lifespan Flashcards

1
Q

blood types

A

determined by genetics
- ABO antigens
- develop antibodies against antigens they dont have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABO antibodies

A

not present at birth and develop between 2-8 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

blood group AB

A

has A and B antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

blood group A

A

has A antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

blood group B

A

has B antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

blood group O

A

does not have either A or B antigen which is why its universal donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rh factor

A

determines whether blood has type D Rh antigen and determines this through being “positive or negative”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rh positive

A

has type D antigen
- most common blood type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rh negative

A

does not have type D antien

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common blood type

A

O Rh+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) general

A

mother is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive; interface of vessels are closed off until delivery and maternal cells can develop antibodies if blood type is different than baby’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HDN specifics

A
  • baby blood dosent cross with mothers blood until delivery
  • blood wont cross but antibodies will for second baby
  • develops in first pregnancy and harms baby in second pregnancy
  • preventable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HDN treatment

A

Rh immunoglobulin
- at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

postpartum hemorrhage

A

losing more than 500ml of blood and will cause hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4T’s of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Tissue (retained placenta)
Tone (uterine atony)
Trauma
Thrombin (coagulation disorders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

antepartum hemorrhage

A

prior to delivery; a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

chorioamnionitis

A

risk factor for post partum hemorrhage; infection of placenta and amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fetal macrosomia

A

large infant; risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

maternal anemia

A

risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

maternal obesity

A

risk factor for post partum hemorrhage due to it yielding fetal macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

multifetal gestation

A

many fetuses causing risk for postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

preeclampsia

A

high BP putting at risk for postpartum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

uterine contraction

A

oxytocin secretion from hypothalamus stimulates uterine contraction during delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

uterine atony treatment

A

oxytocin, crytalloid fluids (if hypovolemic shock) and fundal massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
fundal massage
helps uterus respond to pressure and increase contraction
26
neonatal jaundice/hyperbilirubinemia
occurs due to high production with immature circulation which causes recirculation - emergency if within 24 hours but onset usually 48-72 hours
27
bilirubin
product of hemoglobin breakdown - excreted via stool - if unconjugated and lipid soluble it is toxic to cells and accumulates in CNS
28
bilirubin encephalopathy (Kernicterus)
neurological condition that occurs due to jaundice where bilirubin deposits on on basal ganglia
29
grade 1 jaundice
face and neck
30
grade 2 jaundice
face, neck, chest, back
31
grade 3 jaundice
from knees up minus arms
32
grade 4 jaundice
whole body except feet
33
grade 5 jaundice
entire body
34
unconjugated bilirubin
the gap between total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin
35
breastfeeding as treatment for jaundice
eliminates extra bilirubin because it has colostrum which acts as a laxative to excrete the bilirubin
36
phototherapy as a treatment for bilirubin
bilirubin is transformed to photobilirubins when exposed to blue-green light which is hydrophilic and easily excreted
37
exchange transfusion
taking away blood that is present and replacing it with new blood not high in bilirubin
38
syndromes
group of symptoms or condition which consistently occur together or are associated with a set of symptoms - can be genetic or "de Novo" (new)
39
down syndrome
Trisomy 21; error in meiosis
40
2 risk groups for down syndrome
- if older than 25 due to aged oocytes - familial link for chromosomal 'robertsonian translocation'
41
fetal echocardiogram as screening for down syndrome
cardiac defects can be an identifier and results will show 'higher translucency' between 10-13 weeks
42
serum markers as screening for down syndrome
hCG levels are high
43
GI issues associated with down syndrome
large tongue, TE fistula, intestinal obstruction, hirschsprung disease, imperforated anus, GERD
44
large tongue in down syndrome
makes it difficult for child to latch
45
TE fistula in down syndrome
can cause chocking because esophagus is 'blind' and it does not connect to the GI
46
hirschsprung disease
malfunctioning portion of large intestine - diagnosed quickly d/t lack of BM
47
treatment for GI issues with feeding
intermittent feeds, upright positioning
48
thickened formula as a treatment for GI issues
decreases vomiting as a result of reflux but not reflux itself
49
atopic dermatitis 'eczema'
chronic inflammation of the skin; allergen triggered - damaged epidermal barrier puts at risk for infection - children with this may have more allergies
50
atopic dermatitis treatment
corticosteroid cream, antihistamine cream, moisturizer cream
51
pulmonary and aortic valves
semilunar valves
52
semilunar valves
pulmonary and aortic valves
53
tricuspid and mitral valves
atrioventricular valves
54
atrioventricular valves
tricuspid and mitral valves
55
murmur
implies turbulent blood flow due to valves not being able to close properly or at all - if it goes away after changing position it is benign (innocent)
56
diastole murmur
worse because theres more flow due to valves being open
57
VSD (ventricular septal defect)
leading CHD; systolic murmur - blood shunted to right side; high pressure to low pressure - cardiac silhouette enlarges over time
58
ASD
blood shunts left to right
59
right side of heart in VSD
ventricle overload, increased pulmonary flow causing overall fatigue and tachypnea, coagulation due to increased pressure
60
left side of heart in VSD
decreased cardiac output, decreased perfusion, decreased BP
61
VSD treatment
optimize CO with fluid restriction, diuretics, ace inhibitors high calorie low volume formulas
62
TOF (tetralogy of Fallot)
VSD, pulmonary outflow tract stenosis, RV hypertrophy (very thick), overriding aorta
63
pulmonary outflow tract stenosis
thickening in pulmonary vein
64
if little RVOT stenosis
VSD shunting L-->R
65
if high RVOT stenosis
VSD shunting R --> L - will see cyanosis b/c unoxygenated blood enters left side
66
hypercyanotic spells (TET spells)
extreme cyanosis during times of stress - 2 main triggers are crying and hypovolemia
67
crying as a trigger for TET spells
hyperventilation--> tachycardia--> hyperpnea--> vasoconstriction--> reduced perfusion--> right to left shunting--> hypoxemia
68
hypovolemia (dehydration) as a trigger for TET spells
drop in BP --> lower L ventricle pressure --> right to left shunting - risk of hypoxic brain injury - risk of seizure - giving O2 will not help, it will be a trigger
69
TET spell treatment goal
goal is to decrease right to left shunting
70
treatment of TET spell
knee to chest position fluid bolus morphine (vasodilatory) B blocker
71
COA (coarctation of the aorta)
narrowed aorta - low BP, low perfusion, difference in pressure between upper and lower limbs - dilate to help treat