prop reduction gearbox powered by?

A

The engine power turbine

57
Q

T/F: If a PEC failure occurs, the PCU automatically defaults to controlling the minimum blade pitch in flight.

A

TRUE

58
Q

What do the counter weights do when oil pressure is lost in the propeller?

A

They provide a natural twisting moment to move blades toward a high pitch (feather) position

59
Q

T/F: The overspeed governor uses a flyweight design to limit propeller overspeed in the event of a malfunction.

A

TRUE

60
Q

Propeller RPM in flight depends on the position of what components?

A

Condition levers

61
Q

The PCU uses _____ to control propeller blade angle.

A

Pressurized engine oil

62
Q

T/F: Propeller synchrophasing is a manual function.

A

FALSE, it is automatic with no controls

63
Q

T/F: A failed engine with a wind-milling propeller at low blade angle creates a large amount of drag.

A

TRUE

64
Q

Which of the following is not a method used for propeller feathering?
(Answer which IS a method for propeller feathering)

A

Auto Feathering
Alternate Feathering
Manual Feathering

65
Q

What must engine torque exceed for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

A

50% torque on both engines

66
Q

What must the power levers be above for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

A

Advanced beyond 60 degrees on both power levers

67
Q

If torque on either engine falls below _____ torque for at least ______ seconds, the PEC commands the propeller to the feather position.

A

25% // 3 seconds

68
Q

T/F: Pilots can use the alternate feather function if the auto feather does not activate properly or is not selected (ie. in cruise flight).

A

TRUE

69
Q

When is manual feathering most commonly used?

A

Engine shutdown

70
Q

When should engine intake bypass doors be opened?

A

Icing conditions

Contaminated runways

71
Q

FADEC FAIL warning light will ultimately result in which of the following?

A

Shutdown of powerplant

72
Q

In the forward range, propeller pitch _____.

A

is governed to maintain a constant speed.

73
Q

If the aircraft is configured properly for an NTOP takeoff and an engine fails, uptrim will automatically accomplish what?

A

Increase operating engine to MTOP

74
Q

If an engine instrument digital display changes to dashes, what must be true?

A

Data is no longer valid

75
Q

T/F: Uptrim is dependent on arming the auto feather system.

A

FALSE, the systems are independent

76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the engine-driven fuel pump is most accurate?

A

It is powered by the engine accessory gearbox

77
Q

With the ignition switch in NORM, the FADEC activates the ignition circuits during which of the following?

A

Engine start (ground or flight)
Engine Surge
Engine Flameout

78
Q

What is engine oil cooled by?

A

Air cooled oil cooler

79
Q

How is propeller pitch controlled?

A

PEC signals PCU to use engine oil to move a piston in the hub to control prop pitch

80
Q

Pushing the ALT FEATHER switch light will feather the prop _____.

A

Only when condition and power levers are in the proper condition
(Condition lever at or aft of START/FEATHER and power lever at FLIGHT IDLE)

81
Q

T/F: In ground range beta, the power levers directly control propeller pitch angle.

A

TRUE

Craig (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions