Lesson 203 VFR Arrivals Training Flashcards

1
Q

What is the terminal objective of Lesson 203 VFR Arrivals?

A

In a simulated environment control arriving VFR aircraft in accordance with the BAC Evaluation Strategy.

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2
Q

What are the enabling objectives for EO 203.1 to EO 203.4?

A

EO 203.1 Issue landing information; EO 203.2 Apply runway separation for arrivals; EO 203.3 Issue landing clearances; EO 203.4 Establish visual separation.

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3
Q

What are the references mentioned in the document for VFR Arrivals?

A

MATS 2.11 2024-04-01 TC AIM RAC 2024-03-21 CARs 2023-06-21 March UOM IWP User Manual.

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4
Q

What is the motivation for handling VFR arrivals emphasized in the lesson?

A

Proper handling of arrivals is an important part of a controller’s job. Making good decisions and being able to prioritize will help the student to functionally plan the integration of arriving traffic into the circuit.

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5
Q

What is the role of surveillance in monitoring arrivals?

A

When scanning the Situation Display SiT controllers correlate what is observed on radar with the known position of the aircraft detect potential conflicts observe inbound aircraft and anticipate increases in traffic.

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6
Q

What must pilots do before entering a control zone?

A

Pilots must establish radio contact with ATC before entering the control zone.

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7
Q

What is the difference between Class C and Class D airspace regarding entry requirements?

A

In Class D airspace two-way communications must be established for entry while in Class C airspace a clearance is always required.

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8
Q

What does CARs Excerpt 601.08 state about entering Class C airspace?

A

No person operating a VFR aircraft shall enter Class C airspace unless they receive a clearance from the appropriate air traffic control unit before entering.

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9
Q

What are the limitations of service that a controller may impose?

A

Controllers may limit the number of aircraft they can safely and efficiently control by instructing aircraft to hold on the ground or in the air or coordinating with an adjacent unit.

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10
Q

What should a controller do when they cannot accommodate a pilot’s request due to traffic?

A

The controller should instruct the pilot to remain outside the control zone and provide the pilot with the reason for the delay and an approximate wait time.

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11
Q

What does FDE stand for in the context of VFR arrivals?

A

FDE stands for Flight Data Entry.

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12
Q

What are the mandatory elements of an FDE?

A

The FDE includes the information provided by the pilot such as the position of the aircraft and the pilot’s intentions.

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13
Q

What is a VFR waypoint?

A

A VFR waypoint is a specified geographical location defined by longitude and latitude that is used in the definition of routes and for progress reporting purposes.

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14
Q

What does the acronym ETA stand for?

A

ETA stands for Estimated Time of Arrival.

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15
Q

What should a controller do if they do not have existing FDE information when an aircraft calls?

A

The controller must quickly create a new FDE and enter the information provided by the pilot.

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16
Q

What is the importance of clearly instructing a pilot to remain outside of the control zone?

A

The instruction must be clear and explicit so that the pilot fully understands the directive and does not create a dangerous situation outside the control zone.

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17
Q

What is the significance of establishing two-way communication with ATC in Class D airspace?

A

As soon as two-way communications are established the pilot has the right to enter the control zone unless otherwise instructed.

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18
Q

What actions should a controller take to analyze an aircraft’s intentions upon initial contact?

A

The controller must analyze the information communicated by the pilot regarding the aircraft’s position and intentions in the control zone.

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19
Q

How can a controller assist in managing heavy traffic during arrivals?

A

By limiting service and keeping aircraft outside the zone until they can provide safe and efficient control.

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20
Q

What is the intended outcome of effective communication between pilots and controllers?

A

To facilitate a safe and efficient flow of traffic and minimize confusion during arrivals.

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21
Q

What is the ATS surveillance system SiT used for?

A

The ATS surveillance system SiT is a good planning tool to identify VFR aircraft when they cannot be seen through the tower windows.

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22
Q

What is EO 203.1?

A

EO 203.1 refers to the directive to issue landing information in the context of VFR arrivals.

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23
Q

What are the basic requirements for identifying VFR aircraft?

A

Identify VFR aircraft prior to providing ATS surveillance service using established identification methods.

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24
Q

What does ‘IDENTIFIED position’ refer to?

A

It refers to the confirmation that an aircraft’s identification has been established using an identification method.

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25
Q

What are the two most commonly used identification methods for VFR departures?

A
  1. The position of the PPS is consistent with the position of the aircraft observed visually. 2. Squawk ident when the aircraft is observed on the situation display at a position that is within one mile of the departure end of the take-off runway.
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26
Q

What does the appropriate change in the PPS indicate?

A

It indicates that the PPS has been adjusted following the pilot’s instruction to change from one code to another.

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27
Q

What does the March UOM state regarding the surveillance display? (4 conditions)

A

Conditions for using the surveillance display:
* Obligation to provide services if available
* Size of the surveillance zone
* Who to provide the service to
* Procedures to follow in case of surveillance equipment failure

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28
Q

What is the best time to ask an aircraft to change its code or to squawk ident?

A

Upon initial contact.

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29
Q

What altitude must a controller validate during initial contact?

A

The altitude the pilot provides must be validated against the altitude displayed.

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30
Q

When do we validate an altitude readout?

A

On initial contact or as soon as possible after initial contact.

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31
Q

Under what conditions can the altitude readout be considered valid?

A

When it does not differ by more than 200 feet.

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32
Q

What is the altitude of a circuit?

A

1000 feet AAE.

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33
Q

What is the altitude of the circuit at CYMR?

A

1800 feet ASL.

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34
Q

What must a pilot-in-command do before taking off or landing at an aerodrome?

A

Ensure there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or vehicle and that the aerodrome is suitable for the intended operation.

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35
Q

What are the 7 responsibilities of a pilot around an aerodrome?

A
  1. Observe aerodrome traffic to avoid collision. 2. Conform to or avoid the traffic pattern. 3. Make all turns to the left in the traffic circuit unless specified otherwise. 4. Comply with operating restrictions. 5. Land and take off into the wind unless authorized otherwise. 6. Maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency. 7. Obtain clearance to taxi take off or land at controlled aerodromes.

A Clever Landing Can Leave Many Observers

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36
Q

What are the 11 exceptions for operating below 2000 feet over an aerodrome?

A
  1. In service of a police authority. 2. For saving human life. 3. For fire-fighting or air ambulance operations. 4. For the administration of the Fisheries Act or the Coastal Fisheries Protection Act. 5. For national or provincial parks administration. 6. For flight inspection. 7. For aerial application or inspection. 8. For highway or city traffic patrol. 9. For aerial photography by an air operator certificate holder. 10. For helicopter external load operations. 11. For flight training by a flight training unit operator certificate holder.

Peter Saved Five Amazing Penguins In A Tall Lighthouse Tower

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37
Q

What are the six legs of a circuit?

A
  1. Departure path. 2. Crosswind. 3. Upwind. 4. Downwind leg. 5. Base leg. 6. Final approach.
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38
Q

What is the purpose of providing landing information to arriving aircraft?

A

To inform the pilot of conditions that might impact landing as soon as time permits.

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39
Q

What should controllers include in initial landing information?

A

Aircraft id unit id runway id wind information altimeter information clearance details identification position report and other relevant information.

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40
Q

What is the protocol if a runway has been temporarily shortened due to construction?

A

Include ‘SHORTENED’ in the runway identification but this does not transfer pilot responsibility to the controller.

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41
Q

What is the significance of the term ‘SQUAWK IDENT’?

A

It is an instruction for the aircraft to activate its transponder allowing the controller to identify the aircraft.

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42
Q

What should be done if a pilot reports they received ATIS information?

A

Wind and altimeter setting information may be omitted but the runway must still be issued.

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43
Q

When must the time of the altimeter setting be provided?

A

When the setting has been taken from a weather report that was issued an hour or more before (aka stale).

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44
Q

What are the MATS Tower Service Fundamentals?

A

Controllers must issue clearances and instructions as necessary to maintain a safe orderly and expeditious flow of traffic.

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45
Q

What is the benefit of using both sides of the circuit?

A

It helps to separate aircraft eliminate conflicts and accelerate traffic flow.

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46
Q

What should a pilot indicate when communicating with the ground controller?

A

The aircraft’s parking location.

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47
Q

What is the phraseology example for indicating destination on the airport?

A

GUNC SAY YOUR DESTINATION ON THE AIRPORT.

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48
Q

How do controllers typically clear VFR aircraft to join the circuit?

A

Controllers normally clear VFR aircraft to a specific point in the circuit rather than using the generic statement ‘cleared to join the circuit.’

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49
Q

What happens if a pilot does not receive precise instructions when joining the circuit?

A

The pilot will join the standard downwind leg which gives controllers a vague idea of what to expect.

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50
Q

What are the typical entry points into the circuit for an aircraft?

A

The downwind leg base leg and straight-in.

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51
Q

What qualifiers are needed for downwind and base legs?

A

A left or right qualifier depending on the side of the circuit instructed.

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52
Q

What is meant by ‘cleared left downwind’?

A

It indicates that the aircraft is cleared to join the left downwind leg of the circuit.

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53
Q

What is another term for an entry point into the circuit?

A

Clearance limit.

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54
Q

What should be expected when a pilot reaches the clearance limit?

A

The aircraft should continue the pattern in a standard sized circuit unless instructed otherwise.

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55
Q

What type of restrictions may controllers specify when clearing an aircraft?

A

Geographic restrictions.

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56
Q

Give an example of a geographic restriction in a clearance.

A

YTM CLEARED RIGHT DOWNWIND VIA THE FIRST BRIDGE.

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57
Q

What is an altitude restriction in the context of circuit entry?

A

Clearance limits may include an altitude restriction such as ‘NOT ABOVE altitude’ or ‘NOT BELOW altitude’.

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58
Q

What obligation does the controller have regarding aircraft identification?

A

It is the obligation to advise the pilot that the aircraft has been identified and that ATS surveillance services will be provided.

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59
Q

What should a controller do after aircraft identification is established?

A

Inform the pilot with the phrase ‘IDENTIFIED position’.

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60
Q

What factors help determine whether to assign reporting points to an aircraft?

A

Distance between the aircraft and the airport and aircrafts intentions.

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61
Q

What is an example of a position report request?

A

GJAJ called the tower 11 miles west inbound from Westville at 2500 requesting permission to land at the March Airport.

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62
Q

What information should be included when providing landing information?

A

Traffic airport conditions restrictions and anything that might affect the aircraft’s arrival.

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63
Q

What should the controller provide if an aircraft calls in at a distance of 10 miles southwest for landing?

A

Runway 14 in use winds 100 at 15 altimeter 30.12.

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64
Q

What is the importance of having distinct reporting points for VFR pilots?

A

VFR pilots navigate by visual markers so reporting points must be distinct and easily seen from the sky.

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65
Q

What type of reporting points would IFR aircraft use?

A

NAVAID or approach waypoint such as NDBs VORs FAFs etc.

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66
Q

What might VFR aircraft report as a position report?

A

A simple distance back from the airport such as ‘REPORT 4 MILES NORTH’.

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67
Q

What type of information may controllers provide regarding aircraft arrivals?

A

Traffic airport conditions restrictions and other relevant arrival information.

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68
Q

What must controllers ensure regarding runway separation between arrivals?

A

There must be sufficient separation between aircraft using the same runway.

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69
Q

What is required for successive arrivals on the same runway regarding clearance?

A

The second aircraft may be authorized to land provided the first aircraft has either landed and taxied off or is at a sufficient distance.

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70
Q

What factors must be considered when establishing separation between arrivals?

A

Aircraft speed distance to the airport position of the first aircraft wind runway conditions aircraft types etc.

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71
Q

What phraseology can be used to advise about traffic to a second aircraft?

A

UZR TRAFFIC CHEROKEE AT BRAVO EXITING TO THE RIGHT CLEARED TO LAND RUNWAY ZERO-NINE.

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72
Q

What is a critical distinction in runway separation standards according to MATS?

A

A runway is free OR will be free.

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73
Q

What may increase the required length of runway for a landing aircraft?

A

Factors like poor visibility precipitation runway condition and lack of pilot experience.

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74
Q

What must the controller provide for the next arriving aircraft if the runway is slippery?

A

Additional separation.

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75
Q

What should instructors discuss with students regarding long landings performed by the second aircraft?

A

The impact of long landings and the importance of monitoring the approach speed.

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76
Q

What is the requirement for arrivals before departures on the same runway?

A

The arriving aircraft must have landed and taxied off the runway or vacate the runway before the departing aircraft begins its take-off roll.

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77
Q

What must occur before a departure can start their takeoff roll?

A

The previous arrival must be clear of the runway.

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78
Q

Under what condition may an arrival be permitted behind a departure on the same runway?

A

Before the arrival crosses the landing threshold the departing aircraft must be airborne.

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79
Q

What are the conditions that allow a departure to be airborne before an arrival crosses the threshold?

A
  1. It is at a distance from the threshold such that the arriving aircraft will not overtake it during the landing roll or conflict in the event of a missed approach. 2. It has turned to avoid any conflict with the arriving aircraft in the event of a missed approach.
80
Q

How is an aircraft considered airborne?

A

An aircraft is considered airborne when it has rotated and is committed to fly.

81
Q

What must a controller confirm with the pilot of a departing aircraft before issuing a landing clearance to an arriving aircraft?

A

The intentions of the departing aircraft.

82
Q

What conditions apply when confirming intentions with the pilot of a departing aircraft?

A
  1. The departing aircraft is using the same runway as an arriving aircraft. 2. A takeoff clearance has been issued to the pilot of the departing aircraft. 3. No verbal communications have been received from the departing aircraft’s pilot. 4. No movement is observed from the departing aircraft.
83
Q

What should a controller do if an aircraft does not start its takeoff roll promptly after issuing a takeoff clearance?

A

Confirm intentions and possibly pull the arrival aircraft as well as cancel the takeoff clearance before an unsafe situation occurs.

84
Q

What must the controller ensure before an arrival crosses the threshold?

A

That the runway or RPA is or will be free of obstacles taxiing aircraft and ground traffic.

85
Q

If unable to issue a landing clearance due to obstacles what should the controller inform the pilot?

A

That a clearance cannot be issued provide the reason and request the pilot’s intentions.

86
Q

What special information must be provided to pilots during landing clearance?

A

Traffic hazards obstructions runway exit runway surface conditions or other pertinent information.

87
Q

What is important for a controller to perform before issuing a clearance?

A

A thorough visual scan to ensure that there are no obstacles people or vehicles that might compromise safety in or near the landing area.

88
Q

What must a controller do if a pilot does not receive a landing clearance before their point of no return?

A

Expect them to start a go-around regardless of further instructions from ATC.

89
Q

What should be included in the landing clearance format?

A

Aircraft ID unit ID special information control instructions wind information and the operation for the clearance.

90
Q

What must controllers consider regarding wind information for aircraft?

A

If wind speed is 15 knots or more wind information must be provided when the aircraft is approximately 2 miles from the runway.

91
Q

What must controllers do if the wind information cannot be given to individual aircraft?

A

Broadcast this information periodically for the benefit of all aircraft on final approach.

92
Q

What does MATS specify regarding long landings?

A

Controllers may approve long landings only if the pilot requested it and traffic permits.

93
Q

What must a controller ensure about an aircraft before issuing a landing clearance?

A

That the aircraft is on approach to the correct runway.

94
Q

What happens if a pilot cannot comply with ATC instructions due to unexpected problems?

A

The pilot must report that they cannot comply as soon as possible.

95
Q

What is the responsibility of pilots regarding clearance requests at controlled airports?

A

The pilot must obtain landing clearance prior to landing.

96
Q

What is the expected distance for a landing clearance for a C172 or P28A?

A

At least one mile final.

97
Q

What is the expected distance for a landing clearance for medium and heavy aircraft?

A

At least three miles final.

98
Q

What should a controller do if traffic prevents them from giving specific wind information?

A

They should broadcast wind information for all aircraft on final approach.

99
Q

What does the term ‘SHORTENED’ indicate in a landing clearance?

A

The runway has been temporarily shortened due to construction and does not transfer pilot responsibility to the controller.

100
Q

What must be included when issuing a landing clearance?

A

Always indicate the runway number in the landing clearance.

101
Q

What will be discussed in later lessons regarding runway operations?

A

Other types of runway operations such as touch-and-go low approach option etc. Circuits will be discussed in lesson 301.

102
Q

What should be considered when issuing landing clearances?

A

Ensure that the intended runway and the RPA are free of all known obstacles including taxiing aircraft and ground traffic before the landing aircraft crosses the runway threshold.

103
Q

What is required for authorization to cross a runway after landing clearance?

A

Clear and precise coordination is required between the airport controller and the ground controller.

104
Q

What should be done if the runway is not visible to the airport controller?

A

Ensure that known taxiing aircraft and ground traffic are not on the runway.

105
Q

What factors should be considered when authorizing runway crossings?

A

The type and performance of taxiing aircraft ground traffic and airborne traffic runway conditions crossing point weather or visibility night operations and the requested crossing activity.

106
Q

What phraseology should be used if there is a chance that the runway will not be free when the aircraft lands?

A

CONTINUE APPROACH POSSIBLE PULL-UP.

107
Q

What does instructing a pilot to pull up imply?

A

It implies that the runway is obstructed and will not be clear prior to the landing aircraft crossing the threshold.

108
Q

What should VFR aircraft do after a landing clearance?

A

VFR aircraft are expected to overfly the runway while climbing to traffic pattern altitude and enter the traffic pattern on the crosswind leg.

109
Q

What should a controller do if a landing clearance cannot be ensured?

A

Cancel the clearance and inform the aircraft of the cancellation.

110
Q

What is the expected behavior of pilots regarding runway exits?

A

Unless otherwise instructed by the airport controller pilots are expected to continue in the landing direction to the nearest suitable taxiway and exit the runway without delay.

111
Q

What should be communicated to the pilot regarding runway exit instructions?

A

Instructions for exiting the runway should be given as soon as possible after landing.

112
Q

What is the phraseology used for instructing an aircraft to exit the runway?

A

Aircraft id unit id movement instructions for example BACKTRACK runway id TO exit point EXIT LEAVE VACATE GET OFF VIA taxiway id.

113
Q

What should pilots do if they are unable to establish contact with ground control after landing?

A

Pilots should stop and not cross any runway without receiving ATC authorization.

114
Q

What does ‘expedite’ mean in the context of runway exits?

A

It is used to instruct aircraft that are still on the runway to taxi quickly especially when there is approaching traffic.

115
Q

What is the significance of the last 500 feet of descent the first few seconds after landing the takeoff roll and the first 500 feet of climb?

A

These are considered critical phases of flight.

116
Q

What should controllers avoid doing during critical phases of flight?

A

They should avoid speaking to the pilot of an arriving aircraft unless it is a potentially dangerous situation.

117
Q

What is the proper response if the RPA is not clear and the aircraft is on short final?

A

The controller must instruct the aircraft to pull-up and go around.

118
Q

What should pilots do after leaving the runway?

A

They should continue to taxi forward across the taxi holding position lines or to a point at least 200 ft from the edge of the runway.

119
Q

What should be done if an aircraft is instructed to exit onto another runway?

A

The pilot must obtain further authorization to taxi and remain on tower frequency until clear of that runway.

120
Q

What is the role of the NEXT function in IWP upon issuing a landing clearance?

A

It indicates that the aircraft is cleared onto the runway.

121
Q

What must be ensured before instructing a pilot to exit the runway?

A

The controller must scan carefully for mistakes such as telling an arrival to exit into another aircraft holding short.

122
Q

What does the controller do when an aircraft has exited the landing runway?

A

The airport controller advances the FDE to the Taxied Arrival window on the ground controller’s IWP.

123
Q

What should be noted about changing aircraft to ground control frequency?

A

Normally do not change an aircraft to ground control until it is off the runway in use.

124
Q

What is the guideline for aircraft exiting a runway?

A

Pilots should taxi well clear of the hold position while contacting ground control to obtain taxi clearance.

125
Q

What happens when an aircraft is instructed to backtrack after landing on a dead-end runway?

A

The pilot will normally be given instructions to backtrack.

126
Q

What must the ground controller do when an aircraft has left the active runway?

A

The ground controller must always listen attentively to pilots’ calls since they may call for many reasons from different locations.

127
Q

What is a common mistake a ground controller might make regarding arriving aircraft?

A

An unprepared ground controller might think an arriving aircraft is calling to taxi for departure.

128
Q

What should the controller do before issuing a taxi clearance to an arriving aircraft?

A

Always confirm an aircraft’s position on a taxiway or runway through a visual observation before issuing a taxi clearance.

129
Q

What should a controller do if an aircraft states it is on a taxiway but cannot be seen on that taxiway?

A

The controller must question the pilot as it is possible the pilot made a mistake or that the controller misunderstood the aircraft’s call.

130
Q

What phraseology should be used to give taxi instructions to an aircraft’s destination?

A

TAXI VIA ECHO ALFA TO THE EAST APRON.

131
Q

What phraseology should be used to give taxi instructions to an intermediate point?

A

TAXI VIA ALFA HOLD SHORT ECHO.

132
Q

What phraseology should be used to instruct an aircraft to continue taxiing?

A

CONTINUE TAXI VIA ALFA TO THE EAST APRON.

133
Q

What phraseology should be used when instructing an aircraft to give way to another aircraft or vehicle?

A

TAXI VIA ECHO ALFA GIVE WAY TO BOEING-SEVEN-THREE-SEVEN ON ALFA.

134
Q

What should be done for arrival times under certain conditions?

A

If proper use of IWP to track data has been made the system will provide the information electronically.

135
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a pilot has after landing to make an arrival report if a flight plan was filed?

A

Within an hour following the last ETA communication or before the hour that SAR operations are initiated according to the flight plan.

136
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a pilot has after landing to make an arrival report if a flight itinerary was filed?

A

Before the hour that SAR operations are initiated according to the flight itinerary or within 24 hours following the last ETA communication.

137
Q

What is the ATC action for a VFR aircraft reporting arrival information on pilot request?

A

Give the time on.

138
Q

What must be done for VFR aircraft on FIC request regarding arrival time?

A

Report the arrival time to the FIC.

139
Q

What must be done for IFR or CVFR aircraft without delay?

A

Forward the arrival time to the appropriate ACC.

140
Q

What must be done if a pilot of an IFR aircraft closes its IFR flight plan?

A

Inform the appropriate ACC.

141
Q

How are VFR aircraft considered separated geographically?

A

VFR aircraft are considered separated when they have reported over separate clearly defined geographical points and their intended routes of flight will not conflict thereafter.

142
Q

What is visual separation based on?

A

The principle of see and be seen.

143
Q

How many ways are there to ensure visual separation?

A

Two ways: 1) The controller visually spots both aircraft and ensures no conflict exists. 2) One of the two aircraft must report having the other aircraft in sight.

144
Q

What is the phraseology for issuing an altitude restriction to an aircraft?

A

NOT ABOVE altitude or NOT BELOW altitude.

145
Q

What should be done promptly when altitude restrictions are no longer required?

A

Cancel the altitude restrictions issued to VFR aircraft.

146
Q

What is the worst-case scenario if a controller does not sequence an aircraft in a timely manner?

A

The pilot may not know that the controller wants them to follow specific traffic potentially causing the aircraft to cut off another aircraft in front.

147
Q

What must the controller issue when a pilot reports at the limit of the aircraft’s initial clearance?

A

A further clearance including Aircraft identification Sequence number Traffic information and Control instructions.

148
Q

What must be included in the traffic information given to a pilot?

A

Information such as position type and if significant the color of the aircraft to follow if not number one on approach.

149
Q

What should be specified when assigning an altitude to an arrival outside the control zone?

A

Specify that the altitude is to be maintained IN THE CONTROL ZONE.

150
Q

What is the main objective when establishing visual separation?

A

To establish visual separation between VFR aircraft.

151
Q

What is the MATS definition for VMC?

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions are expressed in terms of visibility and distance from cloud equal to or greater than the minima specified in CAR 602.

152
Q

What does visual separation mean according to MATS Tower Glossary?

A

A means used by controllers to separate aircraft operating in visual meteorological conditions.

153
Q

What is required of pilots who accept responsibility for visual separation?

A

Maintain constant visual contact with the other aircraft involved until visual separation is discontinued.

154
Q

When should controllers issue a sequence number?

A

As soon as the circuit is joined or just before joining it.

155
Q

What is the consequence of delaying the issuance of a sequence number to a pilot in the downwind?

A

An aircraft could turn base at an undesirable time and create an unsafe situation.

156
Q

What is the purpose of issuing a sequence number to an aircraft in the circuit?

A

To allow the pilot to follow and find the traffic lightening the controller’s workload.

157
Q

What information must be given when issuing a sequence number to an aircraft?

A

The exact type and position of the aircraft that the pilot is to follow.

158
Q

What does telling an aircraft that it is number 1 indicate to the pilot?

A

It tells the pilot that they do not need to look for traffic in front and to expect clearance later.

159
Q

In Situation 1 what is the phraseology used when there is no traffic?

A

JFE NUMBER ONE.

160
Q

In Situation 2 what is the phraseology when there is traffic e.g. a C172 on left base?

A

JFE NUMBER TWO FOLLOW CESSNA ONE-SEVEN-TWO ON LEFT BASE.

161
Q

Once an aircraft has been sequenced by the controller is it necessary to reissue a sequence number if the aircraft continues to follow the same traffic?

A

No it is not necessary to reissue a sequence number.

162
Q

What should the controller do if the pilot is unable to find the traffic they are supposed to follow?

A

The controller must assist the pilot in finding the traffic or issue instructions that will guarantee separation.

163
Q

What is the typical instruction for establishing visual separation in the circuit?

A

FOLLOW.

164
Q

What is the purpose of extending the downwind leg?

A

To create a hole for a departure or give an aircraft on final precedence over another aircraft on the downwind leg.

165
Q

What must the controller be when issuing instructions to extend the downwind leg?

A

Very explicit.

166
Q

What is self-cancelling restriction in the context of extending downwind?

A

It refers to the controller may or may not specify a time length or distance for the downwind leg extension.

167
Q

What phraseology might a controller use to advise a pilot to extend their downwind leg for departing traffic?

A

UZR EXTEND DOWNWIND ONE MINUTE DEPARTING TRAFFIC.

168
Q

What is the purpose of reducing the downwind leg?

A

To reduce the size of the circuit and accelerate traffic.

169
Q

What is the phraseology example for instructing an aircraft to turn base now?

A

YBL TURN BASE NOW.

170
Q

What is the purpose of extending a departure?

A

To separate a departing aircraft from an arriving aircraft joining downwind.

171
Q

What phraseology can be used to instruct an aircraft to fly runway heading?

A

UZR FLY RUNWAY HEADING.

172
Q

What information should be included in landing information for arriving VFR aircraft?

A

Aircraft identification Unit identification Runway identification Wind information Altimeter information Clearance details.

173
Q

When should a controller state the wind in a landing clearance?

A

When the wind speed or wind gusts are 15 knots or greater.

174
Q

What phraseology should be used if you cannot be sure the required runway separation will exist?

A

CONTINUE APPROACH POSSIBLE PULL-UP.

175
Q

What are some critical phases of flight?

A

Short final Landing roll Takeoff roll Initial stages of departure below 500.

176
Q

When is an aircraft considered visually separated?

A

When you can see the aircraft and no conflict exists or at least one pilot reports sighting traffic.

177
Q

What should a pilot do if they do not receive a further clearance after reaching their entry point in the circuit?

A

Continue with the circuit.

178
Q

When should a landing clearance be issued?

A

When the controller is satisfied that the aircraft is on approach to the correct runway or before the aircraft turns final.

179
Q

When would an airport controller normally change an arriving aircraft to the ground controller’s frequency?

A

Once it is off the runway in use.

180
Q

What are the six legs of the circuit?

A

Upwind Crosswind Downwind Base Final Departure.

181
Q

What are three methods used to create an arrival FDE?

A

Single-click on the SiT Data Tag NEW FDE on IWP F8 button on IWP.

182
Q

What information is provided for an arriving VFR aircraft?

A

Aircraft identification Unit identification Runway identification Wind information Altimeter information Clearance details.

183
Q

What are some examples of special information that could be included in the landing clearance?

A

Wildlife vehicles in or near the runway but outside RPA.

184
Q

What must be ensured regarding the runway and the RPA before a landing aircraft crosses the runway threshold?

A

The intended runway and the RPA must be free of all known obstacles including taxiing aircraft and ground traffic.

185
Q

What happens if the controller forgets to call back the pilot after turning the downwind leg?

A

The downwind leg may be unreasonably long or the pilot may decide to turn base when it may be dangerous to do so.

186
Q

What is the consequence of an indefinite phrase regarding extending the downwind leg?

A

The downwind may be indefinitely extended until advised.

187
Q

What are the best practices when advising a pilot to extend the downwind leg?

A

Advise the pilot why the downwind leg must be extended e.g. departing aircraft separation wake turbulence etc.

188
Q

What is suggested for students to learn how to manage a circuit in relation to simulation?

A

It is important to learn how to manage a circuit as the limited set of instructions available in the simulator will not prevent the student from acquiring this skill.

189
Q

What should be considered when asking a pilot to keep a tight circuit?

A

One pilot’s idea of a tight circuit will be very different from another’s.

190
Q

What are some examples of self-cancelling phraseology when extending downwind?

A

UZR EXTEND DOWNWIND ONE MINUTE DEPARTING TRAFFIC; YBL EXTEND DOWNWIND THREE MILES DUE WAKE TURBULENCE.

191
Q

What should be done if an aircraft’s downwind leg becomes too long?

A

The controller may instruct to reduce the downwind leg.

192
Q

What phraseology might be used when an aircraft is instructed to turn base sooner than normal?

A

YBL TURN BASE NOW.

193
Q

What should a pilot be advised regarding a traffic situation if they are on final and conflict is uncertain?

A

CONTINUE APPROACH POSSIBLE PULL-UP.

194
Q

What should instructors do regarding the examples from the MATS phraseology?

A

Excerpts from the MATS phraseology will be seen in BAC 301 which addresses techniques for controlling in the circuit.

195
Q

What is the importance of effective communication in the integration of arrivals and departures?

A

It explains how to manage a circuit and that the limited instruction set in simulators will not prevent skill acquisition.

196
Q

What concluding objective is highlighted in the lesson plan?

A

Recall issue landing information apply runway separation for arrivals issue landing clearances establish visual separation.